extra micro Q's Flashcards
(384 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is able to recognize the patterns of antigens?
a. innate immunity
b. specific immunity
A
a. innate immunity
the pattern recognition receptors recognize the microbe-associated molecular patterns
2
Q
Which of the following lyses cell wall?
a. lysosome
b. lysozyme
c. interferons
A
b. lysozyme
3
Q
What induces an antiviral state?
a. lysosome
b. lysozyme
c. interferons
d. complement proteins
A
c. interferons
4
Q
Which of the following is less specific?
a. phagocytosis
b. endocytosis
A
b. endocytosis
5
Q
Which if the following is a soluble PRR (pattern recognition receptors)?
a. complement
b. complement receptor
c. t cells
A
a. complement
B= a PRR on a cell surface
6
Q
What connects the two lobes of the thymus?
A
isthmus
7
Q
Each lymph node is surrounded by
a. elastic capsule
b. fibrous capsule
A
b. fibrous capsule
8
Q
Which of the following is NOT a B cell receptor?
a. IgD
b. IgG
c. IgM
A
b. IgG
9
Q
Which of the following recognizes an antigen presented with MHC class II?
a. CD4+
b. CD8+
A
a. CD4+
10
Q
On which chromosome are the genes responsible for HLA proteins?
a. chromosome 2
b. chromosome 6
c. chromosome 10
d. chromosome 15
A
b. chromosome 6
11
Q
Where are class I MHC molecules not expressed?
a. epithelial cells
b. neurons
c. red blood cells
d. lymphocytes
A
c. red blood cells
they’re expressed on all nucleated cells; RBC’s have no nucleus
12
Q
Where are class II MHC molecules not expressed?
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. Macrophages
d. Dendritic cells
A
a. T cells
they’re expressed on APC cells only
13
Q
Which of the following methods are used by dendritic cells to internalize antigens?
a. antibody-mediated uptake
b. pinocytosis
c. phagocytosis
A
b. pinocytosis
a is used by B cells and C by macrophages
14
Q
Which of the following is used to present an endogenous antigen?
a. class I MHC
b. class II MHC
A
a. class I MHC (it gets recognized by a cytotoxic T cell)
15
Q
Which of the following CD molecules is only found in helper T cells?
a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD8
A
b. CD4
16
Q
Which of the following CD molecules is only found in cytotoxic T cells?
a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD8
A
c. CD8
17
Q
Which of the following does NOT activate B cells?
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
e. IL-5
A
c. IL-3
18
Q
Which of the following provides a worm immunity?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD
A
a. IgE
19
Q
Which of the following is only found in intracellular fluids?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD
A
d. IgM
its too big to go extracellularly
20
Q
Which of the following is the predominant anti-toxin antibody?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD
A
c. IgG
21
Q
In which form is IgA found in secretions?
a. monomer
b. dimer
A
b. dimer
monomer in serum
22
Q
Which of the following is responsible for primary antibody response?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD
A
d. IgM
23
Q
Which of the following is responsible for secondary antibody response?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM
e. IgD
A
c. IgG
24
Q
Which of the following systems are complement proteins apart of?
a. innate
b. acquired
c. both
A
c. both
they can be activated by both of them
25
Which of the following is FALSE about T cell receptors (TCR)?
a. they have only one binding site
b. they're very specific
c. have a large part inside the cell
d. it has a co-receptor to signal back to the cell when it is activated
c. have a large part inside the cell
| TCR have a small part in the cell while CD3 receptors have a large intracellular part
26
Which of the following binds to macrophages and releases cytokines to reactivate its defective phagosime and lysosome fusion?
a. B cell
b. T helper 1 cell
c. T helper 2 cell
b. T helper 1 cell
| Th1 = CMI
27
Which of the following is an anti-inflammatory cytokine?
a. IL-1
b. IL-6
c. IL-10
c. TNF-alpha
c. IL-10
| anti-inflammatory = IL-4, IL-10, TGF
28
Which is used for humoral immunity?
a. T helper 1 cell
b. T helper 2 cell
b. T helper 2 cell
| A is for CMI
29
A patient with CMV also has HIV, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a. pneumonitis
b. retinitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. nephropathy
b. retinitis
30
A patient with BK had a renal transplant, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a. pneumonitis
b. retinitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. nephropathy
d. nephropathy
31
A patient with CMV had a transplant, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a. pneumonitis
b. retinitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. nephropathy
a. pneumonitis
32
EBV is associated with
a. pneumonia
b. hepatitis
c. mononucleosis-like disease
d. hemorrhagic cystitis
c. mononucleosis like disease
| CMV is associated with this too
33
Which of the following is associated with a vascular rash of different stages?
a. VZV
b. HSV 1
c. HSV 2
d. B&C
a. VZV
| HSV-1 &-2 = same stage vascular rash
34
Which of the following with Kaposi's sarcoma?
a. HHV6
b. HHV7
c. HHV8
d. A&B
c. HHV8
35
Which is associated with haemorragic cystitis?
a. BK virus
b. adenovirus
c. hMPV
d. A&B
d. A&B
36
hMPV is associated with
a. pneumonia
b. severe influenza
c. mononucleosis-like disease
d. hemorrhagic cystitis
b. severe influenza
37
Which of the following is used to treat CMV?
a. acyclovir
b. valacyclovir
c. famciclovir
d. valganciclovir
d. valganciclovir
| and ganciclovir
38
Which of the following is used for HBV?
a. tenofovir disoproxil fumarate
b. valganciclovir
c. Lamuvidine
d. valacyclovir
e. A&B
f. B&D
g. A&C
g. A&C
39
Which of the following is used for HCV?
a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
b. ribavirin
c. protease inhibitors
d. cidofovir
c. protease inhibitors
40
Which TWO of these is used for adenovirus?
a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
b. ribavirin
c. protease inhibitors
d. cidofovir
b. ribavirin
&
d. cidofovir
41
Which of the following is used for BK virus?
a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
b. ribavirin
c. protease inhibitors
d. cidofovir
a. reduced immunosuppressive therapy
42
Which of the following is NOT a primary lymphoid organ?
a. thymus
b. fetal liver
c. bone marrow
d. none
d. none
43
Where does positive selection occur?
a. cortex
b. medulla
a. cortex
44
Which of the following does the thymic cortical epithelium express highly?
a. MHC class 1
b. MHC class 2
c. both
c. both
45
What occurs when a T cell reacts to an MHC class 2 receptor of the thymic cortical epithelium?
a. it becomes a cytotoxic T cell
b. it loses the CD8 molecule
```
b. it loses the CD8 molecule
(in the cortex positive selection occurs so when it reacts to class 2 MHC it becomes a helper T cell by losing the CD8 molecule and keeping CD4)
```
46
What occurs when a T cell does not react to any MHC receptor of the thymic cortical epithelium?
a. it becomes a cytotoxic T cell
b. it loses the CD8 molecule
c. it loses the CD4 molecule
d. apoptosis
d. apoptosis
47
What occurs when a T cell does not react to thymic medullary epithelium?
a. apoptosis
b. maturation
b. maturation
| we are talking about the medulla, so its negative selection
48
Which cytokines are used by Treg to inhibit cellular activity of regular cells?
a. IL-9 & TNF-alpha
b. IL-10 & TGF-beta
c. IL-1 & IL-8
b. IL-10 & TGF-beta
49
Which of the following methods results in more apoptotic cells?
a. clonal deletion
b. clonal anergy
c. Treg cell
a. clonal deletion
50
Which of the following causes rheumatic fever?
a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules
b. neoantigens
c. molecular mimicry
d. cytokine imbalance
c. molecular mimicry
51
Which of the following causes hemolytic anemia?
