2013 I&I exam Flashcards
1
Q
Which cell has both class I and II HLA? A. Tc B. Th C. Nk D. B cell
A
D. B cell
2
Q
What is the maternal immunoglobulin that protects the fetus? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgD D. IgE E. IgA
A
A. IgG
3
Q
What can prevent HIV transmission when used before sexual intercourse? A. tenofivir gel B. lamivudine pill C. zidovudin suppositry D. acyclovir
A
A. tenofivir gel
4
Q
What are the initial responses to a viral infection? A. Interferon B. TNF α C. NK D. Macrophages
A
A. Interferon
5
Q
What's the most common non-infection cause of PUO? A. endocrinedisease B. connective tissue disease C. malignancy D. hypersensitivityreactions
A
C. malignancy
6
Q
Which organism is transmitted in the swimming pool? A. Q fever B. Yellow fever C. Rabies D. Leptospira
A
D. Leptospira
7
Q
What is the most common adverse effect associated with sulphonamide? A. Anaphylactic shock B. Ototoxicity C. Nephrotoxicity D. Hematuria E. Pseudomembranous colitis
A
D. Hematuria
8
Q
What is the structure used by E.coli to cause UTI?
A. Common fimbrea
B. Polysaccharide capsule
A
A. Common fimbrea
9
Q
What is used in the case of herpes simplex virus after organ transplant? A. Ganciclovir B. Acyclovir C. Oseltamivir D. Lamivudine
A
B. Acyclovir
10
Q
Which of these is a screening test for syphilis:? A. TPHA B. RPR C. Silver stain D. Dark microscopy field
A
B. RPR
Rapid plasma reagin
11
Q
Defect in the negative selection during T cells maturation results in
A
Autoreactive T cells
12
Q
Which of these is an example of innate immunity barrier?
A. opsonization complement
C. antibody killing
D. antibody defendant cytotoxic cell (ADDC)
E. IgA in the mucosa of the intestine
A
A. opsonization complement
13
Q
What is the best treatment to decontaminate used specimen containers and media? A. 5% phenol B. Hypoclorate C. Autoclaving D. Formaldehyde E. Glutaraldehyde
A
C. Autoclaving
14
Q
41 year old diabetic lady was admitted to the hospital with septicemia because of E. Coli, what is the risk factor?
A. Vap
B. central line infection
C. pyelonephritis
A
C. pyelonephritis
E. Coli is the most common cause of UTI; that means she has UTi then developed septicemia
15
Q
Which of these binds to egosterol & makes pores? A. Fluconazole B. Voriconazole C. Caspofungin D. Nystatin
A
D. Nystatin
a polyene
16
Q
What on B-cells can recognize protein and polysaccharide? A. MHC II B. CD20 C. IgM D. IgG E. IgA
A
C. IgM
IgM & LgD are both receptors for B-cells
17
Q
Deficiency in which of these gives a poor tuberculin test result? A. T cell B. B cell C. NK D. phagocyte
A
A. T cell
Tuberculin test is an example for hypersensitivity type 4, T-cell mediated
18
Q
Deficiency in CD40 Ligand on the T cell results in
a. hyper IgG syndrome
b. hyper IgM syndrome
c. hyper IgA syndrome
A
b. hyper IgM syndrome
19
Q
What is the main function of Th2 cells? A. killing of intracellular viruses B. induction of inflammatory response C. induction of apoptosis. D. activation of macrophages E. activation of antibody production
A
E. activation of antibody production
20
Q
Which of the following contains sequestered antigen?
A. skin
B. stomach
C. eyes
A
C. eyes
tissues are damaged, they’re suddenly exposed to the immune system, which treats them as foreign
21
Q
Whats used to recognize cell antigens in situ A. Elisa B. Radioimmuno C. Immunoassay D. Immunofluorescence
A
D. Immunofluorescence
22
Q
What is the most common etiological agent of impetigo? A. streptococcus milleri B. streptococcus agalactiae C. streptococcus pyogenes D. streptococcus mitis
A
C. streptococcus pyogenes
23
Q
What inhaled component causes zygomycosis infection?
A. Sporangiospores
B. Blastomyces
A
A. Sporangiospores
24
Q
What mechanism of Amphotericin B kills fungal cell?
A. Loss of K
B. Accumulation of k
C. Synthesis of ergosterol
A
A. Loss of K
25
```
Which of these organisms is resistant to alcohol scrub?
