2019 JVIM ✔️ Flashcards

Question

Stability and profiling of urinary microRNAs in healthy cats and cats with pyelonephritis or other urological conditions

Answer 1

Upregulation of miR16 might be PN-specific, pathogen-specific (Escherichia coli), or both. Cats with PN had significantly upregulated miR-16 with a mean log2fold change of 1.0 ± 0.4 SD, compared with controls and other urological conditions.

Answer 2

The results support treatment using partial cystectomy and NSAIDs in cats with TCC. Trigone - most common (27%) Metastatic disease (21.2%) Median progression free survival time - 113 days. MST - 115days. Partial cystectomy and NSAIDS - longer survival times.

Answer 3

Urinary NGAL is a sensitive marker for AKI in dogs, but its specificity is affected by systemic inflammation. Increased urinary NGAL in both Intrinsic-AKI and VolumeResponsive-AKI also suggests the presence of tubular damage in transient AKI. Combining urine chemistry data with IRIS criteria could facilitate AKI characterization in dogs. Urinary NGAL higher with AKI compared to controls, regardless of AKI grade. Urinary NGAL did not differ between dogs with VR-AKI and I-AKI. Higher uNGALC was recorded in dogs with I-AKI. Urinary NGAL was significantly higher in dogs with inflammatory AKI, whereas no difference with respect to sepsis or outcome was identified.

Answer 4

Fecal isovaleric acid concentrations were higher in CKD cats, particularly in late stage disease, compared to healthy geriatric cats. Fecal BCFA concentrations correlated with pCS and were higher in cats with muscle wasting, providing evidence for malassimilation of protein in CKD cats. Fecal isovaleric acid concentrations were significantly higher in CKD cats. Cats with IRIS CKD stage 3 and 4 had significantly higher fecal isovaleric acid concentrations compared to healthy geriatric cats (P = .03), but not compared to IRIS CKD stage 2 cats. Total fecal concentrations of BCFAs were found to correlate weakly with serum creatinine concentration, BUN, and pCS concentration.

Answer 5

Splenic fine-needle cytologic findings identified a clinically relevant diagnosis in 20% of dogs, and larger nodule size, number of targetoid lesions, and presence of peritoneal fluid increase the likelihood of detection of clinically important disease. 22 malignancies, 3 suppurative inflammation. Splenic nodules 1-2 cm in diameter, peritoneal fluid, and >1 targetoid nodule were associated with clinically important cytologic findings.

Answer 6

Neoplastic CD4+ T-cell lymphocytosis is common in cats and has a prolonged clinical course compared to aberrant T-cell phenotypes. Cats with heterogeneous and B-cell lymphocyte expansions commonly have non-neoplastic disease. Five major immunophenotypic categories were identified: B cell, heterogeneous (≥2 lineages expanded), CD4+ T cell, CD4−CD8− (double negative [DN]) T cell, and CD5-low-expressing T cell. B-cell and heterogeneous phenotypes - younger age at presentation, lower lymphocyte counts, and prolonged survival. The neoplastic phenotypes, CD4+ T cell, DN T cell, and CD5 low T cell, had different median survival times (752 days, 271 days, 27.5 days, respectively). Among CD4+ T-cell cases, cats with abdominal lymphadenopathy, intestinal involvement, or both and females had shorter survival. Among 350 cats with lymphocytosis, CD4+ T-cell lymphocytosis was most common, followed by heterogeneous and B-cell phenotypes.

Answer 7

High tCa concentrations are strongly predictive of ionized hypercalcemia in nonhyperphosphatemic adult dogs and should prompt further diagnostic testing to determine the underlying cause of hypercalcemia. In this population, dogs without increased tCa concentrations rarely had ionized hypercalcemia, but iCa concentrations still should be evaluated in patients with tCa concentrations within the reference interval if there is clinical suspicion for calcium abnormalities. In nonhyperphosphatemic dogs, an optimal tCa concentration threshold of 12.0 mg/dL resulted in a positive predictive value of 93% and sensitivity of 52% for ionized hypercalcemia. An optimal tCa concentration threshold was not identified for hyperphosphatemic dogs.

