2022 JVIM ✔️ Flashcards

Question

Characterization of clinicopathologic and abdominal ultrasound findings in dogs with glucocorticoid deficient hypoadrenocorticism (GDH)

Answer 1

No single variable could be used to confidently rule out GDH and obviate the need for cortisol testing in dogs with a clinical presentation consistent with GDH. Lymphocyte count and alb/glob ratio = highest discriminatory power between groups L adrenal <0.39 - 80% sensitive - 83% specific Cobalamin and AUS GI abnormalities not different between groups.

Answer 2

Our results suggest that the presence of bruxism in the awake state associated with other neurological deficits might indicate a forebrain lesion. all dogs neurolocalized to forebrain diencephalic involvement in 3/4 2 = neoplasia 2 = MUO 3 cases = increased intracranial pressure All dogs euthanized.

Answer 3

Abnormally high hepatic Cu is prevalent. Necroinflammation, not cholestasis or cirrhosis, on hepatic histopathology, is predictive of higher hepatic Cu. 50% hepatic Cu >400 20% hepatic Cu >1000 median 391 age negatively associated with Cu Breeds positively associated with Cu - doberman - labs - westies Necroinflammation associated with higher Cu

Answer 4

Cardiovascular events were common in cats with HCM (21%) from a rehoming center study sample. Lower left atrial systolic function appears to precede overt HCM. Cats monitored for median 5.6y. Baseline - 68/107 cats normal - 18/107 equivocal - 21/107 HCM 19 cats developed HCM during study Hazard - lower left atrial FS - higher left ventricular FS - higher body weight

Answer 5

Bladder urolith removal by PCCL procedure is no longer than OC. 45 vs. 48.5mins No difference in time of sx or duration of ax. Number of uroliths did not affect either group. Complete removal 98% in both groups. Median hospitalization shorter in PCCL in dogs but didn't differ in cats.

Answer 6

penetration - material immediately cranial to vocal folds aspiration - material caudal to vocal folds Pathologic penetration aspiration = 39% No differences in CS between dogs with or without P-A. 14/39 with P-A presenting without respiratory signs. Pharyngeal and esophageal dysphagia more common with P-A. NOT oral prep. Pharyngeal weakness and esophago-oropharyngeal reflux = independent predictors of P-A. Moderate (P) and weak (EOR) correlation with score. Penetration-aspiration occurs in dogs in the absence of respiratory CS (i.e., occult P-A). Dogs with pharyngeal weakness and EOR should be considered at risk for P-A.

Answer 7

This MLM can robustly predict HA status when indiscriminately screening all dogs with blood work. In this group of dogs with a low prevalence of HA, the false positive rates were clinically acceptable. 12 dogs machine learning positive --> 5 true positive --> 3 euth or treated before confirming diagnosis (undetermined) --> 4 false positives positive likelihood ratio 145 to 254. All HA dogs tested positive via machine learning.

Answer 8

A negative IMMY CLFA = reliable exclusion of cryptococcal infection in dogs and cats. Positive result = interpreted cautiously and further testing should be performed. positive percent agreement = 100% negative prercent agreement = 93% dogs and 96% cats

Answer 9

In this cohort of dogs receiving parenteral furosemide for CHF, KI was common, mostly non-azotemic (Grade I), and did not impact survival. Kidney injury 48% dogs - mostly during hospitalization - grade 1 = 25 dogs - grade 2 = 9 dogs - grade 3 = 4 dogs Higher BP associated with acute KI during hospitalization. PO furosemide dose associated with KI post hospitalization. Baseline creat and CRI not associated with increased risks. KI not associated with long term outcome. 13 dogs with grade 2-3 = azotemia reversible in 9 dogs 6 dogs survived >1 year after KI

Answer 10

Trapped neutrophil syndrome = rare congenital disease in border collies Persistent neutropenia - lower neutrophil survival time Myelod hyperplasia Homozygous mutation Neutrophilic inflammation in multiple organs = neutrophils can leave marrow and enter tissues - trapped = misnomer

Answer 11

The program effectively trained PCs (primary care veterinarians) to accurately assess EPIC criteria in dogs with preclinical MMVD. No differences in LA:Ao between cardiologists and RP. RP - lower left ventricular internal diameter in diastole normalized for body weight Agreed in assessment of EPIC criteria for 49/56 dogs. EPIC study = criteria for dogs with pre-clinical MMVD that might need pimobendan (88%) - LA:Ao - LV internal diameter in diastole normalized for body weight