a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules
b. neoantigens
c. molecular mimicry
d. cytokine imbalance
b. neoantigens
52
Which of the following causes insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?
a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules
b. neoantigens
c. molecular mimicry
d. cytokine imbalance
a. high expression of MHC class 2 molecules (on beta cells of the pancreas)
53
Systemic lupus (SLE) occurs because of high...
a. IL-2 & IL-8
b. IL-4 & IL-10
c. IL-6 & IL-12
d. IL-8 & IL-14
b. IL-4 & IL-10
54
Thyroiditis occurs because of...
a. high Treg & high Tc
b. high Treg & low Tc
c. low Treg & high Tc
d. low Treg & low Tc
c. low Treg & high Tc
55
Which of the following is true about the cause of Myasthenia gravis?
a. Auto antibodies attach acetylcholine, so there isn't enough to bind to receptors
b. Auto antibodies attach to acetylcholine receptors and stop it from binding
c. Acyetylcholine production is hindered and there isn't enough to bind to receptors
b. Auto antibodies attach to acetylcholine receptors and stop it from binding
56
Which of the following diseases is not organ specific?
a. pernicious anemia
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. insulin-dependent diabeted mellitus
b. rheumatoid arthritis
57
What is pernicious anemia?
decrease in red blood cells that occurs when the intestines cannot properly absorb vitamin B12.
58
T/F: the more antibodies present, the more precipitate is made
F; a correct antigen to antibody ratio is needed and too much of either causes no precipitation to occur
59
Which of these Antigen-antibody reactions use dyes to visualize the results?
a. precipitation
b. agglutination
c. immunoassay
c. immunoassay
60
Which immunofluorescence assay method is used to measure an unknown antibody?
a. direct method
b. indirect method
b. indirect method
61
when using the indirect method of immunofluorescence assay, which antibody is F-labeled?
a. primary antibody
b. secondary antibody
b. secondary antibody
62
When the antigen is unknown immunofluorescence assay method is used?
a. direct method
b. indirect method
a. direct method
| the primary antibody is tagged
63
Which of the following is a confirmatory AIDS test?
a. southern blotting
b. northern blotting
c. western blotting
d. eastern blotting
c. western blotting
| enzyme immunoassay
64
Which of the following is the most sensitive?
a. radioimmunoassay
b. immunofluorescence
c. enzyme immunoassay
a. radioimmunoassay
| its also hazardous
65
What is true about ficoll density?
a. its greater than all cells
b. its higher than granulocyte density
c. its lower than lymphocyte density
d. its higher than peripheral blood mononuclear cells
d. its higher than peripheral blood mononuclear cells
66
in the lymphocyte stimulation test, we measure DNA synthesis (which indicated proliferation) via
a. radioactive thymine
b. radioactive thymidine
c. radioactive guanosine
d. radioactive cytosine
b. radioactive thymidine
67
during the T cell cytotoxicity assay, how do we know when the T cell kills target cells?
a. measuring proteins
b. measuring enzymes
c. measuring radioactivity
c. measuring radioactivity
| they're released when the target cell dies
68
Which of the following can be used to sort cells via flow cytometry?
a. radioimmunoassay
b. immunofluorescence
c. enzyme immunoassay
b. immunofluorescence
69
Which TWO of the following are mediated by igG & igM?
a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4
b. hypersensitivity type 2
&
c. hypersensitivity type 3
70
In which of the following is the allergin an antigen?
a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4
a. hypersensitivity type 1
71
Which of the following cells bind with high affinity?
a. NK cells
b. Basophils
c. Macrophages
d. Monocytes
b. Basophils
72
Which of the following cells bind with low affinity?
a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Mast cells
d. Monocytes
d. Monocytes
73
A blood transfusion reaction is an example of...
a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4
b. hypersensitivity type 2
74
Which of the following is a newly formed mediator?
a. serotonin
b. thromboxane
c. tryptase
d. heparin
b. thromboxane
75
Which of the following releases IL-4 to tell the B cells to switch to making IgE?
a. Th1
b. Th2
c. cytotoxic T cell
d. epithelial cells
b. Th2
76
Which of the following mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity late reaction?
a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Mast cells
d. Monocytes
a. Eosinophils
77
Which TWO of the following complement proteins attract neutrophils?
a. C2b
b. C3b
c. C4a
d. C5a
b. C3b (tags the complex)
&
d. C5a (chemotctic)
78
Artheritis and bacterial endocarditis are examples of...
a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4
c. hypersensitivity type 3
79
Hay fever is examples of...
a. hypersensitivity type 1
b. hypersensitivity type 2
c. hypersensitivity type 3
d. hypersensitivity type 4
a. hypersensitivity type 1
80
Which of the following activate macrophages and trigger inflammation in type 4 reaction?
a. Th1
b. Th2
c. cytotoxic T cell
a. Th1
81
Which of the following usually remove immune comlexes?
a. granulocytes
b. mononuclear phagocytes
b. mononuclear phagocytes
| such as monocytes and macrophages
82
Which of the follwing is a mast cell activator?
a. C2a
b. C3a
c. C4a
d. C5a
d. C5a
83
Which of the following generate memory Th1 cells against delayed type hypersensitivity antigens?
a. Basophils
b. Dendritic cells
c. Mast cells
d. Eosinophils
b. Dendritic cells
84
What are colicins and what is their purpose?
a. man-made antibacterial proteins that kill pathogens
b. antibacterial proteins made by pathogenic bacteria to damage human cells
c. antibacterial proteins made by flora to protect itself
c. antibacterial proteins made by flora to protect it
85
How are pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) recognized?
a. MHC I
b. MHC II
c. T cell receptors
d. Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
d. Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
86
LPS activates...
a. TLR 1
b. TLR 2
c. TLR 3
d. TLR 4
d. TLR 4
87
Which of the following recognizes gram-positive bacteria?
a. TLR 2
b. TLR 3
c. TLR 4
d. TLR 5
a. TLR 2
| with help from TLR 1 or 6
88
Which of the following is LEAST likely to lead to phagocytosis?
a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
b. IgG2
| the other two have the highest affinity for Fc receptors, which leads to opsonization and phagocytosis
89
T cell-dependent B cell reaction produces
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
c. IgG
90
T cell-independent B cell reaction produces
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
b. IgM
91
Which of the following best describes hypermaturation of B cells?
a. variable changes that make the binding of the antibodies better
b. variable changes that reduce the binding affinity of antibodies
a. variable changes that make the binding of the antibodies better
(said in class)
92
Which of the following is more specific?
a. TLR
b. PAMP
a. TLR
93
Which of the following Fc receptors are on phagocytes and bind antibody-coated bacteria?
a. Fc alpha
b. Fc beta
c. Fc gamma
d. Fc delta
c. Fc gamma
94
Which of the following stops bacterial binding to epithelial cells?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE
a. IgA
| secretory IgA
95
Which of the following is the best activator of the complement system?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE
b. IgM
| it makes lots of antigen-antibody complexes
96
Which of the following neutralizes the virus?
a. mucin
b. pentraxin
c. collectin
c. collectin
| surfactant proteins A and D
97
Which of the following does CMV virus infect?
a. Leukocytes
b. B cells
c. CD4 T cells
a. Leukocytes
| every virus infects the cell that makes receptors for it; B=EBV infects it
98
Using antibiotics is an example of
a. infection prevention
b. chemo prophylaxis
c. immune prophylaxis
b. chemo prophylaxis
99
Which of the following should you give to a patient who has been bitten by a venomous spider?
a. active immunization
b. passive immunization
b. passive immunization
| give him the antibodies against the agent directly
100
Which of the following is more dangerous and more effective?