Answer 8

CKCS with CM-Pain and SyringoMyelia-Syrinx have cranial brachycephaly with osseous insufficiency in the skull with rostral flattening and increased proximity of the hard and soft palate to the cranial base. Changes are greatest with CM-P. These findings have relevance for understanding disease pathogenesis and for selection of head conformation for breeding purposes.

Answer 9

The identification of clinical, diagnostic, and therapeutic predictors of UI and FI in dogs with T3-L3 ANNPE can help to approach these autonomic dysfunctions occurring after spinal cord injury. UI and FI were reported in (9.1%) and (23.5%) dogs, respectively. Paraplegic dogs were 3 times more likely to develop UI and 4 times more likely to develop FI compared to nonparaplegic dogs. Dogs with an intramedullary hyperintensity greater than 40% of the cross-sectional area of the spinal cord at the same level on transverse T2-weighted MRI images were 4 times more likely to develop UI and FI compared to dogs with smaller lesions. FI was 3 times more likely in dogs that were not treated with (NSAIDs) and 2 times more likely in dogs presented with spinal shock.

Answer 10

Tylosin causes fecal dysbiosis in healthy dogs with corresponding shifts in fecal UBAs. Changes did not uniformly resolve after discontinuation of tylosin. Day 7 samples from tylosin-exposed dogs exhibited decreased bacterial diversity (decreased fusobacteriaceae and veillonellaceae). Primary UBA concentrations were increased at day 21 and 63 compared to day 0 in dogs receiving tylosin.

Answer 11

Bronchoscopy for progressive cough. Bronchoscopy documented a markedly thick and irregular, cobblestone appearance of the mucosa. A bronchoscopic biopsy was obtained resulting in significant hemorrhage. COD was hemorrhage associated with transbronchial biopsy of an enlarged bronchial artery associated with heartworm disease. This report describes a rare complication of a routine diagnostic procedure.

Answer 12

Dogs currently on treatment with trilostane had a statistically better HRQoL. The developed tool quantifies the HRQoL of dogs with Cushing's syndrome and could assist clinicians in the clinical assessment of dogs with Cushing's syndrome. Positive correlation between the tool score of dogs with Cushing's syndrome and owner's assessment of their dog's quality-of-life

Answer 13

There were no significant differences in circulating melatonin, serotonin or dopamine concentrations between the 3 groups, although the study was underpowered for detection of significant differences in serum serotonin. Urine urine 6-sulfatoxymelatonin (MT6s):creatinine ratio was significantly higher in dogs with PDH compared with dogs with SARDS, but not compared with normal dogs. We have identified neurohormone differences between dogs with SARDS and PDH.

Answer 14

Immunoglobulin G4-related disease (IgG4-RD), which affects many organ systems, has been recognized as a distinct clinical entity in human medicine. In humans, IgG4-RD is characterized by diffuse IgG4-positive lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates that commonly lead to increased serum concentrations of IgG4 and IgE, peripheral eosinophilia, tumorous swellings that often include the parotid salivary glands, obliterative phlebitis, and extensive fibrosis. Herein we describe the diagnosis, clinical progression, and successful treatment of IgG4-RD in an 8-year-old female spayed Husky mixed breed dog. Immunoglobulin G4-related disease should be considered as a differential diagnosis for dogs with vague clinical signs, lymphoplasmacytic swellings, restricted polyclonal gammopathy, eosinophilia or some combination of these findings.

Answer 15

Two non-pedigreed male castrated cats had persistent cyanosis over a 3-year observation period. Cardiopulmonary evaluations did not reveal abnormalities, but the blood remained dark after exposure to air. Erythrocytic methemoglobin concentrations were high (~40% of hemoglobin) and cytochrome b5 reductase (CYB5R) activities in erythrocytes were low (≤15% of control). One cat remained intolerant of exertion, and the other cat developed anemia and died due to an unidentified comorbidity. Whole-genome sequencing revealed a homozygous c.625G>A missense variant (B4:137967506) and a c.232-1G>C splice acceptor variant (B4:137970815) in CYB5R3, respectively, which were absent in 193 unaffected additional cats. The p.Gly209Ser missense variant likely disrupts a nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH)-binding domain, while the splicing error occurs at the acceptor site for exon 4, which likely affects downstream translation of the protein. The 2 novel CYB5R3 variants were associated with methemoglobinemia using clinical, biochemical, genomics, and in silico protein studies. The variant prevalence is unknown in the cat population.