Answer 12

COMMON: - Endplate involvement (88%) --- bilateral (95%) --- erosion (62%) - Periosteal proliferation (73%) - Spondylosis (67%) - Vertebral body involved (67%) --- involves 1/3 vetebra 86% --- multifocal osteolysis 74% Evaluate all three planes (dorsal, sagittal, transverse) to identify an affected IVDS. ****Bilateral endplate erosion Periosteal proliferation ****

Answer 13

Inflammatory PLE - high rate of relapse Owner diet compliance 31% dogs - remission without relapse for at least 2y 25% dogs -remission with relapse within 2 years --> higher poor dietary compliance 44% dogs - never achieved remission Disease associated death median of 19 days post histopath diagnosis.

Answer 14

2/3rd of hyperthyroid cats have abnormally low muscle mass when measured quantitatively by ultrasound. Successful treatment restores muscle mass in >85% of cats. Epaxial muscle height (EMH) provided the best means of quantitating muscle mass in these cats. 65% untreated cats had subnormal EMH. Lower vertebral epaxial muscle score (VEMS) and forelimb epaxial muscle score (FLEMS). EMH normalized in 88% of cats. VEMS and FLEMS also increased after treatment.

Answer 15

Dogs with MMVD can experience progressive renal tubular damage and dysfunction. Goal to evaluate damage by looking at urinary neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalin (uNGAL) MMDV higher uNGAL and uNGALC (normalized to creat). uNGAL and uNGALC increase with ACVIM stage. Tubular damage is subclinical, occurs in all stages of MMVD even in the absence of azotemia, and increases with the severity of MMVD.

Answer 16

Alendronate overall was well tolerated with chronic use in this cohort, and can be considered a treatment option for persistent ionized hypercalcemia in cats. Azotemia present in 75%. Alendronate well tolerated. 1 cat developed severe hypophosphatemia. Tx associated with shorter time to achieve 15% decrease in iCa from baseline. -- no longer significant when factoring in age and initial iCa

Answer 17

Fecal sampling with mineral oil lubrication did not change the microbial DNA extraction yield, metagenomic sequencing yield, level of host contamination, the microbial composition and diversity in subsequent gut microbiome analyses.

Answer 18

5wk ME Golden - hx vomiting and diarrhea Ileocecocolic intussuseption on AUS Ultrasound guided hydrostatic reduction Inject saline rectally under controlled pressure to mechanically reduce. No recurrence. 6mo follow up.

Answer 19

Albuterol inhaler to treat hyperkalemia in humans. Albuterol IH decreases blood potassium concentrations in a dose-dependent manner without clinically meaningful alterations to heart rate or blood glucose concentrations in healthy dogs. The mean decrease in potassium concentration at the high-dose of albuterol was modest (0.38 mmol/L). NADIR at 60mins for low dose. NADIR at 30mins for high dose. NADIR decreased by 0.1mmol/L for each 10ug/kg increase in albuterol dose.

Answer 20

~2y FE Alaskan Malamute Fed raw food Presented for hyporexia and increased liver enzymes. Imaging - cholangiohepatitis Coccidial zoites on bile cytology PCR - Hammondia heydorni - sarcocytid protozoa - 2 host lifestyle (obligate) TX: clinda, marbo, urosdiol, denamarin Resolution in 6wk Pathogenic vs. commensal unknown

Answer 21

3D echo of the RV is a promising tool to detect RV changes in dogs with PH. 2D strain measurements are able to detect decreased RV function vs. conventional indices. End diastolic volume and end systolic volume larger in the PH group vs. controls. Pre-capillary PH worse RV systolic function than post-capillary.

Answer 22

3y FE Springer Spaniel - previous MUO 2y prior treated long term with prednisolone - developed proteinuria Hypoalbuminemia Hypercholesterolemia Proteinuria Renal bx - TEM showed podocyte injury Primary minimal change disease of the podocytes Tx: telmisartan and mycophenolate Abnormalities resolved within 4 weeks. minimal change disease - can present with nephrotic syndrome Prevalence in dogs 0.06% In dogs - can be seen with use of c-kit inhibitors or Eherlichia. Humans - immune mediated prednisone can cause glomerulopathies, different histopath from this case though.