a. killed organism vaccine
b. surface antigen vaccine
c. living attenuated vaccine
c. living attenuated vaccine
101
Which of the following have a lower immunization time and lower immune reaction?
a. carbohydrate antigens
b. protein antigens
c. aluminum hydroxide
a. carbohydrate antigens
| they are poorly immunogenic, so we attach them with carrier proteins to get a better reaction
102
Which of the following is given to immunocompromized patients?
a. monoclonal antibodies
b. polyclonal antibodies
b. polyclonal antibodies
| they have a wide range and can protect them from multiple things at once
103
Which TWO vaccines are only needed once in life?
a. hep B
b. MMR
c. Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine (Hib)
d. varicella
b. MMR
&
d. varicella
104
Which of the following causes a combined deficiency?
a. B cell defect
b. T cell defect
c. complement component defect
d. phagocytes defect
b. T cell defect
| the most severe type of immunodeficiency
105
NK cells are important in killing
a. intracellular bacteria
b. extracellular bacteria
c. protozoa
a. intracellular bacteria
106
A deficiency of which of the following causes fungal infections?
a. phagocytes
b. neutrophils
c. complement system
d. NK cells
c. complement system
107
A deficiency of neutralizing antibodies results in a susceptibility to all of the following, EXCEPT
a. viruses
b. intracellular bacteria
c. extracellular bacteria
d. fungi
e. protozoa
d. fungi
108
Which if the following occurs because of a B cell failure?
a. hyper-IgM (HIgM) syndrome
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
c. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
| the other two are because of bad T cell signals to B cells
109
Why are patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia prone to enterovirus infections?
a. because of the T cell deficiency
b. because they lack IgA
c. because they lack IgM
b. because they lack IgA
110
Which of the following have absent B lymphocytes?
a. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
a= absent plasma cells
111
Which of the following has low IgG2 and IgG4 levels?
a. hyper-IgM (HIgM) syndrome
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)
c. IgA deficiency
d. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
c. IgA deficiency
112
Patients with which of the following are prone to tumors and autoimmune manifestations?
a. hyper-IgM (HIgM) syndrome
b. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
c. IgA deficiency
d. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
d. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
113
When a patient has a defective class switch, which of these indicates that the T cell is deficient?
a. CD40 receptor is defective
b. CD40 ligand is defective
b. CD40 ligand is defective
| mentioned in class
114
In which of the following does pneumonia occur due to Pneumocystis jiroveci?
a. severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
b. common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
a. severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
115
DIGeorge anomaly patients usually have a monosomy of
a. 21q11.2
b. 22q11.3
c. 22q14.2
d. 22q11.2
d. 22q11.2
116
A patient with ____ has a defective NADPH oxidase
a. leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)
b. chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
c. complement defects
b. Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
| the pathogens are not killed because there are no oxygen radicals, so the body makes granuloma
117
CR3 receptor on phagocyte membrane is made out of which two polypeptide chains?
a. CD12b & CD18
b. CD11b & CD16
c. CD11b & CD18
d. CD10b & CD16
c. CD11b & CD18
118
A deficiency in which inhibitor results in hereditary angioedema?
a. C1
b. C3
c. C5
d. C7
a. C1
119
Immune complex disease (SLE) develops because of a deficiency in
a. Terminal components
b. Alternative pathway components
c. Classical pathway components
c. Classical pathway components
120
A deficiency in which of the following does NOT cause a susceptibility to N. gonorrhea and N. meningitidis?
a. Classical pathway components
b. Alternative pathway components
c. Terminal components
a. Classical pathway components
| deficiencies in both terminal and alternative pathways lead to those infections
121
A deficiency in which of the following causes an increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections?
a. C1
b. C3
c. C5
d. C7
b. C3
122
Which of the following causes both systemic and innate fungal infections?
a. H. capsulatum
b. Candida
c. Zygomycetes
b. Candida
123
Which of the following produce IL-4 and IL-5?
a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17
d. T-Reg cells
e. B cells
b. Th2 cells
124
Which of the following produce TGF-β and IL-10?
a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17
d. T-Reg cells
e. B cells
d. T-Reg cells
125
Which of the following produce IL-17 and IL-22?
a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17
d. T-Reg cells
e. B cells
c. Th17
126
Which of the following is a transplant that uses stem cells taken from a donor?
a. Autologous transplant
b. Allogeneic transplant
b. Allogeneic transplant
127
Which two Candida species show positive germ tube and chlamydospore test?
a. Candida tropicalis
b. Candida dubliniensis
c. Candida parapsilosis
d. Candida albicans
b. Candida dubliniensis
&
d. Candida albicans
128
Which agar is used to diagnose Candida spp.?
a. Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
b. Neomycin agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Niger seed agar
a. Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
129
Which is *NOT* a sign of angioinvasive aspergillosis patient?
a. ‘halo sign’
b. hemorrhage
c. retinitis
d. coagulative necrosis
c. retinitis
130
Which of the following is most likely to lead into Invasive aspergillosis?
a. solid organ transplant recipient
b. hematopoietic stem cell recipient
b. hematopoietic stem cell recipient
131
Which of the following is most likely to lead into Invasive candidiasis?
a. solid organ transplant recipient
b. hematopoietic stem cell recipient
a. solid organ transplant recipient
132
Fusarium spp. develop from a cottony white color to a
a. blue or green color
b. silver or grey color
c. pink or violet color
c. pink or violet color
133
Patients with which of the following are more likely to develop rhinocerebral mucormycosis?
a. peptic ulcers
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
c. soft tissue infections
d. leukemia
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
134
Patients with which of the following are more likely to develop cutanious mucormycosis?
a. peptic ulcers
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
c. soft tissue infections
d. leukemia
c. soft tissue infections
135
Patients with which of the following are more likely to develop pulmonary mucormycosis?
a. peptic ulcers
b. diabetic ketoacidosis
c. soft tissue infections
d. leukemia
d. leukemia
136
Which of the following affects the brain?
a. penicilliosis
b. cytomegalovirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
d. human papillomavirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
137
Which of the following affects the eyes?
a. penicilliosis
b. cytomegalovirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
d. human papillomavirus
b. cytomegalovirus
138
Which of the following affects the lungs?
a. penicilliosis
b. cytomegalovirus
c. cryptococcal meningitis
d. human papillomavirus
a. penicilliosis
139
Which of the following organism has a honeycomb appearance?
a. candida
b. pneumocystis
c. cryptococcosis
b. pneumocystis
140
What is false about pneumocystis jirovecii?
a. has grey colored cysts
b. treated with Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole
c. does not grow in medium
d. cell wall made mostly of ergosterol
d. cell wall made mostly of ergosterol
141
Which agar is used to diagnose cryptococcosis spp.?
a. Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
b. Neomycin agar
c. Chocolate agar
d. Niger seed agar
d. Niger seed agar
| brown colonies
142
Which cryptococcosis spp. grow on canavanine glycine bromothymol blue (CGB) agar?
a. C. gatti
b. C. neoformans
a. C. gatti
143
Which of the following species can be diagnosed via CSF?
a. Pneumocystis spp.
b. cryptococcosis
c. candida
b. cryptococcosis
144
Which crypococcosis virulence factor is important for diagnoses?
a. melanin
b. polysaccharide capsule
c. urase production
b. polysaccharide capsule
145
Which of the following is found in Africa?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
e. Emergomyces africanus
e. Emergomyces africanus
146
Which of the following is a Large endospore-filled spherule?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
e. Emergomyces africanus
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
147
Which of the following is found in India and SE asia?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Coccidioides immitis (posadesii)
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
e. Emergomyces africanus
d. Penicillium marneffei (Talaromyces)
148
Which of the following is more infective?
a. HBV
b. HCV
c. HIV
a. HBV
149
Which of the following should you NOT do after a needle prick injury?