Answer 16

Data generated from our study represent an initial characterization of the miRNA profile of normal canine CSF and suggest that a distinct CSF miRNA expression profile is associated with OA-CSM. We identified 8 miRNAs with significant differential expression. MiR-299-5p and miR-765 had increased expression levels in the CSF of OA-CSM-affected dogs, whereas miR-494, miR-612, miR-302-d, miR-4531, miR-4455, and miR-6721-5p had decreased expression levels in OA-CSM affected dogs compared to clinically normal dogs. 1.5-fold increase in miR-494 expression and a 1.2-fold decrease in miR-612 in the CSF of the OA-CSM affected group

Answer 17

All-cause mortality was significantly greater in pHCM cats due to disease burden contributed by increased cardiovascular death superimposed upon noncardiovascular death. Cancer, chronic kidney disease, and conditions characterized by chronic weight-loss-vomiting-diarrhea-anorexia were the most frequently recorded noncardiovascular causes of death. All-cause death proportions were greater in pHCM than AH (65% versus 40%) because of higher cardiovascular mortality in pHCM cats. MST did not differ between AH and pHCM. All cause survival shorter in pHCM.

Answer 18

Gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration occur commonly in healthy dogs administered prednisone or prednisone/clopidogrel treatment, but not clopidogrel monotherapy. Though lesions are severe in many cases, they are not accompanied by clinical signs. Increased odds (7x) of endoscopic mucosal lesion scores (4 or greater) with prednisone and prednisone-clopidogrel compared to placebo.

Answer 19

Both routes are quick, safe, and effective for controlling status epilepticus. However, the IN route demonstrated superiority when the time needed to place an IV catheter was taken into account.

Answer 20

E. faecium SF68 would not create confusion when monitoring dogs with hepatobiliary disease because ALT and ALP activity did not change significantly. A significant decrease in cholesterol and significant increase in triglyceride concentrations were seen at day 28 but were not clinically relevant, with 1 dog showing hypertriglyceridemia. A longer trial is warranted to assess if the probiotic effects could be clinically relevant and to assess its potential use in hypertriglyceridemic dogs.

Answer 21

More cats with increased SDMA concentrations had higher FGF23 concentrations than those with SDMA concentrations within the reference range, suggesting the presence of an alteration in phosphate homeostasis. Further studies are warranted to identify influencing factors and to explore the utility of FGF23 concentration to inform management of cats with early stage CKD.

Answer 22

Imepitoin effectively controls fear and anxiety associated with noise phobia in dogs. Fear and anxiety behaviors were significantly reduced under imepitoin treatment compared to placebo. Good to excellent overall treatment success reported by owners.

Answer 23

Benazepril was tolerated well in cats with heart disease, but no evidence of benefit was detected. No significant differences between groups in left atrium diameter, left ventricle wall thickness, quality of life scores, adverse events, or plasma biochemistry or hematology variables.

Answer 24

The use of models based on machine learning can support veterinary decision making by improving early identification of CKD. Sensitivity of 90.7% and a specificity of 98.9%. Model sensitivity decreased when predicting the risk of CKD with a longer horizon.

Answer 25

Cerebrospinal fluid lactate concentrations could serve as a rapid biomarker of inflammatory CNS disease in dogs. Concentrations were above reference range in 47% of dogs. No significant difference in lactate concentrations between disease subcategories

Answer 26

Machine learning techniques can assist CM/SM diagnosis and facilitate understanding of abnormal morphology location with the potential to be applied to a variety of breeds and conformational diseases.