Answer 23

Findings suggest that fluid therapy plans can be improved using apps. 80% prefer app method than conventional. App scored higher. Neonatal calf diarrhea.

Answer 24

11y FS Lab Presented for facial swelling Hyperglobulinemia Azotemia Hypercalcemia Non-regen anemia Thrombocytopenia Spurious hypoglycemia Serum and urine protein electrophoresis -- monoclonal gammopathy (IgM) with Bence Jones proteinuria CT - monostotic osteolytic bone lesion Bone marrow cytology/histopath = plasmacytosis with multiple myeloma oncogene 1 / interferon regulatory factor 4 positivity Initial positive for Leishmania, Borrelia, Anaplasma --> subsequently confirmed negative ***False positives due to paraproteinemia-associated assay interference*** Tx: Melphalan + pred Euth 30d later due to pericardial effusion

Answer 25

microRNA - possible diagnostic/prognostic markers for GI disease best distinguisher between inflammatory vs. cancer - fecal miR-451 - fecal miR-223 - fecal miR-27a - fecal miR-20b - fecal miR-148a-3p - fecal miR-652 Improved diagnostic performance with fecal miR-451 and -223 together When used as part of a diagnostic RT-qPCR panel, the abovementioned miRNAs have the potential to function as noninvasive biomarkers for the differentiation of GIC and CIE in dogs.

Answer 26

2y FE GSD Generalized tonic-clonic epileptic seizures, right sided vestibular, and right trigeminal nerve dysfunction Ischemic strokes noted on MRI Renal infarcts + complete splenic torsion with entrapment of the L pancreatic lobe. Medical management + splenectomy + partial pancreatectomy + rehab = clinical improvement Histopath - hemorrhagic infarction 3mos later - only mild vestibular disease Spontaneous hemorrhagic transformation - ischemic area develops a hemorrhage, due to BBB disruption and re-perfusion injury

Answer 27

Standard or high dose pimo does not affect renal function in non-azotemic dogs with B2 MMVD. High dose did not demonstrate advantage - no diff in GFR or QOL High dose echo indices different from placebo but not different from standard dose Standard dose echo indices different from placebo.

Answer 28

Nontraumatic adrenal hemorrhage can occur with stress induced catecholamine release in humans. Leads to primary Addison's Bilateral thickening of adrenal glands with periadrenal fat stranding in 10y maltese after abdominal sx. Treated for CIRCI CS relapsed with hydrocortisone dose reduction Subsequent decrease in adrenal size on follow up AUS

Answer 29

Dystonia - sustained or intermittent involuntary muscle contractions causing abnormal repetitive movements, postures, or both. When describing, should include - activity at onset - body distribution - duration - responsiveness - severity - temporal pattern - autonomic signs ? - preceding signs ? - coexistence of other movement disorders - other neurological manifestations - link to other factors (ex: meds, etc.). Etiology classifications - structural genetic - suspected genetic - reactive - unknown

Answer 30

Oxidant status is altered in dogs with naturally occurring AP, but the clinical relevance of this finding is unknown. Reactive metabolite (RM) concentration and reactive metabolite to antioxidant potential (RM:AOP) ratio were higher in AP dogs. - not correlated with duration of hospitalization or disease severity indices Disease severity indices did not predict mortality. Urine F2 prostaglandin concentrations were correlated with CRP and cPLI.

Answer 31

Most dogs = no changes in neuro exam after trazodone 20% dogs had new or worsening CP deficits. 20% from BAR --> QAR Sedation and anxiety scores different pre- and post.

Answer 32

Oral supplementation is adequate. CE - increased with oral from median 149 - 733. - increased with injectable from 168 - 563. EPI - increased with oral from median 162 - 919. - increased with injectable from 172 - 390. Methylmalonic acid - when elevated is a sign of B-12 deficiency - decreased with oral and injectable cobalamin in CE - decreased only with oral in EPI

Answer 33

PIVC sampling - generally acceptable. statistically and clinically acceptable agreement between sampling methods for most results. Most frequent disagreement - AST - bili - K - bicarb - leukocyte differentials - RBC parameters: PCV, HGB, HCT Few differences would change clinical decision.