a. encourage the wound to bleed
b. wash it with water and soap
c. scrub the area to make sure its clean
d. dry and cover the wound
c. scrub the area to make sure its clean
150
Which of the following has the highest fatality?
a. ebola virus
b. marburg virus
c. lassa virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus
b. marburg virus
151
Which of the following is spread via hyalomma tick bites?
a. ebola virus
b. marburg virus
c. lassa virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus
152
Which of the following is spread via rat urine or feces?
a. ebola virus
b. marburg virus
c. lassa virus
d. Congo-Crimean fever virus
c. lassa virus
153
Which of the following is the most appropriate place for a patient with a contagious and dangerous virus?
a. negative pressure room
b. positive pressure room
a. negative pressure room
154
Which of the following is the most appropriate place for an immunosuppressed patient?
a. negative pressure room
b. positive pressure room
b. positive pressure room
155
How long do viruses survive on a non-absorbative surface?
a. 3 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 10 hours
d. 10 hours
156
Which of the following is used to treat RSV?
a. Palivizumab
b. Oseltamivir
c. Zanamivir
d. Tamiflu
a. Palivizumab
157
Which of the following viruses are responsible for the common cold?
a. CMV
b. RSV
c. Rhinovirus
d. Parainfluenza virus
c. Rhinovirus
158
Why can a patient get rhinovirus many times without becoming immune?
it has many serotypes
159
large vs small droplet spread
influenza virus = both
parainfluenza virus= large
adenovirus= both
160
Which Parainfluenza virus serotype is responsible for causing pneumonia?
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
161
Which of the following can be acquired endogenously and exogenously?
a. Rhinovirus
b. Adenovirus
c. Parainfluenza virus
b. Adenovirus
162
Which of the following have the highest risk of developing SARS coronavirus?
a. healthcare worker
b. child
d. elder
a. healthcare worker
| 20% of the people affected
163
Which animal is associated with MERS coronavirus?
a. Alligator
b. Bear
c. Camel
d. Dear
c. Camel
164
Which of the following can be transmitted 4 days before and after the rash?
a. measles
b. rubella
c. parvovirus B19
a. measles
| b&c is 7 days before and after the rash
165
Which of the following is the most likely to be spread to close contacts?
a. parvovirus B19
b. measles
c. varicella zoster virus
b. measles
| 90% likely
166
Which of the following cannot be spread via respiratory secretions?
a. shingles
b. chickenpox
a. shingles
| only via contact with lesions
167
Which TWO of the following are used to treat chickenpox?
a. Oseltamivir
b. Famciclovir
c. Valaciclovir
d. Zanamivir
b. Famciclovir
&
c. Valaciclovir
168
Which of the following causes aseptic meningitis in immunocompromized patients?
a. rubella
b. mumps
c. measles
b. mumps
169
Enteroviruses shed for how long after the infection?
a. 5 days
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 1 month
d. 1 month
170
Which of the following is not one of the small round-structured viruses (SRSVs)?
a. astrovirus
b. calicivirus
c. enterovirus 70
d. norwalk virus
c. enterovirus 70
171
Which of the following is NOT associated with nosocomial infections?
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis E
c. rotavirus
b. hepatitis E
172
Which of the following is the most common cause of nosocomial infections in pediatric patients?
a. astrovirus
b. calicivirus
c. rotavirus
d. norwalk virus
c. rotavirus
173
Which of the following best describes the action of amantadine?
a. stops the uncoating stage via the M1 proteins
b. stops the uncoating stage via the M2 proteins
c. binds to sialic acid to deactivate it
d. activate cytokines via agonistic TLR-7 &8
b. stops the uncoating stage via the M2 proteins
174
Which of the following is active against influenza C?
a. Favipiravir
b. Pimodivir
c. Baloxavir marboxil
a. Favipiravir
175
Which of the following is only active against influenza A?
a. Favipiravir
b. Pimodivir
c. Baloxavir marboxil
b. Pimodivir
176
Which of the following best describes the action of imiquimod?
a. stops the uncoating stage via the M1 proteins
b. stops the uncoating stage via the M2 proteins
c. binds to sialic acid to deactivate it
d. activate cytokines via agonistic activity towards TLR-7 &8
d. activate cytokines via agonistic activity towards TLR-7 &8
(treats HPV)
177
Which of the following is Rimantadine active against?
a. influenza A
b. influenza B
c. influenza C
d. A&B
e. B&C
a. influenza A
| it's an M2 blocker
178
Which of the following is Zanamivir active against?
a. influenza A
b. influenza B
c. influenza C
d. A&B
e. B&C
d. A&B
179
Which of the following best describes the action of Peramivir?
a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
| its a neuraminidase inhibitor
180
Which of the following best describes the action of Baloxavir marboxil?
a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme
| its a polymerase inhibitor
181
Which HCV genotype is resistant to interferon alpha (IFN-α)?
a. genotype 1
b. genotype 2
c. genotype 3
a. genotype 1
182
Which of the following best describes the action of Ribavirin?
a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme
a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
| switching from Th2 to Th1; from humoral to cell mediated
183
Which of the following best describes the action of IFN-α (interferon alpha)?
a. inhibits IL-4, thus activating the CTL
b. inhibits neuraminidase from cleaving the sialic acid
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
d. stop transcription by blocking polymerase enzyme
c. increases the expression of MHC molecules
| stimulating immune system
184
Which of the following is true about Ribavirin?
a. an analog of thymine
b. an analog of cytosine
c. pairs up with adenosine
d. pairs up with uridine
d. pairs up with uridine
| Ribavirin is an analog of Guanine & Adenine; it pairs up with uridine & cytosine
185
Which of the following is a non-nucleoside analogue (NNRTI)?
a. Lamivudine
b. Tenofovir
c. Enfuvirtide
d. Efavirenz
d. Efavirenz
| we took nevirapine too
186
Which of the following is a nucleotide analogue (NRTI)?
a. Atazanavir
b. Tenofovir
c. Enfuvirtide
d. Efavirenz
b. Tenofovir
187
Which of the following is a fusion inhibitor?
a. Atazanavir
b. Tenofovir
c. Enfuvirtide
d. Efavirenz
c. Enfuvirtide
188
Which of the following is an anti-viral that only works on infected cells?
a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. valacyclovir
d. famciclovir
b. acyclovir
| needs to be phospholyrated to be active. It's phspholyrated by thymidine kinase, which is only in infected cells.
189
What is the drug of choice to treat CMV retinitis?
a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. cidofovir
d. famciclovir
c. cidofovir
190
What is the drug of choice to treat Herpes Simplex Encephalitis?
a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. cidofovir
d. foscarnet
b. acyclovir
191
What drug is used to treat Herpes Simplex Encephalitis if the patient is resistant to acyclovir?
a. penciclovir
b. acyclovir
c. cidofovir
d. foscarnet
d. foscarnet
192
Which dose of acyclovir are patients with Herpes Simplex Encephalitis given?
a. 10 mg/kg for every 6 hours for 15-21 days
b. 10 mg/kg for every 8 hours for 15-20 days
c. 10 mg/kg for every 8 hours for 14-21 days
d. 10 mg/kg for every 6 hours for 14-20 days
c. 10 mg/kg for every 8 hours for 14-21 days
193
which of the following is an analogue of guanine?
a. entecavir
b. adefovir
c. lamivudin
a. entecavir
194
Which of the following treats HBV but cannot treat HIV?
a. entecavir
b. adefovir
c. imiquimod
b. adefovir
| can't be used for HIV because an extremely high dose is required
195
Which of the following describes the primary stage of syphilis?