Answer 27

Although SDMA is dialyzable biomarker and despite its removal by IH, SDMA correlates better with renal function than does sCr in dogs with CKD undergoing IF and IH. Furthermore, for each 10% increase in urea reduction ratio, there was a 6.2 μg/dL decrease in SDMA

Answer 28

Predicted ionized calcium is useful to confirm suspected hypercalcemia in cats and screen for hypercalcemia and hypocalcemia. Highly specific, poorly sensitive.

Answer 29

The pathogenesis of low serum vitamin D concentrations in dogs with CIE is likely multifactorial. Fat malabsorption deserves further study in dogs with low serum vitamin D concentration and CIE. Loss of VDBP does not appear to be an important cause of low serum vitamin D concentration in dogs with CIE. Dogs with CIE and low serum 25(OH)D concentrations had higher canine chronic enteropathy clinical activity index scores, lower serum α-tocopherol, cholesterol, and albumin and higher serum C-reactive protein. Vitamin D-binding protein (VDBP) were not different between groups. Histopath scores negatively correlated with serum 25 (OH)D.

Answer 30

There were 32 dogs with neurological disease, 19 diagnosed with inflammatory disease, 10 with noninflammatory disease, 2 with no diagnosis, and 1 with neoplasia and meningoencephalitis. Anti-N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor 1 (NMDAR1) antibodies were detected in 3 dogs (9.38%). All 3 dogs responded to treatment of meningoencephalomyelitis of unknown etiology (MUE).

Answer 31

Hepatic copper accumulation and other abnormalities in hepatic trace mineral concentrations could be involved in the pathogenesis of HCC in some dogs. Hepatic copper and zinc higher in test population non-neoplastic tissue than control. All trace minerals decreased in HCC tissue vs non-neoplastic tissue.

Answer 32

Cholecystectomy for the treatment of GBM results in the best long-term survival in dogs surviving the immediate postoperative period (14 days) compared to medical management. Although medical management is associated with shorter survival compared to surgical treatment, it is a reasonable alternative when surgery cannot be pursued. MST surgery - 1802 days MST medical - 1340 days MST medical then surgery - 230 days Gallbladder mucocele type, ALKP, creat, and phosphorus associated with decreased survival across groups. Suspicion of biliary rupture on AUS correlated with increased survival in the surgical group.

Answer 33

The evidence base of choice of treatment of cEHPSS in dogs remains weak despite recent publications on the subject. Ameroid is superior to thin film band in causing EHPSS closure. Blinded randomized studies comparing different treatment modalities, which routinely include postoperative imaging to assess cEHPSS closure and acquired portosystemic shunt development are essential.

Answer 34

Cervical spondylomyelopathy in juvenile dogs was characterized mostly by osseous-associated spinal cord compression and multiple compressive sites. Almost half of the dogs had intervertebral disk degeneration. Intervertebral disk protrusion was seen in both giant and large breed dogs. Median age - 9.4mos. Proprioceptive ataxia and cervical pain C5-C6, C6-C7 12/20 had compression at two or more sites

Answer 35

To achieve the health benefits of preclinical evaluation, breeds at high risk for CaOx urolithiasis should be screened at 5 to 6 years of age, which is 2 to 3 years before likely development of clinical urolithiasis. 12 high risk breeds - small dogs Low risk breeds - large dogs

Answer 36

The POC assays appear to be a sensitive and specific alternative to the traditional CALAS assay with more rapid turnaround times, which may result in earlier diagnosis and treatment. CALAS - Sensitivity of 92.0% and Specificity of 93.2% CryptoPS - Sensitivity 80% and Specificity 94.9%

Answer 37

Hypothyroidism in dogs induces mild and reversible changes of electromechanical cardiac function. The myocardial performance index does not have clinical importance in identifying cardiac dysfunction in affected dogs.

Answer 38

Dogs with eosinophilic lung disease can be categorized based on imaging, bronchoscopic and BAL fluid cytologic findings. Further studies are needed to establish response to treatment in these groups. TXR normal or bronchial pattern in 31 EB dogs. Nine dogs had intraluminal mass lesions and were bronchoscopically diagnosed with EG. The remaining 35 dogs were categorized as having EBP based on radiographic changes, yellow green mucus in the airways, mucosal changes, and airway collapse. Age and duration of cough did not differ among groups. Dogs with EB were less likely to have bronchiectasis or peripheral eosinophilia, had lower total nucleated cell count in BAL fluid, and lower percentage of eosinophils in BAL fluid compared to dogs in the other 2 groups. In contrast to previous reports, prolonged survival (>55 months) was documented in dogs with EG.