Answer 34

Diagnostic for CH = - disproportionate dwarfism - high TSH - low T4 Dyshormonogenesis demonstrated by scintigraphy. - defect in iodine organification by thyroid peroxidase (TPO) High radiopertechnetate uptake Low radioiodine uptake Homogenous for thyroid peroxidase (TPO) missense variant = XM_006930524.4:c.430G>A(p.(Gly144Arg)) Allele frequency 9%

Answer 35

Domestic cat hepadnavirus infection was associated with high serum activity of liver enzymes and chronic lymphoplasmacytic hepatitis (LPH). Detected in - 18.5% blood - 14% histologic parenchymal disorders - 4% normal cats High AST and ALT Log viral copy number positively correlated with ALT, trig, GGT, and hepatitis. Seen in cases with acute and chronic hepatitis. Hepatocyte proliferation noted in positive cats.

Answer 36

B-cell most common Most B-cell lymphoma = diffuse large B-cell Small cell B-lymphomas = 12% of nodal lymphomas Most nodal small cell B-cell lymphoma cases had aggressive disease. L Median percent of B-cell Ki67 = 41% ***LOW Ki67 expression (<11%) = longer overall survival*** Median progression free survival 119d Median overall survival 222d CHOP - median PFS = 70d CHOP - median OS = 267d CHOP - 50% complete response SHORTER SURVIVAL - Older - Substage B - high CD25 expression - low CD21expression - Class II MHC

Answer 37

Agreement between uroendoscopy and US = moderate AUS is NOT the preferred modality for urethral lesions. Urinary incontinence agreement 71% Stranguria agreement 58% Recurrent UTI agreement 87% Urethral strictures = pertinent endoscopic finding for dogs with stranguria - 12 were males

Answer 38

Because production of alloantibodies was detected as early as 1 day after transfusion, cross-matching should be performed before every subsequent transfusion. 12/21 dogs - positive cross match within 4d after transfusion No sig association between type of anemia, RBC storage, immunosuppressants, or transfusion volume. Another 4 dogs developed within 6-13d.

Answer 39

3 cats - intermittent spinal hyperesthesia and paraparesis Focal dilation of the veins in the epidural space of thoracic spinal cord. Dorsal laminectomy and occlusion - remission and no recurrence during 14-40mos of follow up after surgery in all cases.

Answer 40

This straightforward 50-step walking test provides robust data on ambulatory recovery well-suited to large scale pragmatic trials on treatment of thoracolumbar spinal cord injury in dogs. Deep pain negative - less likely to recover than dogs with intact pain If deep pain negative did recover, it took longer. Pre-surgical neuro status and duration of pre-surgical anesthesia associated with rapidity of recovery.

Answer 41

Rare complication - migration of SUB device Consider in cats with SUB obstruction and positive urine culture. Median time to migration 928d. Duodenum 3/11 Jejunum 7/11 Colon 1/11 Median follow up time after migration diagnosis 365d - 2 alive

Answer 42

Drug-eluting bead transarterial chemoembolization offers a viable treatment option for patients with incompletely resectable HC with the potential for increased local tumor doxorubicin concentrations, decreased systemic chemotherapeutic exposure, and fewer adverse hematological events. Higher concentration with chemoembolization.

Answer 43

Short-term calcifediol supplementation in this small group of CKD dogs appeared to decrease ACE activity. @ 3 mo time period. CKD leads to low vitamin D metabolites. Low vit D may be associated with disease progression and increased concentration of RAAS mediators.

Answer 44

X-linked myotubular myopathy in a cat with an MTM1 missense mutation 7mo ME Maine Coon - progressively worsening gait abnormalities and weakness - neuromuscular localization - euthanasia **Histopathology of skeletal muscle - atrophic / hypotrophic fibers - fibers had dark central staining structures and ring like appearance ** Congenital myopathy most likely. **missense variant in myotubularin 1 (MTM1)** Spinal muscular atrophy = LIX1

Answer 45

Opioids may exacerbate spinal inflammation. No difference in recovery to ambulation or in pain scores. There was no evidence that, at the doses used, fentanyl impaired ambulatory outcome after sx. Pain control appeared similar between groups. Minor benefits associated with ketamine-dexmedetomidine. - better recovery to eating / urination

Answer 46

Microsatellite instability (MSI) is a type of genomic instability caused by mismatch repair deficiency in tumors. *** MSI detected frequently in oral melanomas *** MSI positive markers are higher in cases with mismatch repair deficiency.

Answer 47

Presbycusis (age-related hearing loss) negatively alters owner-pet interactions and is associated with poor executive performance and owner-assessed dementia severity. Performance on inhibitory control, detour, and sustained gaze task significantly decreased with hearing loss. Higher CADES = worse hearing.