a. condylomata lata
b. fever
c. gumma
d. regional lymph nodes enlarged
d. regional lymph nodes enlarged
196
Which of the following describes the secondary stage of syphilis?
a. chancer development
b. no clinical manifestations
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
d. gumma development
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
197
Which describes latent syphilis?
a. no clinical manifestations
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
c. gumma development
d. chancer development
a. no clinical manifestations
198
Which describes tertiary syphilis?
a. chancer development
b. no clinical manifestations
b. patchy alopecia and iritis
d. charcot's joint
d. charcot's joint
| and gumma development
199
Which of these is used as a confirmatory syphilis test?
a. serology
b. TPHA specific test
c. non-specific test
d. direct microscopy
b. TPHA specific test
200
Which of these is used to measure syphilis activity?
a. serology
b. TPHA specific test
c. VDRL/RPR non-specific test
d. direct microscopy
c. VDRL/RPR non-specific test
201
penicillin is prescribed for 15-21 days to treat syphilis in the case of
a. primary & secondary syphilis
b. tertiary & late syphilis
c. pregnancy & congenital syphilis
b. tertiary & late syphilis
202
Adult patient with syphilis is allergic to penicillin, which of the following should you prescribe?
a. ceftriaxone
b. doxycycline
c. erythromycin
b. doxycycline
203
A pregnant patient with syphilis is allergic to penicillin, which of the following should you prescribe?
a. ceftriaxone
b. doxycycline
c. erythromycin
a. ceftriaxone
| it crosses the placenta
204
Which of the following has more mutations?
a. RNA
b. DNA
a. RNA
205
Which of the following is true?
a. the faster the viral clearance, the more the mutations
b. the faster the viral production, the more the mutations
c. the slower the viral production, the more the mutations
b. the faster the viral production, the more the mutations
206
Which is true about a drug with maximal antiviral activity
a. an eliminate the wild type only
b. has a moderate chance of producing resistance
c. produces no viral load
d. high selective pressure
c. produces no viral load
207
Which is true about a drug with intermediate antiviral activity
a. an eliminate the mutant viruses only
b. has no chance of producing resistance
c. produces no viral load
d. high selective pressure
d. high selective pressure
208
Which of the following is more likely to cause a drug resistance?
a. poor antiviral activity
b. intermediate antiviral activity
c. maximal antiviral activity
b. intermediate antiviral activity
209
Which TWO of the following mutations cause nelfinavir?
a. D20M
b. D30N
c. L90M
d. L80N
b. D30N
&
c. L90M
210
Which of the following has a high genetic barrier to resistance?
a. protease inhibitors
b. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. integrase inhibitors
a. protease inhibitors
211
Which of the following requires 1 or 2 mutations to get drug resistance?
a. protease inhibitors
b. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. integrase inhibitors
b. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
| low genetic barrier
212
Which of the following should you give to a patient that has a YMDD mutant hep B virus?
a. lamivudine
b. adefovir
c. entecavir
c. entecavir
| effective against lamivudine-resistant strains
213
Which of the following HCV genotype is the most susceptible to resistance?
a. genotype 1
b. genotype 2
c. genotype 3
d. genotype 4
a. genotype 1
214
Which genotype of the IL28B gene is associated with a better response?
a. CT
b. TT
c. CC
c. CC
215
mutations NS3 &NS4A are associated with resistance to...
a. HCV DNA inhibitors
b. HCV protease inhibitors
c. HBV DNA inhibitors
d. HBV protease inhibitors
b. HCV protease inhibitors
216
Which of the following insertion site has the highest infection rate?
a. femoral
b. subclavian vein
c. jugular
a. femoral
217
which of the following is the most common cause of infection in a long central line?
a. candida
b. enterococcus
c. staphylococcus
d. pseudomonas
c. staphylococcus
218
a catheter was inserted due to an emergency, when must you remove it?
a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 72 hours
d. after 72 hours
b. after 24 hours
219
A peripheral venous catheter was inserted, when does it have to be removed?
a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 72 hours
d. after 7 days
c. after 72 hours
220
A central venous catheter was inserted, when does it have to be removed?
a. after 12 hours
b. after 24 hours
c. after 72 hours
d. after 7 days
d. after 7 days
221
What is used to disinfect a catheter for high-risk patients?
a. chlorhexidine
b. vancomycin
b. vancomycin
222
the Hickman catheter is what type?
a. central venous catheter
b. peripheral venous catheter
a. central venous catheter
223
Which of the following inhibits DNA synthesis?
a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. flucytosine
d. echinocandins
c. flucytosine
224
Which of the following inhibits ergosterol biosynthesis?
a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. flucytosine
d. echinocandins
a. azoles
225
Which is true about liposomal amphotericin B (L-AMB)?
a. more neurotoxic than amphotericin B
b. don't harm human cells
c. accumulates in the kidney
b. don't harm human cells
| the rest are false!
226
Which of the following causes ergosterol disruption?
a. azoles
b. polyenes
c. flucytosine
d. echinocandins
b. polyenes
227
Which of the following has a disk-like particle shape?
a. ABLC
b. ABCD
c. L-AMB
b. ABCD
228
Which of the following has a ribbon-like particle shape?
a. ABLC
b. ABCD
c. L-AMB
a. ABLC
229
Which of the following is the drug of choice for deep-seated fungal infections?
a. Amphoterin B
b. ABLC
c. ABCD
d. L-AMB
a. Amphoterin B
230
Which of the following spreads more evenly due to its small size?
a. Amphoterin B
b. ABLC
c. ABCD
d. L-AMB
d. L-AMB
231
Which of the following enzyme does azole inhibit?
a. 14-alpha-demethylase
b. 16-alpha-demethylase
c. 14-alpha-methylase
d. 16-alpha-methylase
a. 14-alpha-demethylase
232
What is the precursor of ergosterol?
squalene
233
Which of the following is used for UTI's?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
a. fluconazole
234
Which of the following is active against zygomycetes?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
d. posaconazole
235
Which of the following is the best choice for aspergillosis infection?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
c. voriconazole
236
Which of the following is a prodrug?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
e. isavuconazole
237
Which of the following is becomes more bioavailable when taken orally with high-fat meal?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
d. posaconazole
(voriconazole becomes less bioavailable if taken with a fatty meal
238
Which TWO of the following has a side-effect of visual disturbances such as hallucinations?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
b. itraconazole
&
c. voriconazole
239
Which of the following requires cyclodextrin to function?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
c. voriconazole
240
Which of the following has an oral bioavailability that's equal to intravenous bioavailability?
a. fluconazole
b. itraconazole
c. voriconazole
d. posaconazole
e. isavuconazole
e. isavuconazole
241
Which of the following is true about flucytosine?
a. rarely used in combination
b. getting resistance is rare
c. high levels lead to myelotoxicity
c. high levels lead to myelotoxicity
242
flucytosine + Amphoterin B combo are used to treat which TWO of the following?
a. candida endophthalmitis
b. candida parapsilosis
c. cryptococcal pneumonitis
d. cryptococcal meningitis
a. candida endophthalmitis
&
d. cryptococcal meningitis
243
Which of the following cannot be treated with Echinocandins?
a. C. albicans
b. C. neoformans
c. C. krusei
d. C. glabrata
b. C. neoformans
244
What's the first choice for treating candidiasis?
caspofungin
245
Which method is used to disinfect porous material?
a. heat
b. steam
c. gamma radiation
b. steam
246
Which method is used to disinfect plastic that is not heat resistant?
a. heat
b. steam
c. gamma radiation
c. gamma radiation
247
Which of the following is used to culture Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?
a. Chocolate agar with isovitalex
b. Thayer-Martin medium
c. Chocolate agar
b. Thayer-Martin medium
248
Which of the following organisms cannot be cultivated?