Answer 39

The 2D-SWE may be useful for predicting the presence of hepatic fibrosis in dogs with hepatic disease. SWVs were significantly higher with hepatic fibrosis.

Answer 40

Despite the presence of inflammation and some mild metabolic derangements, the clinicopathological variables evaluated did not offer valuable information in dogs with BAOS.

Answer 41

16 mg/kg of ketoconazole q12h Vague GI signs, hypocholesterolemia, and lack of a stress leukogram increased suspicion for HA. ACTH stim consistent with HA. Ketoconazole was discontinued. Short course of corticosteroid treatment, an ACTH stim repeated and pre was within the reference range, and the post was mildly increased. Temporal association between return of adequate cortisol production and discontinuation of ketoconazole led to the conclusion that the dog had developed iatrogenic HA secondary to ketoconazole treatment.

Answer 42

The simplified GFR protocols offer an accurate, hands-on tool for CKD diagnosis in dogs. The gray zone might help decision-making in the management of early kidney dysfunction. Detecting CKD with simplified GFR protocols based on iohexol plasma clearance.

Answer 43

C6 seroreactivity in dogs with PLN is associated with a clinicopathologically distinct syndrome when compared with other types of PLN. Early recognition of this syndrome has the potential to improve outcomes through specific aggressive and early treatment. Retrievers over represented Seroreactive more likely to have thrombocytopenia, azotemia, anemia, hyperP, neutrophilia, hematuria, glucosuria, pyuria. Histopath - immune complex glomerulonephritis Prevalence of polyarthritis not different between groups.

Answer 44

Mycophenolic acid was detected in all cats. The dose 10 mg/kg given q12h for 1 week was tolerated (n = 3). The efficacy of MMF as an immunosuppressant and long-term safety in cats of this dosage regimen is unknown. Biotransformation of MMF into MPA.

Answer 45

Clinically important variation occurs in USG in healthy animals and might impact clinical decision-making when diagnostic cutoff points are utilized. Clinicians should be aware of inherent variability in this clinical variable when analyzing results.

Answer 46

Pugs, more severe kyphosis, fewer hemivertebrae, ventrolateral hemivertebra subtype associated with a higher likelihood of neurologic disease. Cobb angle of 34.5 degrees = highest sensitivity and specificity to differentiate between affected and non-affected.

Answer 47

No clinical benefit was detected with the addition of low-dose meloxicam to phenoxybenzamine and alprazolam treatment for 2 weeks after discharge. Nevertheless, this study was underpowered to identify potential differences, and its findings must be corroborated in larger studies.

Answer 48

Type I HH is the most common type (86%) of HH in cats. A congenital etiology is possible, but many cats with HH were >3 years of age at diagnosis and suffered from comorbidities, including upper airway obstruction. Case selection and the presence of comorbidities likely influenced the outcome. Cats with HH may not be diagnosed until disease is advanced or concurrent illness draws attention to clinical signs. Concurrent illness common (77%). MST to death or follow up 959d. Medically treated (2559d) survived longer than surgical (771d).

Answer 49

Gastrointestinal bleeding occurs commonly in dogs administered aspirin, prednisone, or prednisone/aspirin treatment, with higher lesion scores for dogs receiving combination treatment. Even severe lesions are not accompanied by clinical signs. Prednisone 11x and prednisone/asprin 31.5x higher odds of high endoscopic mucosal lesion scores than placebo.

