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Flashcards in 2015 final Deck (61)
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1
Q

A 25-year-old patient underwent an Ultrasound which showed an echogenic mass. Further studies on CT should nodular enhancement with IV contrast and centripetal filling contrast in delayed scan. What is the diagnosis?

A

Hepatic hemangioma

2
Q

What is absent in the lamina propria of the colon?

A. lymphatics
B. Sinusoids
C. Lymphocytes
D. Collagen

A

A. lymphatics

3
Q

Where is the first place to see lymphatics of the liver?

A

periportal space of mall

4
Q

Left sided cecum and ascending colon, what is the cause?

A. Midgut loop clockwise rotation
B. Rotation up to 90 degrees
C. Rotation up to 180 degrees

A

C. Rotation up to 180 degrees

5
Q

At what level the inferior epigastric vessels penetrate the rectus abdominis muscle?

A

Arcuate line

6
Q

For truncal vagotomy, in order for the surgeon to save the other branches, where does the surgeon need to cut?

A

near the lesser curvature of the stomach distal to the esophagus

7
Q

After removal of parotid gland, patient presented with asymmetrical smile, which branch of facial nerve is most likely to be affected?

A

Marginal mandibular branch

8
Q

What increases the gastrointestinal transit time?

A. Haustrations
B. Segmentation
C. Propulsion
E. Reverse peristalsis

A

E. Reverse peristalsis

9
Q

A healthy person made a BaSO4 GI motility test and showed reverse peristalsis in one section, which part of the GI is this?

A. Colon
B. Ileum
C. Esophagus
E. Trachea

A

A. Colon

10
Q

What Is the first step of pancreatic enzyme activation?

A. Activation of trypsin by enterokinase
B. Activation of enterokinase by trypsin

A

A. Activation of trypsin by enterokinase

11
Q

Cytokines release in cancer or severe infection cause anorexia by which mechanism?

A. Directly inhibit AGRP in arcuate nucleus?
B. Activate CGRP releasing neurons

A

B. Activate CGRP releasing neurons

12
Q

Histopathology sample from a baby with failure to thrive showed normal duodenal sample but no plasma cells?

A. Giardiasis
B. TB
C. H. Pylori

A

A. Giardiasis

13
Q

Which of the following is responsible for immunogenic tissue damage in celiac disease?

A. pro-inflammatory cytokines
B. Cytotoxic T-cells
C. Immune complex formation
D. Antibodies against gluten

A

A. pro-inflammatory cytokines

14
Q

This cell transports the antigen from the lumen to the antigen presenting cell?

A

M-cell

15
Q

What is the bacterial causative agent of pseudomembranous colitis?

A. C.difficile
B. C.Perferinges
C. Shigella
D. ETEC

A

A. C.difficile

16
Q

Patient who acquired the disease 3 months ago: HBsAg: Positive
HBs Ab: Negative
IgM core: Positive
HBe Ag: positive

A. chronic active hepatitis B. Acute hepatitis

A

B. Acute hepatitis

17
Q

Which parotid gland tumor is characterized by perineural invasion?

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

18
Q

Pregnant women came with a vascular swelling in the gingiva that showed dilatation and proliferation of blood vessels?

A. Pyogenic granuloma
B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Herpes simplex

A

A. Pyogenic granuloma

19
Q

41-year-old woman just undergone right hemicolectomy for mucinous cecal adenocarcinoma after IDA. She had hysterectomy few years ago but otherwise healthy. Her mother died of uterine cancer at the age 51, and her aunt from mother side died of colon cancer at the age of 54. She has one child and 22-year-old son. She is concerned about herself and her 22-year-old son

A. Genetic testing for APC gene mutation
B. She has a defect in the genes coding for mismatch DNA repair proteins
C. Her son has to start colonoscopy at 40 years because he is at high risk of polyps and colon cancer
D. Her son is not risk because only women are affected

A

B. She has a defect in the genes coding for mismatch DNA repair proteins

20
Q

What makes Bilirubin water-soluble?

A. Oxidation to stercobilin
B. Oxidation to urobilin
C. Conversion to biliverdin
E. Glucuronidation

A

E. Glucuronidation

21
Q

A young female with weight loss despite having good appetite with foul smelling fatty stool. She had anemia with low hemoglobin, low folate, fat in stools and high anti- transglutaminase antibodies.
What is the appropriate management?

A

Gluten free diet

22
Q

Long scenario about acute pancreatitis, key thing is bleeding in flanks (gray turner sign)?

A

Acute pancreatitis

23
Q

What is found in Crohn’s?

A. Increased lipid oxidation
B. Decreased protein oxidation
C. Decreased resting metabolic rate
D. Increased thermogenesis

A

A. Increased lipid oxidation

24
Q

Young female presented with intraperitoneal hemorrhage, liver biopsy showed normal liver cells without bile ducts?

A

Liver cell adenoma

25
Q

Little boy with bone pain, brown urine, bilirubinemia, what makes you sure that it’s caused by hemolytic anemia?

A. conjugated bilirubin > 5 total bilirubin
B. Low haptoglobin
C. High liver enzymes

A

B. Low haptoglobin

26
Q

A manometer is inserted into a patient’s mouth passing through the pharynx, UES, esophageal body, and LES. What are the pressure readings?

A

0 → 50 → 0 → 30

27
Q

60-year-old man with elevated liver enzymes, Diabetes mellitus, hypertension and atrial fibrillation, he is on metformin, metoprolol, atorvastatin, and warfarin, liver span is 16 cm, US shows fatty liver, what is the mechanism of liver damage?