Answer 48

Urethral submucosal injection of skMPC can be used adjunctively to improve continence in dogs with difficult to manage USMI. The procedure is labor intensive but well tolerated; most dogs will require continued medication to remain continent. Median continence scores significantly increased from baseline in 14/15 dogs. Medications still required for continence in all but 2 dogs.

Answer 49

dogs managed with TPE = excellent outcomes, even in cases of high NSAID dose ingestion When TPE is available and the time frame is appropriate, this extracorporeal modality should be considered. 75% ingested neurologic dose median time from ingestion to presentation 4h median plasma volumes processed 1.6 median session 2h Complications in 33% - circuit clotting 13% - uticaria 13% - hypotension 9% - asymptomatic hypocalcemia 9% duration hosp = 2.25d 98% survival to discharge 91% not azotemic at follow up

Answer 50

neutrophil to lymphocyte ratio = possible biomarker for MUE median NLR higher in MUE than healthy, epilepsy, and hydrocephalic dogs AUC for MUE vs. healthy 0.96 MUE vs. other forebrain disease 0.86 NLR 4.16 - sensitivity 71% - specificity 84%

Answer 51

bioavailability 88% ** mean total body clearance 3.64mL/h/kg mean half life 12.9h Urine output and urine Na:K significantly increased with administration dose dependent increase in urine aldosterone:creatinine ratio transient decrease in K did not affect BP or creat single dose - significant increase in diuresis and RAAS activation in healthy cats ** without clinically relevant adverse effects. 0.27 mg/kg SID dosing **

Answer 52

Serum SDMA concentrations are elevated in cats with established AKI (novel and AoC) and CKD, providing evidence for use of SDMA as a **biomarker for AKI** in cats. SDMA higher in kidney disease (AKI, CKD, AoC) vs. healthy control. Higher with IRIS grade SDMA and Creat correlate

Answer 53

Administration of ondansetron (0.5mg/kg) IV is beneficial for dogs with nausea secondary to acute vestibular syndrome. Ondansetron substantially and rapidly decreased clinical signs of nausea behavior and stopped emesis. Clinical resolution of nausea 1h after administration. serum arginine vasopressin decreased within 4h AVP - correlated with clinical signs of nausea

Answer 54

The metabolic profile of dogs with CE is significantly different from that of healthy dogs. 19 metabolites, 18 lipoproteins different HIGHER in CE - Phenylalanine - Lactate LOWER in CE - total fatty acids - glycine

Answer 55

TL IVDE most common cause of acute paraparesis and plegia in dogs.

Answer 56

majority of PPI prescriptions lacked appropriate indication frequent occurrence of dosages considered inadequate, raising concern for ineffective treatment even with appropriate indications of use 40% dogs prescribed PPI in hosp Adequate indication in 27% Out of those surviving to discharge - 54% discharged with PPI - 51% inappropriate dose

Answer 57

Compression of epidural adipose tissue with cauda equina syndrome - leads to enhanced inflammation = more pain Upregulation - TNFa - IL 10 Downregulation - leptin Enhanced release of IL-6 Secondary to compressive forces

Answer 58

novel mutation in CLCN1 gene = a cause of myotonia congenita in cats 10mo MN DLH Increasing frequency of episodic limb rigidity Fall over, lying recumbent when excited Hypertrophied musculature, episodes of facial spasm, short-strided stiff gait EMG - spontaneous myotonic discharges Phenytoin 3mg/kg PO q24 - long term improvement - sodium channel blocker - anticonvulsant

Answer 59

Myelofibrosis - no identifiable cause in dogs Tested candidate gene regions - JAK2 - CALR - MPL 69% myelofibrosis cases had somatic variants 9/18 possibly pathogenic No somatic variants in controls BW and survival did not differ based on variant status # of variants increased with age

Answer 60

Prevalence of thrombocytopenia and B. vogeli exposure =lower than previously documented. RI for platelets and WBC lower in greyhounds than other breeds Proteinuria common. VBD common. Positive for at least 1 VBD - 7/30 national greyhound assoc. - 1/28 AKC More positive in NGA than AKC Bartonella - 3 Ehrlichia - 1 Mycoplasma hemocanis - 3 Platelet count >170k WBC <4000 and microalbuminuria were not associated with VBD.