Answer 50

A treatment regimen including CsA and frequent hepatoprotectant use resulted in biochemical remission of ICH in most dogs. None of the evaluated factors, including hepatoprotectant use, were significantly associated with likelihood of remission. Future prospective studies are indicated to evaluate CsA monotherapy in ICH dogs. - Biochem remission in 79%. - Median dose at remission 7.9mg/kg/day - Median time to remission 2.5mos - Concurrent hepatoprotectant not associated with likelihood of remission. - adverse side effects: gi signs (38%), gingival hyperplasia (25%) - clinical score, ascites, hypoalbuminemia, hyperbilirubinemia, prolonged coags, dose and duration of tx not associated with probability or time to remission.

Answer 51

Tetrasodium EDTA infusions (1-2mL of 2%) can be safely considered as a treatment option for mineralized SUB devices in cats. This solution was easily infused, well tolerated, and avoided the need for SUB device exchange in the majority of cats in which it was used. Resolution in all 8 cats, 2 reoccurred, 1 required devise exchange, 1 infusion discontinued due to pelvic dilation.

Answer 52

Differences between single agent vs. multi immunosuppressives. No routine diagnostic test was predictive of clinical response, treatment group, or outcome. Glucocorticoid treatment alone can be appropriate in dogs with PLE. Median time until albumin >20g/L = 13d MST monotherapy - 85d MST dual therapy - 166d

Answer 53

Dogs with LES-AS may successfully be identified by VFSS using a free-feeding protocol. These data are of critical clinical importance because a subpopulation of dogs with functional LES obstruction may be candidates for targeted intervention. Megaesophagus present in 74% with LES-AS Esophageal fluid line and "bird-beak" in about 65%

Answer 54

Initially, a pulmonary balloon valvuloplasty was performed, and subsequently the dog underwent a surgical correction of the atrial anomaly under cardiopulmonary bypass.

Answer 55

Video capsule endoscopy is a minimally invasive diagnostic tool that can identify GI lesions in dogs presenting with microcytosis with or without GI hemorrhage when ultrasonography is inconclusive; however, the majority of lesions identified would have been apparent with conventional endoscopy. Mucosal lesions in stomach (15/16) and duodenum (12/14). 2 capsules remained in stomach.

Answer 56

Dogs with AKI had decreased collagen-activated platelet aggregation and appear to have a type II von Willebrand disease-like phenotype as indicated by the high vWF:Ag:vWF:CBA. Mean PCV lower with AKI. Platelet count higher with AKI.

Answer 57

Electrophysiological testing is a useful ancillary test, either to provide stricter inclusion criteria and outcome measures or to aid clinical decision-making in equivocal cases. Cord dorsum potential onset latency, F-wave onset latency (both corrected for limb length), and F-ratio were increased in dogs with lumbosacral foraminal stenosis.

Answer 58

Glomerular filtration rate estimation is useful for the diagnosis of CKD before the onset of azotemia.

Answer 59

Blood from a weakly DEA 1+ donor induces a strong and durable alloimmunization in a DEA 1− recipient dog. Additional alloantibodies developed against yet to be defined RBC antigens. Those results support the recommendation of typing dogs against DEA 1, considering weakly DEA 1+ as immunogenic, and crossmatching all previously transfused dogs.

Answer 60

Babesia vulpes infection in domestic North American dogs is commonly found in conjunction with other coinfections, including B. gibsoni and hemotropic Mycoplasma. Similar to B. gibsoni, dog-to-dog transmission of B. vulpes may be a frequent mode of transmission. Babesia spp. amplified from 2.9% north american dogs B. gibsoni monoinfection (1.7%) B. vulpes monoinfection (0.2%) - pitties, fights, seen with co-infections with other infectious orgs., clinical signs = anemia, thrombocytopenia, hyperglobulinemia, hypoalbuminemia, proteinuria Co-infection (0.31%)

Answer 61

The estimated heritability of DM in AED is high but has low precision. Diabetes mellitus transmission in AED appears to follow a polygenic inheritance. Breeders could successfully implement a breeding program to decrease the incidence of DM in AED. **Heritability of DM in AED is estimated at 0.62** FS (0.76) >MN (0.63) >IM (0.12) > IF (0.11) No single gene of large effect

Answer 62

Focused cardiac ultrasound performed by Non-Specialist Practitioners increased the detection of occult heart disease, especially in cats with moderate to marked disease. Focused cardiac ultrasound appears to be a feasible and useful tool to assist NSPs in the detection of heart disease in cats.