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. treponema pallidum
c. treponema pallidum
249
which of the following results in chancroid with a soft edge?
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. treponema pallidum
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
a. heamophilus ducreyi
| b= hard edge
250
Which of the following symptoms does a baby with congenital syphilis have?
a. chancre
b. rash
c. no symptoms
d. skin gumma
b. rash
| symptoms of secondary syphilis
251
Describe reticular bodies of chlamydia trachomatis
a. non-infectious intracellular form
b. infections extracellular form
b. infections extracellular form
252
Which of the following is resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics?
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. treponema pallidum
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. chlamydia trichromatis
d. chlamydia trichromatis
253
Which of the following causes inguinal lymphadentis?
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. chlamydia trichromatis
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. treponema pallidum
a. heamophilus ducreyi
254
Which of the following causes lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?
a. heamophilus ducreyi
b. chlamydia trichromatis
c. neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. treponema pallidum
b. chlamydia trichromatis
255
Which of the following causes painful ulcer?
a. haemophilus ducreyi
b. treponema pallidum
a. heamophilus ducreyi
| b= painless
256
Which of the following causes donovanosis?
a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. heamophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis
c. klebsiella granulomatis
257
Which of the following is cultured with chocolate agar with isovitalex?
a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
258
Which of the following has clue cells when you culture it?
a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis
d. gardnerella vaginalis
259
Which of the following has Donovan bodies when you culture it?
a. chlamydia trichromatis
b. haemophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. gardnerella vaginalis
c. klebsiella granulomatis
260
Which TWO of the following causes PID?
a. neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. heamophilus ducreyi
c. klebsiella granulomatis
d. mycoplasma genitalium
e. chlamydia trichromatis
f. gardnerella vaginalis
a. neisseria gonorrhoeae
&
d. mycoplasma genitalium
261
Which of the following is a specific antibody test?
a. VDRL
b. TPHA
c. RPR
b. TPHA
262
Which of the following CANNOT treat chlamydia trichromatis?
a. tetracycline
b. amoxicillin
c. erythromycin
b. amoxicillin
| because it's a beta-lactam and chlamydia is resistant to them
263
Which of the following causes painful lesions?
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV
a. HSV
264
Which of the following causes cauliflower warts?
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV
b. HPV
265
Which of the following produces lesions that produce creamy grey-white lesions?
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV
c. MCV
266
Which of the following is most commonly transferred by sexual contact?
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
b. HBV
267
Which of the following would you find after doing a serology test on a patient vaccinated against HBV?
a. Hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc)
b. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
c. Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs)
c. Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs)
268
Which of the following indicates infectivity?
a. HCV RNA
b. HCV-specific antibodies
a. HCV RNA
| B indicates exposure
269
Which of. the following transmits Zika virus?
a. anopheles
b. aedes
c. culicinae
b. aedes
270
Which of the following has a complication of developing Guillian Barre syndrome?
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. MCV
d. Zika Virus
d. Zika Virus
271
Which of the following confirms antigen presence (used for HIV testing)?
a. Western Bolt
b. PCR
b. PCR
| A confirms antibody presence
272
Which of the following kills spores?
a. boiling water at 100 C
b. autoclaving
c. pasteurization
b. autoclaving
273
Which of the following is true about dry heat?
a. generally more efficient than moist heat
b. used to sterilize oils and powers
c. requires a lower temperature than moist heat
b. used to sterilize oils and powers
274
Which sterilization method does the electron accelerator machine use?
a. moist heat
b. dry heat
c. gaseous sterilization
d. gamma radiation
e. filters
d. gamma radiation
| used to sterilization plastic goods
275
Which sterilization method do we use for blood?
a. moist heat
b. dry heat
c. gaseous sterilization
d. gamma radiation
e. filters
e. filters
276
Which of the following is a purified subunit vaccine?
a. Oral Polio vaccine
b. Yellow fever
c. Influenza vaccine
d. Hepatitis B vaccine
c. Influenza vaccine
277
Which of the following is a recombinant viral antigen vaccine?
a. Oral Polio vaccine
b. Yellow fever
c. Influenza vaccine
d. Hepatitis B vaccine
e. Measles
d. Hepatitis B vaccine
278
Which of the following diseases can be vaccinated against via synthetic peptides?
a. Polio
b. Yellow fever
c. Dengue fever
d. Foot and mouth disease
d. Foot and mouth disease
279
Which of the following should be given to immunocompromised people?
a. IPV (intravenous poliovirus)
b. OPV (oral poliovirus)
a. IPV (intravenous poliovirus)
| because its an inactivated version of the virus
280
Which of the following should be given to an HIV-infected baby?
a. normal immune globulin
b. hyper-immune globulin
a. normal immune globulin
281
Patient was bitten by a rabid dog, which of the following should you use to prevent rabies?
a. normal immune globulin
b. hyper-immune globulin
b. hyper-immune globulin
282
How do DNA vaccines work?
we inject DNA into muscle tissue, the cells take it and make the viral protein. This protein is like an antigen, so it stimulates an immune reaction.
283
Which of the following does mumps cause?
a. pneumonia
b. encephalitis
c. meningitis
c. meningitis
| A & B caused by measles
284
Which of the following is live attenuated?
a. hepatitis A
b. yellow fever
c. rabies
b. yellow fever
285
Which of the following is a monovalent Rotavirus vaccine?
a. Rotateq
b. Rotarix
b. Rotarix
286
Which of the following chemicals is used to inactivate viruses?
a. Acrylonitrile
b. Beta-propiolactone
c. Tetrachloroethylene
d. Ethylene oxide
b. Beta-propiolactone
287
What type of vaccine does hepatitis A have?
a. live attenuated
b. killed vaccine
c. serum-derived vaccine
d. cell-culture-derived vaccine
d. cell-culture-derived vaccine
288
What type of vaccine does VZV have?
a. live attenuated
b. killed vaccine
c. serum-derived vaccine
d. cell-culture-derived vaccine
a. live attenuated
289
Which of the following is true?
a. when the MIC is greater than the achievable serum level, resistance occurs
b. when the MIC is lower than the achievable serum level, resistance occurs
a. when the MIC is greater than the achievable serum level, resistance occurs
(MIC= minimum inhibitory concentration)
290
A bacteria secretes beta-lactamase into the extracellular fluid, which of the following can you assume?
a. it's gram +
b. it's gram -
c. it has no cell wall
a. it's gram +
| gram - bacteria secrete beta-lactamase into the periplasmic space
291
Which beta-lactamase type hydrolizes anti-staphylococcal penicillins?
a. TEM types
b. SHV types
c. CTX-M types
d. OXA-beta types
e. AmpC type
d. OXA-beta types
292
Which beta-lactamase type can be carried on plasmids?
a. Carbapenemases
b. SHV types
c. CTX-M types
d. OXA-beta types
e. AmpC type
e. AmpC type
| aka class C beta-lactamases
293
Which beta-lactamase type is not inhibited by beta-lactamase inhibitors?
a. Carbapenemases
b. OXA-beta types
c. CTX-M types
d. AmpC type
e. SHV types
d. AmpC type
294
Which of the following best describes rifampicin resistance?
a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
c. affinity of enzymes that are inhibited are lowered
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
295
Which of the following proteins lead to vancomycin resistance?
a. D-Ala-D-hydroxybutyrate
b. D-Ala-Ala-hydroxybutyrate
a. D-Ala-D-hydroxybutyrate
| when this protein is incorporated, it can't be recognized by glycopeptides
296
Which of the following best describes mupirocin resistance?
a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
c. affinity of enzymes that are inhibited are lowered
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation
297
Which of the following best describes quinolone resistance?