Answer 61

42% google-aided diagnoses matched JAVMA diagnosis Google could help

Answer 62

Splenectomy successful and well tolerated in most cases of isolated ITP. benefit of splenectomy in cases of IMHA and CIST (concurrent IMHA and severe thrombocytopenia) could not be determined. 6/7 ITP managed with splenectomy as part of protocol - 3 complete remission - 3 PR 4/7 IMHA managed with splenectomy as part of protocol - 2 CR - 2 PR 1/3 CIST = complete response

Answer 63

did not detect a difference in the overall urogenital microbial composition between groups - alpha/beta diversity similar Differences in individual bacterial taxa might be clinically relevant Over-represented in urolith formers - Acinetobacter - 2 Geobacillus variants - Hydrogenophaga Over-represented in controls - Sphingopyxis Two unique clusters of the microbiome were identified, independent of urolith status, which may represent distinct urotypes present in Miniature Schnauzers.

Answer 64

Leukoreduction of RBC - prevents inflamm. mediators and experimentally decreases post-transfusion inflammation in healthy dogs No differences in inflammation biomarker concentrations were detected over time between dogs transfused with LR or NLR RBC.

Answer 65

Dogs with sHH may present with exclusively respiratory signs. - exclusive GI 42% - mixed 33% - exclusive resp 25% Brachycephalic - not more likely to present with resp signs - resp signs more likely to be severe - younger - more likely to have asp pneum. Videofluoroscopic swallow study was superior to thoracic radiographs for detection of sHH in dogs.

Answer 66

The dose escalation used with an 11% physical dose increase DID NOT result in better outcome. Local progression can be due to insufficient radiation dose. New protocol + dose increase mild AE 5 dogs no severe late AE noted No significant difference between outcome with diff treatments. overall time to progression 708d median overall survival 684d

Answer 67

9 week ME CKCS - acute onset dyspnea secondary to pneumothorax CT - pulmonary bullae + blebs 7.5mL/kg whole blood collected from donor and given via thoracostomy tube. Pneumo resolved No AE Clinically normal 1y later

Answer 68

Aspfum and PanAsp on blindly collected nasal swabs can be useful for the detection of SNA at diagnosis and at cure, especially when more invasive methods are not available. Positives in SNA dogs Aspfum 13/20 PanAsp 14/20 Aspfum negative in all other groups PanAsp positive in 3 non-SNA dogs Aspfum 33.3 cutoff - sens 65% - spec 100% Panasp 34.5 cutoff - sens 70% - spec 96.2%

Answer 69

Polycythemia is uncommon, and usually mild if present, in dogs with chronic hypoxia caused by pulmonary disease. In chronic hypoxemia - HCT increased in 8.5% - erythrocytes increased in 26% - HGB increased in 6.4% No marked polycythemia >65% RBC parameters not associated with severity of hypoxemia

Answer 70

6 single nucleotide polymorphisms in the glucocorticoid receptor gene (NR3C1a) investigate if polymorphisms associated with ITP outcome **None of the previously reported nonsynonymous SNPs in exons 2 and 8 of the NR3C1a gene were detected in our cohort. ** The synonymous SNP NR3C1a:c.798C>T in exon 2 was reported at an increased prevalence. NOT associated with outcome. **No difference between fast and slow responders.**

Answer 71

metaphyseal sclerosis on radiographs in young dogs --> clinical suspicion of canine distemper Sclerosis is distinct from the necrosis and inflammation of metaphyseal osteopathy. multifocal, symmetric, metaphyseal sclerosis - proximal humerus

Answer 72

Diet + lactulose = good Diet alone = bad Diet + metro = bad Diet + lactulose + metro = did not further improve Medical treatment decreases FA (fasting ammonia).