A. Salmonella typhimurium
B. e. Coli
C. clostridium difficile
D. s. aureus
E. enterococcus feacalis
```
C. clostridium difficile
26
If a baby was suspected syphilis what is the best method to investigate it?
A. Venereal disease laboratory assay
B. fluorescent treponemal antibody absorbent test
C. IgM-ELISA
D. IgG-ELISA
A. Venereal disease laboratory assay
27
What is the causative agent of saber shin?
Congenital syphilis
28
What is the mechanism of resistance to vancomycin by enterococcus feacalis?
A) target modification
B) altering permeability
C) efflux pump
A) Target modification
29
```
Which part of the world is endemic for both urinary and hepatic schistosomiasis ?
A) Africa
B) South East Asia
C) South America
D) China
```
A) Africa
30
N. gonorrhea virulence factors?
A) capsule
B) fimbrae
C) lipooligosaccharide
C) lipooligosaccharide
31
```
What is the best disinfectant for laparoscopy?
A. 5% phenol
B. Hypochlorite
C. Formaldehyde
D. Glutaraldehyde
```
D. Glutaraldehyde
32
What is the causative agent of genital nodules?
A) human papilloma virus
B) herpes simplex virus
C) molluscum contagiosum virus
C) molluscum contagiosum virus
33
```
A 35-year-old patient with anaphylactic reaction from peanut consumption. What is the effector cell in this case?
A. Th1
B. Th2
C. Monocyte
D. Macrophage
E. Mast cell
F. Eosinophil
```
E. Mast cell
34
What inhibits fungal DNA synthesis and acts synergistically with amphotericin B?
A. Flucytosine
B. Ketoconazole
C. Fluconazole
A. Flucytosine
35
```
A vaginal discharge showed clue cells. What can this be?
A. Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Haemophilus ducreyi
E. Mycoplasma hominis
```
A. Gardnerella vaginalis
36
```
Lyme disease symptom
s include
A. Body rash
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Splenomegaly
E. Eschar
F. Lymphadenopathy
G. Haemorrhage
```
E. Eschar
| a dry, dark scab or falling away of dead skin
37
```
What is the reservoir for Leptospira icterohemorrhagia?
A. dogs
B. pigs
C. chicken
D. cats
E. rats
```
E. rats
38
```
What is the reservoir for Campylobacter jejuni
?
A. dogs
B. pigs
C. chicken
D. cats
E. rats
```
C. chicken
39
```
A mother had an intrauterine fetal death at 30 weeks on autopsy the baby had microabscess in spleen and liver. What is the causative agent?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Treponema
C. Listeria
D. CMV
E. B. Melitens
F. M. Tuberculosis
G. P. Falciparum
H. Adenovirus
```
C. Listeria
40
```
What Permits precise enumeration of B cell sample
?
A. Cytometry flow
B. ELISA
C. Precipitation
D. Agglutination
E. Immunoassay
```
A. Cytometry flow
41
A 3 year old boy presented with tonsillitis. Laboratory investigation showed β hemolytic gram positive bacteria. What could be the causative agent?
A. streptococcus pyogenes
B. staphylocoocus aureus
C. streptococcus pneumonia
A. streptococcus pyogenes
42
```
What's the physical finding for Lyme disease?
A) Rash
B) Eschar
C) Hepatomegaly
D) Lymphadenopathy
E) Jaundice
```
B) Eschar
43
What's the physical finding for Lassa fever?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Jaundice
C) Hepatomegaly
A) Hemorrhage
44
```
What is the most common pathology caused by Tuberculosis
?
A. chronic villiositis
B. deciduitis
C. intervilliositis
D. chorioamnionitis
E. acute villitis
F. funisitis
```
B. deciduitis
| long-lasting inflammation that arises in pregnancy and affects the endometrial stromal tissue
45
```
What is the most common pathology caused by CMV
?
A. chronic villiositis
B. deciduitis
C. intervilliositis
D. chorioamnionitis
E. acute villitis
F. funisitis
```
A. chronic villiositis
46
What is the most common cause of septicemia?
A. E.coli
B. strept pneumoniae
c. s. aureus
c. s. aureus
47
What is the most likely causative agent of an outbreak of bloody diarrhea and HUS?
a. EPEC
b. EHEC
c. ETEC
b. EHEC
48
What is the most infectious virus in hospital setting ?
a. HSV-1
b. HPV
c. CMV
d. VZV
d. VZV
| Varicella Zoster Virus
49
What’s true about worried well?