a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
b. beta subunit of RNA polymerase affinity lowered
c. affinity of enzymes that are inhibited are lowered
d. isoleucyl tRNA synthetase mutation
a. beta subunit of DNA gyrase affinity lowered
298
Which of the following would you use to treat MRSA?
a. macrolides
b. fluoroquinolones
c. vancomycin
d. any beta-lactam
c. vancomycin
299
Which of the following describes DNA transfer via bacteriophage?
a. transformation
b. conjugation
c. transduction
d. mobilization
c. transduction
300
Which of the following describes the transfer of non-conjugative plasmids?
a. transformation
b. conjugation
c. transduction
d. mobilization
d. mobilization
| it hitches a ride with its conjugative plasmid friend
301
Which of the following is a qualitative method of testing for antibiotic resistance?
a. E test
b. Broth dilution
c. Disk effusion
d. MIC determination
c. Disk effusion
| the rest are quantitative
302
Which of the following E. coli express colonization factor antigen II (CFA 2)?
a. EPEC
b. ETEC
c. EHEC
d. EIEC
e. EAEC
b. ETEC
303
Which of the following has haemagglutinin?
a. ETEC
b. streptococcus mutants
c. nisseria gonorrhoeae
d. bordetella pertussis
d. bordetella pertussis
| & H. Pylori
304
Which of the following invades via the junctions between epithelial cells?
a. salmonella spp.
b. streptococcus mutants
c. nisseria gonorrhoeae
d. staph aureus
a. salmonella spp.
305
Which of the following describes the siderophore system?
a. breakdown hemoglobin and take the iron
b. reduce the ferric iron to use it
c. remove the iron from the iron binding group
d. damage a human cell to take the iron
c. remove the iron from the iron binding group
```
a= haemolysin
b= ferric reductase
```
306
Which of the following has an M-protein?
a. salmonella spp.
b. streptococcus pyogenes
c. nisseria gonorrhoeae
d. staph aureus
b. streptococcus pyogenes
307
Which of the following best describes legionella?
a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
c. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
d. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
d. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
308
Which of the following best describes N. gonnorhoeae?
a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
c. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
c. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
309
Which of the following best describes M. tuberculosis?
a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
c. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
310
Which of the following best describes Salmonella?
a. prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
b. produce catalase to prevent effect of toxic radicals
c. inhibits phagolysosome acidification
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
d. fails to stimulate O2 dependent killing
311
Which of the following bacteria produces a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis?
a. S. aureus
b. C. botulinum
c. C. diphtheriae
d. E. coli
c. C. diphtheriae
312
Which of the following people are most likely to get erysipeloid?
a. abattoir worker
b. sewage worker
c. fish handler
d. bird handler
c. fish handler
313
Which of the following is most likely to infect a bird handler?
a. anthrax
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. psittacosis
d. psittacosis
| caused by chlamydia psittaci
314
Brucellosis is treated by which TWO of the following?
a. ampicillin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. rifampicin
e. rifampicin
&
b. doxycycline
(for 6 weeks)
315
Which of the following has a protein capsule?
a. Brucella
b. Bacillus anthacis
c. C. botulinum
d. Yersinia pestis
b. Bacillus anthacis
316
Which of the following is most likely to infect a leather worker?
a. anthrax
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. psittacosis
a. anthrax
| cutaneous anthrax
317
Which of the following treats yersinia pestis?
a. rifampicin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
d. tetracycline
318
How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted?
a. respiratory droplets
b. blood
c. bites or scratches
d. indirect contact
c. bites or scratches (of animals)
319
Which of the following is most likely to infect a swimming pool maintenance worker?
a. pasteurella infection
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. leptospirosis
d. leptospirosis
320
Which of the following is used to treat listeriosis?
a. ampicillin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. rifampicin
a. ampicillin
321
Which of the following causes mesenteric or cervical adenitis?
a. bacillus anthacis
b. bovine tuberculosis
c. coxella burnetii
d. erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
b. bovine tuberculosis
322
which of the following is used to teat Q fever?
a. ampicillin
b. doxycycline
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. rifampicin
d. tetracycline
323
which of the following best describes a patient that has myocarditis or meningoencephalitis due to toxoplasmosis?
a. healthy
b. born with toxoplasmosis
c. immunosuppressed
c. immunosuppressed
324
Which of the following are associated with Negri bodies?
a. rabies
b. brucellosis
c. erysipeloid
d. leptospirosis
a. rabies
325
Which Leptospira serogroup causes Weils's disease?
a. L. icterohaemorrhagia
b. L. canicola
c. L. hebdomadis
a. L. icterohaemorrhagia
326
Which Leptospira serogroup is found in cattle?
a. L. icterohaemorrhagia
b. L. canicola
c. L. hebdomadis
c. L. hebdomadis
327
Which of the following is used along with prophylaxis to prevent rheumatic fever?
a. penicillin II
b. penicillin III
c. penicillin IV
d. penicillin V
d. penicillin V
328
Which of the following is used to prevent meningococcal meningitis in pregnant women?
a. ceftriaxone
b. ciprofloxacin
c. rifampicin
d. co-trimoxazole
a. ceftriaxone
329
Which of the following is used to prevent Haemophilus influenzae type b meningitis?
a. benzylpenicillin
b. ciprofloxacin
c. rifampicin
d. co-trimoxazole
c. rifampicin
330
Which of the following is used to prevent recurrent UTI's?
a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. rifampicin
d. co-trimoxazole
d. co-trimoxazole
331
Which of the following is used to prevent gas gangrene?
a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. rifampicin
d. amoxicillin
b. benzylpenicillin
332
Which of the following is used to prevent endocarditis in a dental patient who has heart lesions?
a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. gentamicin
d. amoxicillin
d. amoxicillin
333
Which TWO of the following is used to prevent endocarditis in a dental patient who has a prosthetic heart valve?
a. ceftriaxone
b. benzylpenicillin
c. gentamicin
d. amoxicillin
c. gentamicin
&
d. amoxicillin
(use these two when patient is going under general anesthesia)
334
Which TWO of the following are used during Dacron graft surgery?
a. cefotaxime
b. cefuroxime
c. metronidazole
d. cloxacillin
e. cefoxitin
b. cefuroxime
&
e. cefoxitin
335
Which TWO of the following are used during gynecological surgery?
a. cefotaxime
b. cefuroxime
c. metronidazole
d. cloxacillin
e. cefoxitin
a. cefotaxime
&
c. metronidazole
336
Which of the following is used during hip replacement surgery?
a. cefotaxime
b. cefuroxime
c. metronidazole
d. cloxacillin
e. cefoxitin
d. cloxacillin
337
Which of the following is true about toxoplasmosis?
a. transmitted via contact with cats
b. higher transmission in the 1st-trimester
c. most severe abnormalities when infected in the 1st-trimester
d. most infects show immediate symptoms
c. most severe abnormalities when infected in the 1st-trimester
338
Which of the following is a symptom of congenital listeriosis?
a. intracranial calcification
b. hutchinson's triad
c. frontal bossing
d. granulomatosis infantiseptica
d. granulomatosis infantiseptica
339
In which of the following do nearly half of all children in the womb die?
a. toxoplasmosis
b. listeriosis
c. congenital syphilis
d. brucellosis
c. syphilis
340
Which TWO diseases may lead to hydrocephalus development (CSF accumulation)?
a. toxoplasmosis
b. congenital brucellosis
c. congenital syphilis
d. congenital listeriosis
a. toxoplasmosis
&
c. congenital syphilis
341
Which TWO of the following Plasmodium spp. are associated congenital malaria?
a. P. falciparum
b. P. knowlesi
c. P. malariae
d. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
&
d. P. vivax
342
Which of the following is a symptom of early congenital syphilis?