Answer 73

history of inflammatory oral disease was not more frequent OSCC shared several risk factors with chronic gingivostomatitis and periodontal disease. ** = shared risk factors **Rural environment outdoor access Tobacco smoke Pet food with chemical additives ** Oral inflammation in 35% but not risk factor

Answer 74

Although tylosin influences the microbiota of dogs with ARE, we failed to find any specific characteristic in the microbiota of dogs with ARE. Diarrhea reoccured after T30 in 9/14 dogs Difference in beta diversity at T0 between groups Difference in alpha diversity in chronic diarrhea dogs between T0-T30

Answer 75

Pug dogs at genetic risk for NME might manifest neurological abnormalities before developing pathognomonic clinical signs of NME. fatal neuro-inflammatory disease, rapid progression, poor response risk allele frequency 40% - 14% high - 53% mid - 33% low Reproducible abnormalities in 33% at risk dogs and 0% low risk dogs - multifocal spinal pain - reduced menace - lateralizing CP deficits Association between genotype risk and phenotype Younger Lymphocytic inflammation Genetic risk chromosome 12 - dog leukocyte antigen MHC II Symptoms - seizures - circling - visual defecits - behavior change

Answer 76

Escherichia coli and Enterococcus spp. polymicrobial UTI had more frequent adverse clinical outcomes for dogs. Recurrent UTI more prevalent in dogs with polymicrobial bacteria rather than single org. E. coli in polymicrobial more resistant to doxy and gentamicin. Recurrent and poly - more hosp visits.

Answer 77

Control of clinical signs, body weight, and maintenance of glycemia was achieved with this once-weekly novel insulin construct in 4 of 5 dogs.

Answer 78

GI lymphomas more common in MDs multicentric more common in other breeds median age 10y for both groups more younger MD develop lymphoma than non-MD 70% b-cell mott cell differentiation in 6 dogs median age dx 3y Longer survival - <4y - B cell

Answer 79

Leptin = severity Adiponectin = proteinuria Leptin + correlated with - systolic BP - creat - SDMA Adiponectin higher in non- or borderline proteinuric dogs IL-6, IL-18, TNFa = higher in non- or borderline proteinuric

Answer 80

median time to normalization of CRP 7d and SAA 7d were shorter than tx time and rad normalization CRP and SAA positively correlated with rad severity

Answer 81

Isavuconazole might prove to be useful in cats with fungal disease given its favorable pharmacokinetics. PO and IV = high serum concentrations Peak 5h after PO Elimination t1/2 = 66.2 Intersubject variability 2 cats vomited after PO oral bioavailability 88%

Answer 82

cfu/mL = inappropriate measure for determining whether antibiotics are of benefit in dogs with LRT signs - not predictive TNCC not predictive of abx requirement in bronchial disease Historically >1700 cfu/mL = clinically relevant

Answer 83

The occurrence of ionized hypercalcemia is high in cats with CKD. 20% at dx Male sex higher total ca higher K lower PTH 26% normocalcemic developed hypercalcemia - median 140d after dx BCS associated with iCa increase

Answer 84

Most idiopathic

Answer 85

The LA-OMEP formulation produced gastric acid suppression in healthy dogs for an average of 5 days and up to 7 days, after a single intramuscular injection. No major adverse effects were observed. mean onset of action 98min mean number of days met - MPT >3 = 5.5d - MPT >4 = 5.25d MPT >3 for 72h in all dogs MPT >4 for 96h 7/8

Answer 86

We did not find evidence that antineoplastic chemotherapy is a major predisposing factor for the development of PUC. Most dogs with positive urine cultures had subclinical bacteriuria. prevalence of positive urine culture 11% at start and 13% during chemo E. coli most common pathogen.

Answer 87

Vomiting and diarrhea were deemed acceptable with 25 mg/m2 DOX followed by maropitant treatment in 5 to 10 kg dogs; however, additional supportive care might be needed for dogs with inappetence and neutropenia. Inappetence 7/19 Vomiting 2/19 Diarrhea 6/19 Neutropenia 12/19 Thrombocytopenia 3/19 Most AE grade 1 and 2

Answer 88

French Bulldogs have a high prevalence of IVDD associated epidural hemorrhage. - more likely TL EH - faster clinical course - more likely non-ambulatory on presentation - <50% cross-sectional spinal cord compression - longer longitudinal spinal cord compression - greater intrinsic spinal cord change 39% epidural hemorrhage

Answer 89

Signal intensities correspond to tumor margins for different tumor types and facilitate surgical and radiation therapy planning using MRI images. Glioma - margins drawn around T2-weighted hyperintensity = similar to surgical Meningioma + Histiocytic sarcoma - margins of contrast enhancement = similar to surfical Glioma - T2 Meningioma - Contrast Histiocytic - Contrast

Answer 90

1st attempt more likely to pass On-call during study = lower pass rate General didactic and board specific lectures - higher pass Diplomate led higher pass rate than resident led Most important ** - Lack of on-call - Didactic lectures