Answer 63

Cardiac cachexia in common in dogs with CHF and is associated with significantly shorter survival. This emphasizes the importance of preventing, diagnosing, and treating muscle loss in dogs with CHF. 48.3% cachexia based on muscle loss - older, arrhythmia, higher chloride, lower BCS, lower hct and hgb, lower albumin 42.1% cachexia based on weight loss Shorter survival time - tachyarrhythmias, azotemia, over or under weight

Answer 64

The current data point toward a very limited and possibly clinically unimportant effect for prevention or treatment of acute gastrointestinal disease. For chronic gastrointestinal disease, dietary intervention remains the major key in treatment, whereas probiotic supplement seems not to add significant improvement. However, studies were often underpowered, underscoring the need for future larger, preferably multicenter studies.

Answer 65

Body size-independent reference intervals for several linear, area, and volume measurements of LA and LV size and function were generated prospectively from a large and diverse reference population and are available for clinical use. Linear LA / LV measurements strongly correlated with body weight.

Answer 66

After adjusting for age, this study showed an association between diabetes and CKD in adult cats. Diabetes significantly associated with CKD - odds ratio 4.47 Other variables associated with CKD: age and mixed breed.

Answer 67

The skin or subcutaneous tissue can be the first osteosarcoma metastatic site detected. After CSM diagnosis, the prognosis is grave with median survival <2 months. Although this finding could have been biased by case selection, treatment with surgery and chemotherapy may improve outcome. Often incidental finding. Often times with pulmonary mets, once with bone mets. Non-CMS MST 160d CMS MST 55d, longer if treated with surgery and chemo (94d) and chemo (64d) vs without tx (11d).

Answer 68

These results suggest that a famotidine CRI, but not standard doses of famotidine, achieves the clinical goals established in people to promote healing of gastric tissue injury and offers an alternative to intravenous treatment with proton pump inhibitors in dogs.

Answer 69

44.4% complication rate; similar among dogs and cats. Infection - dogs 17.8%, cats 13.7% with some needing surgical debridement Regurgitation through stoma - 7 dogs, 1 cat. We did not identify any specific factors that increase patient risk for these complications, and therefore it is important that all patients are closely monitored and clients are educated to pursue prompt veterinary assessment when such complications arise.

Answer 70

Results support a pathogenic role of M. cynos and a commensal role of M. canis and M. edwardii in LRT in dogs. Although the association was not significant based on the CI, the point estimate of the Bayesian OR was relatively high for M. spumans, making its role less clear. Mycoplasma cynos-specific polymerase chain reaction should be considered on samples from dogs with LRT.

Answer 71

Signs of pain are common in CM/SM but are not SM-dependent, suggesting (not proving) CM-P causality. Wide (≥4 mm) SM is associated with signs of myelopathy and, if the dorsal horn is involved, phantom scratching (ipsilateral) and torticollis (shoulder deviated ipsilateral; head tilt contralateral). Vocalization Spinal pain Decreased activity Decreased stairs / jumping Touch aversion Altered emotional state Sleep disturbance Head scratching inversely associated with syrinx size .

Answer 72

A higher taper in tracheal diameter may lead to increased risk of fracture in the IT location. Dogs with tracheal malformations may have higher risk for thoracic inlet fracture and development of obstructive tissue ingrowth. Clinicians should be aware of the possible risk factors for tracheal stent complications. Stent fracture 25% Obstructive tissue ingrowth 19% Progressive tracheal collapse 12% Caudodorsal stent fracture associated with natural tracheal taper and more stent diameter oversizing.

Answer 73

Enrofloxacin/metronidazole administration is associated with a high frequency of antibiotic associated gastrointestinal symptoms (AAGS). Synbiotic administration decreases food intake derangements. The presence of milder AAGS in period 2 suggests that clinical effects of synbiotics persist >9 weeks after discontinuation, mitigating AAGS in dogs being treated with antibiotics followed by placebo. Synbiotics decrease antibiotic-associated gastrointestinal signs (AAGS) in cats.