A. Increased glutathione
B. inhibition of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutryl by atorvastatin
C. Toxic fatty acids
D. decreased TG

A

B. inhibition of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutryl by atorvastatin

28
Q

A 28-year old male presented with acid reflux and epigastric pain for 4 months. His symptoms are worsened after eating especially spicy foods. He has no weight loss, dysphagia, and no decrease in appetite. He’s physically active and takes no medications, His physical examination was normal except for some epigastric tenderness. What is the appropriate next step?

A. Therapeutic trials of acid suppressive therapy
B. Upper endoscopy

A

A. Therapeutic trials of acid suppressive therapy

29
Q

What is the rationale behind Quadruple therapy of peptic ulcer?

A. Reduce the cost
B. Decrease fatal adverse effects
C. Decrease emergence of resistance species
E. Decrease drug-drug interactions

A

C. Decrease emergence of resistance species

30
Q

What is the process of transport of di and tri peptides along the enterocyte?

A. primary active transport
B. secondary active transport
C. Tertiary active transport (co-transport with H+)

A

C. Tertiary active transport (co-transport with H+)

31
Q

What happens with distension of the cecum?

A. stimulation of peristalsis in ileum
B. Closure of ileocecal valve

A

B. Closure of ileocecal valve

32
Q

What is the gastrointestinal tumor that is positive for CD117 (C-Kit)?

A

GIST

33
Q

Which of the following happens during the receptive relaxation of the LES?

A. decreased VEF but decreased VIF
B. Increase in VIF/VIP but no VEF

A

B. Increase in VIF/VIP but no VEF

34
Q

Muscle that is supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

Cricopharangeus

35
Q

Glossopharyngeal nerve is superior to this structure?

A

Middle constrictor

36
Q

What divides the peritoneal cavity into two compartments?

A

Transverse mesocolon

37
Q

What is the Anatomical landmark that helps identify McBurney’s point?

A

ASIS

38
Q

Is found at the level of L4?

A

iliac crest

39
Q

thickenings?

Structural and functional unit of the colon because of its inner circular muscle

A

Haustrations

40
Q

Dominant mixing motion in the colon?

A

Haustrations

41
Q

What increases the transit time in the colon?

A

reverse peristalsis

42
Q

What is actively removed from the gallbladder to concentrate its contents?

A

Na

43
Q

Glucose and galactose are coupled to what to be absorbed?

A

Na

44
Q

Parietal cells secrete H+ ions in exchange of what?

A

K

45
Q

Tumor that is found at the middle 1/3 of the esophagus?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

46
Q

Epithelium of lower esophagus replaced by columnar cells?

A

Barrett’s esophagus

47
Q

Obliterated left umbilical vein?

A

Round ligament of the liver

(It may not be the exact question but you have to know that round ligament is also known as ligamentum teres, and it’s a remnant of left umbilical vein).

48
Q

Patient with facial angiofibroma, cortical tubers, renal angiomyolipoma, with a polyp that has dilatation, with mucus and neutrophils

indicate what type of polyp would be found:

A. Sessile serrated polyp
B. Hamartomatous
C. Inflammatory
D. Villous adenoma 
E. Tuberous adenoma
A

B. Hamartomatous

Description of tuberous sclerosis, colon cancer note by Dr. Issam week 8

49
Q

Patient with malignancy in colon, thyroid cancer, and breast cancer, pancreatic cancer as well.

indicate what type of polyp would be found:

A. Sessile serrated polyp
B. Hamartomatous
C. Inflammatory
D. Villous adenoma 
E. Tuberous adenoma
A

B. Hamartomatous

this could either be peutz jeghers OR cowden so either type is associated with hamartomatous polyps

50
Q

Red-velvety lesion in the mouth, with increased risk of Malignancy?

A

erythroplakia

51
Q

Patient with vesicles on the mouth, showing intranuclear eosinophilic inclusions and multinucleated giant cells?

A

Herpes simplex

52
Q

Man came with severe watery diarrhea due to consumption of shellfish

A. Campylobacter jujeni 
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus 
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Staphylococcus aureus 
E. Salmonella typhi
A

B. Vibrio parahemolyticus

53
Q

A man presented with bloody diarrhea and fever. Later he developed Gullian-
barre syndrome

A. Campylobacter jujeni 
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus 
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Staphylococcus aureus 
E. Salmonella typhi
A

A. Campylobacter jujeni

54
Q

Resides in the gallbladder and causes the person to be a chronic carrier

A. Campylobacter jujeni 
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus 
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Staphylococcus aureus 
E. Salmonella typhi
A

E. Salmonella typhi

55
Q

What drug inhibits Cyp450 metabolism if administered with other drugs?

A

Cimetidine

56
Q

Co-administration of this drug with cyclosporine will lead to a decrease in cyclosporine concentration?

A

Rifampicin

57
Q

Bleeding from upper GI due to increase pressure in portocaval anastomosis?

A

Esophageal varices

58
Q
A. ALP
B. GGT
C. AST
E. AFP
F. Ammonia

Which elevated analyte is considered diagnostic in the following case:

35-year-old women with biopsy confirming chronic liver disease and steatorrhea (stool fat more than 6g per day) malabsorption of fat soluble vitamins. She presented with tetany and bone pain.

A

A. ALP

59
Q
A. ALP
B. GGT
C. AST
E. AFP
F. Ammonia

Which elevated analyte is considered diagnostic in the following cases:

Patient with history of liver cirrhosis presented with decompensation and fetor hepaticus, as well as tremor and coma.

A

F. Ammonia

60
Q

Patient with high ALP, severe pruritis, and Xanthelasma

A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
D. NAFLD
E. Drug induced hepatitis

A

A. Primary biliary cirrhosis

61
Q

A child developed severe vomiting 3 hours after drinking milk. What could be the
causative agent?

A. S.aureus
B. C.difficile
C. C.botulinum
D. Shigella

A

A. S.aureus