A) high-risk sexual history
B) misinterprets physical complaints
B) misinterprets physical complaints
50
Where was the Thymus derived from?
a. 1st pharyngeal pouches
b. 2nd pharyngeal pouches
c. 3rd pharyngeal pouches
c. 3rd pharyngeal pouches
51
Antiviral that inhibits separation of influenza A/B from the host cell?
a. Rimantadine
b. Pimodivir
c. Oseltamivir
c. Oseltamivir
52
which virus may lead to severe anemia In infants?
a. VZV
b. Parvovirus b19
c. HSV
b. Parvovirus b19
53
What may lead to ototoxicity?
Gentamicin
54
Which drug inhibits NA?
a. Oseltamivir
b. Baloxavir marboxil
c. Favipiravir
a. Oseltamivir
55
What is the best antibiotic for tuberculosis?
Rifampicin
56
Someone with renal transplantation suffered from hemorrhagic cystitis. What’s the causative agent?
a. VZV
b. BK virus
b. BK virus
57
what causes patent ductus arteriosis?
a. Parvovirus B19
b. CMV
c. HIV
d. Rubella
d. Rubella
58
which of the following lead to anti-viral resistance?
a. INF
b. Ribavirin
a. INF
59
The most common Chemical messenger used in hypersensitivity?
a. Heparin
b. Histamine
c. Serotonin
b. Histamine
60
HIV causes
a. Low CD4+
b. Low CD8+
a. Low CD4+
61
Which type pf epithelia-reticular cells form Hassall's corpuscles?
a. Type 4
b. Type 6
c. Type 5
d. Type
b. Type 6
62
What causes retinitis in HIV patients?
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. CMV
d. Zika virus
c. CMV
63
The late reaction of type 1 hypersensitivity is mediated by?
a. Eosinophil
b. Neutrophils
c. CD4+
d. Reticuloendothelial cells
a. Eosinophil
64
What is the cause of a kid with hepatosplenomegaly, bossing frontal lobe, and saddle nose?
a. Rubella
b. Syphilis
c. CMV
d. HIV
b. Syphilis
65
How can you prevent Cervical cancer?
a. screening tests
b. vaccination
b. vaccination
66
A 29 year old woman presented with vaginal discharge with rotten fish smell. What most likely to be the cause?
a. Genital herpes
b. Gardnerella vaginalis
c. Cervical Cancer
b. Gardnerella vaginalis
67
What is the reservoir for Yersinia pestis?
a. Squirrels
b. Dogs
c. Cats
d. Rats
What is the reservoir for Yersinia pestis ?
| Rats
68
```
The function of reticular cells in the spleen?
A) production of collagen type 1
B) production of collagen type 2
C) production of collagen type 3
D) production of collagen type 4
```
C) production of collagen type 3
69
Which one of the following coagulase positive?
a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saptrophyticus
a. S. aureus
70
Which of the following antibiotics act on the early stage of peptidoglycan synthesis?
a. Cefotaxime
b. Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Amoxicillin
c. Vancomycin
| it's a glycopeptide
71
Which of the following antibiotics act on the late stage of peptidoglycan synthesis?
a. Cefotaxime
b. Vancomycin
a. Cefotaxime
| it's a Cephalosporin, a beta-lactam
72
Which of the following nucleoside analogue RTI?
a. tenofovir
b. nevirapine
c. zidovudine
d. raltegravir
c. zidovudine
73
A 1-year-old child acquired w/meningococcal meningitis. What prophylaxis should be given to the contacts?
a. rifampicin
b.
ciprofloxacin
c. penicillin V
b.
ciprofloxacin
74
A person with bilateral inguinal buboes most likely has...
a. Chlymadia trachomatis
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Kelbsella granulomatis
d. Gardnerella vaginalis
a. Chlymadia trachomatis
| Kelbsella granulomatis is usually unilateral
75
What does Gallium 67 citrate imaging bind to?
a. Leukocytes
b. Transferrin
c. Antibodies
d. Heme
b. Transferrin
76
What’s an example of type 4 hypersensitivity?
a. Anaphylaxis to peanuts
b. Systemic Lupus Erythmatous
c. Tuberculin skin test
d. Blood agglutination test
c. Tuberculin skin test
77
What's the key mediator in immediate-type 1 hypersensitivity?