a. hydrocephalus
b. flaring scapulas
c. saddle nose
d. clutton's joints
e. hydrops fetalis
f. high arched palate
e. hydrops fetalis
| it's the abnormal accumulation of fluid in two or more fetal compartments
343
Iin which of the following disease can you NOT rely on the serology test?
a. toxoplasmosis
b. listeria
c. brucellosis
d. malaria
b. listeria
| syphilis serology test is also misleading
344
Which fo the following is diagnosed with silver stain or dark ground microscopy?
a. toxoplasmosis
b. listeria
c. brucellosis
d. syphilis
d. syphilis
345
Which of the following is given to treat congenital malaria in the 1st trimester?
a. quinine
b. artemisin IV
c. quinine IV
d. benzyl penicillin
c. quinine IV
| A is used to treat a neonate with malaria
346
Which TWO are used to treat brucellosis in pregnant women?
a. co-trimoxazole
b. rifampicin
c. amoxicillin
d. benzylpenicillin
a. co-trimoxazole
&
b. rifampicin
347
Which test is used to diagnose malaria?
a. FTA-Abs
b. RPR/VDRL
c. Heal prick
d. Blood culture
c. heal prick test
348
Which is used to treat listeria?
a. ampicillin
b. rifampicin
c. co-trimoxazole
d. benzylpenicillin
a. ampicillin
349
How long must a woman with toxoplasmosis wait before getting pregnant?
a. 2 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
d. 1 year
350
Artemisin IV and quinine are used to treat which stage of malaria?
a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. A&B
e. B&C
e. B&C
| Artemisin IV is teratogenic in the first trimester
351
Which of the following kills bacteria by hydrolyzing the proteins?
a. hydrogen peroxide
b. potassium permanganate
c. boric acid
d. heavy metals
c. boric acid
352
Which of the following kills bacteria by attaching to the sulphhydryl group of the proteins?
a. hydrogen peroxide
b. potassium permanganate
c. boric acid
d. heavy metals
d. heavy metals
353
Which of the following interferes with cell division?
a. crystal violet
b. lactic acid
c. potassium permanganate
d. propionic acid
a. crystal violet
354
Which TWO of the following inhibit fermentation?
a. crystal violet
b. lactic acid
c. boric acid
d. propionic acid
b. lactic acid
&
d. propionic acid
355
Which THREE of the following are easily inactivated by organic material?
a. hexachlorophene
b. tubid phenolics
c. hypochlorite
d. chlorhexidine
e. quaternary ammonium compounds
f. halogens
```
b. tubid phenolics (detol)
&
c. hypochlorite
&
e. quaternary ammonium compounds (detergants)
```
356
Which of the following can cause brain damage?
a. hexachlorophene
b. phenolic compounds
c. halogens
d. chlorhexidine
a. hexachlorophene
357
Which of the following is used on burns?
a. hexachlorophene
b. glutaraldehyde
c. silver sulphadiazine
d. chlorhexidine
c. silver sulphadiazine
358
Which is used for wound infections?
a. silver sulphadiazine
b. hydrogen peroxide
c. copper sulfate
hydrogen peroxide
359
What type of disinfectant is used to prevent gonococcal ophthalmia?
a. heavy metals
b. halogens
c. hexachlorophenes
d. phenolic compounds
a. heavy metals
360
Which of the following is able to kill spores?
a. hexachlorophene
b. glutaraldehyde
c. silver sulphadiazine
d. chlorhexidine
b. glutaraldehyde
361
In addition to chlorine, which is used for swimming pools?
a. silver sulphadiazine
b. hydrogen peroxide
c. copper sulfate
c. copper sulfate
362
Which of the following is not very stable and is needed to be prepared fresh daily?
a. hexachlorophene
b. phenolic compounds
c. hypochlorite
d. chlorhexidine
c. hypochlorite
363
Which of the following do semicritical items interact with?
a. the bloodstream
b. skin
c. non-intact skin
c. non-intact skin
364
Which of the following is used to disinfect critical items before surgery?
a. alcohol
b. chlorine dioxide
c. scouring powder
d. hydrogen peroxide
b. chlorine dioxide
| A&D are for semi-critical items
365
Which vaccine has a cell-mediated response?
a. Rabies
b. BCG
c. VZV
b. BCG
366
Which of the following is a live vaccine?
a. typhoid vaccine
b. smallpox variola vaccine
c. oral polio vaccine
d. pertussis
b. smallpox variola vaccine
367
Which of the following is cytotoxic T cell-mediated vaccine?
a. attenuated vaccine
b. inactive vaccine
a. attenuated vaccine
368
Which of the following needs an adjuvant?
a. attenuated vaccine
b. inactive vaccine
b. inactive vaccine
369
Which of the following needs a higher dose?
a. attenuated vaccine
b. inactive vaccine
b. inactive vaccine
370
Which of the following is FALSE about the polysaccharide capsule?
a. it's attached to a carrier protein via conjunction
b. allows the immune system to react more broadly
c. allows immunocompromized people to take the vaccine
d. it allows the vaccine to be more immunogenic
c. allows immunocompromized people to take the vaccine
| it allows young children to be able to take the vaccine
371
Which of these causes convulsions?
a. Rabies vaccine
b. BCG vaccine
c. whooping cough vaccine
c. whooping cough vaccine
| pertussis vaccine
372
A patient with an egg allergy wants to get the following vaccines, which one should be contraindicated?
a. Pertussis vaccine
b. Yellow fever vaccine
c. BCG vaccine
d. none
b. Yellow fever vaccine
| as well as influenza vaccine; they're egg-derived
373
Which of the following can a pregnant woman take?
a. Pertussis vaccine
b. Tetanus toxoid vaccine
c. Yellow fever vaccine
d. Typhoid vaccine
b. Tetanus toxoid vaccine
374
Which of the following occurs as a prenatal infection?
a. HBV
b. enterovirus
c. CMV
c. CMV
| & VZV & Rubella
375
Which of the following presents as Conjunctivitis, Heart anomalies, Arthralgia, & Deafness?
a. varicella
b. parvovirus
c. CMV
d. rubella
d. rubella
376
Which of the following presents as hydrops fetalis and erythema infectiosum?
a. varicella
b. parvovirus
c. CMV
d. rubella
b. parvovirus
377
Which of the following is the most common neonatal infection?
a. varicella
b. HSV-1
c. HSV-2
d. rubella
c. HSV-2
| responsible for 80% if neonatal infections
378
Which of the following presents as skin scarring, growth retardation, & limb hypoplasia?
a. varicella
b. CMV
c. HIV
d. rubella
a. varicella
| when it occurs in the first 20 weeks= congenital varicella syndrome
379
Which of the following presents as blueberry muffin lesions, microencephaly, & seizures?
a. varicella
b. CMV
c. HIV
d. rubella
b. CMV
380
Which of the following is true about HBV vaccinations?
a. HBV vaccine should not be given if the child is delivered via cesarean
b. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if anti-HBe is +
b. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if anti-HBe is -
c. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if HBs antigen is +
b. the hep B immunoglobulins should not be given if anti-HBe is +
381
Which of the following is the worst method of treating genital herpes (HSV)?
a. oral acyclovir
b. intravenous acyclovir
c. cream acyclovir
c. cream acyclovir
| provide little benefit
382
Which of the following has no vaccine nor treatment?
a. varicella
b. CMV
c. HPV
d. HBV
e. HIV
f. zika virus
f. zika virus
383
Which of the following is treated with tenofovir or pegylated interferon?
a. HPV
b. HSV
c. HBV
d. HCV
d. HBV
384
Which of the following is treated acyclovir?
a. HPV
b. HSV
c. HBV
d. HCV
b. HSV