a. Mast cells
b. Macrophages
c. Cytokines
d. B cells
a. Mast cells
78
What causes IDDM?
a. Neoantigen
b. Cytokine imbalance
c. High level expression of MHC-2
c. High level expression of MHC-2
79
What is most likely to cause catheter-related infection?
a. Total parenteral nutrition
b. Peripheral venous catheter
c. Pulmonary artery catheter
a. Total parenteral nutrition
80
Which drug is used to inhibit integration of viral DNA into the host DNA?
a. tenofovir
b. nevirapine
c. zidovudine
d. raltegravir
d. raltegravir
81
which of the following is true regarding maraviroc?
a. CCR5 receptor agonist
b. CCR5 receptor antagonist
c. CCR7 receptor agonist
d. CCR6 receptor antagonist
b. CCR5 receptor antagonist
82
A patient with mitral valve lesion wants to undergo tooth extraction. What is the best prophylaxis?
a. low oral dose cephalosporin
b. high oral dose cephalosporin
c. low oral dose amoxicillin
d. high oral dose amoxicillin
d. high oral dose amoxicillin
83
What does quarantine mean?
a. Isolation of people who are not ill but have been exposed
b. Isolation of people who are ill due to exposure
c. Isolation of people based on their symptoms
a. Isolation of people who are not ill but have been exposed
84
What type of cells line the splenic sinuses?
Elongated cells
85
Who’s the most likely to get a high-risk cervical test?
a. Women aged more than 14 years and have abnormal pap smear test
b. Women aged more than 18 years and have abnormal pap smear test
c. Women aged more than 21 years and have abnormal pap smear test
c. Women aged more than 21 years and have abnormal pap smear test
86
What’s the prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis?
Ciprofloxacin
87
What’s the most common agent that causes nosocomial septicemia infections?
a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saptrophyticus
a. S. aureus
88
How do you prevent reccurent HPV infections?
a. immunoglobulins
b. suppression therapy
b. suppression therapy
89
A pregnant lady presents with flu-like illness. Her child presented at birt with micro-abscesses in his liver and an eythmatous skin rash with nodules. A culture of the placenta revealed gram-positive bacilli. What is the causative agent?
a. Rubella
b. Listeria monocytogens
c. Toxoplasmosis
b. Listeria monocytogens
90
Khalid, a 20 year old college student, is a sensation seeker and engages in physical and social challenges associated with health- related behaviors that may put him at risk of acquiring an STD. What is the characteristic associated with Khalid’s behavior?
He underestimates the risk involved
91
What causes meningitis in HIV patients?
a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. CMV
d. Aspergillus flavus
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
92
what causes meningitis black colonies on niger seed agar?
a. Nocardia species
b. Candida albicans
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Cryptococcus neoformans
93
What infection causes sub pleural granulomatous in granulomatous lymphadenitis?
Mycobacterium (tuberculosis)
94
A neonate has encephalomyocarditis what infection that can cause this?
a. CMV
b. Coxsackie virus
c. HPV
b. Coxsackie virus
95
Where do you find radiolabeled leukocytes?
a. Persisting fever
b. lymphomas
c. leukemia
a. Persisting fever
96
What is the first thing that happens during a viral infection?
a. Interferon proliferation
b. B cell differentiation
c. Macrophage activation
d. T cell activation
a. Interferon proliferation
97
How do cytokines released by TH1 promote a better cell-mediated immunity?
a. Activate the plasma cell proliferation
b. Activate macrophages
c. Eosinophil stimulation
b. Activate macrophages
98
Hypoplasia of the right lower limb caused by?
a. HSV
b. VZV
c. Rubella
d. CMV
b. VZV
99
Histology for HIV patient showed intranuclear inclusions with epithelial cell fusion. What is the causative organism?
a. HSV
b. VZV
c. Rubella
d. CMV
a. HSV
100
How does ketoconazole affect the effectiveness of amphotericin?
it inhibits ergosterol synthesis and amphotericin binds to ergosterol to disrupt the ion balance of the fungus
101
A 15 year old boy presented with vomiting and abdominal pain 4 hours after eating a cream pie. What is the causative agent?
S. aureus
102
How can HPV be prevented?
Vaccine
103
What’s true about Tc?
it makes cytokines