Answer 91

Ctyidine diphosphcholine acts rapidly to promote gas exchange in dogs with naturally occurring aspiration pneumonia and is a potential adjunctive treatment in VetARDS patients. Presented with - tachycardia - tachypnea - hypertension - hypoxemia - hypocapnea - lymphopenia - neutrophilia CDP-choline = rapid and progressive clinically relevant oxygenation based on - pulse ox - PaO2 to FiO2 ratio - A-a gradient Treatment - less platelet consumption

Answer 92

Hydromyelia - 92% Absence associated with longer clinical signs Hydromyelia associated with duration of CS <14d = more acute 78% sensitive 86% specific

Answer 93

MST 1322d normalization of creat in 55% at discharge 20% at follow up propotion of dogs with creat normalization decreased with increased AKI grade survival not associated with creat normalization etiology associated with long term outcome Long-term survival = longer than previously described. Normalization of sCr in 75% total

Answer 94

Presnce of lower resp tract diseae present in 75% summated number of B lines and false positive for edema higher in dogs with lower resp tract disease Presence of other lung abnormalities predict false positives Previous criteria for edema dx - >2 sites, >3 b-lines per site = false positive rate of 15%

Answer 95

Ileal features and involvement degree markedly differed when cobalamin was <200 or >350 ng/L in CIE dogs. ** greater ileal damage = lower cobalamin ** More frequent with severe hypocobalaminemia than normal cobalamin - Friability - villus atrophy - crypt dilation - epithelial injury - intraepithelial lymphocytes

Answer 96

Mini schnauzer - idiopathic hypertriglyceridemia - associated with insulin resistance - subclinical inflammatory phenotype Calprotectin weakly inversely correlated with glucose. Lower insulin after diet and compared to baseline Ultra low fat diets = fat content of <20g/1000kcal

Answer 97

Lipase and AUS weakly correlated. Lipase higher with shorter duration of CS before presentation. Previous episodes - significantly associated with AUS diagnosis Suspicion of panc or increased lipase - more frequent finding of panc on AUS

Answer 98

Sludge - stasis and hypersecretion Sludge can progress to mucocele 13% developed mucocele during study Breed risk - Shetland sheepdogs - Border terriers Non-gravity dependent debris forms first Odds of mucocele increased with sludge score.

Answer 99

Decreased high sensitivity cardiac troponin 1 and left ventricular internal systolic diameter in grain free dogs after diet change supports reversibility of these subclinical myocardial abnormalities. Grain free group had more drastic changes

Answer 100

Measurement of SAA using the immunoturbidometric assay evaluated in this study and lipoprotein particle size distribution in dogs with inflammation might help distinguish septic from nonseptic causes of inflammation. SAA and CRP higher in dogs with sepsis and non-septic inflammation than healthy dogs. SAA >677.5 for sepsis - 45% sensitive - 92% specific Low density lipoprotein higher in dogs with sepsis High density lipoprotein not associated with CRP High density lipoprotein inversely correlated with SAA

Answer 101

Vitamin D negatively correlated with disease activity. - inversely with AST, neutrophils - proportionally with albumin (low together) CRP and vWF positively correlated with histopath grade and stage. Vit D low in CH CRP + vWF higher with worse disease

Answer 102

Urethral obstruction secondary to capsule formation is an uncommon but clinically important complication associated with use of the artificial urethral sphincter. Possibly associated with infection. + culture from capsule, sphincter or both in all dogs Time from implantation to obstruction = 884d Age at obstruction 4.7y CS - stranguria - pollakiuria - weak urine stream - worsened incontinence Urethra stenotic during scope Surgery - fibrous capsule associated with sphincter

Answer 103

84% abnormal reflux median distal percentage time of pH <4 = 6.4h The occurrence of reflux is not associated with owner-assessed respiratory and gastrointestinal grade, laryngeal collapse grade, and previous airway surgery. Esophageal pH measurement provides an objective assessment tool before and after surgery.

Answer 104

Chagas - arrhythmias, myocardial damage, heart failure, sudden death Tx itraconazole / amiodarone Died within 6mos severe, symptomatic disease

Answer 105

2.5y MN cat - fever, generalized lymphadenopathy treated with clav + marbo borderline non-regen anemia LN FNA - increased intermediate to lymphoblastic lymphs + reactive macs IMHA developed --> responded to immunosuppressive therapy PCR for bartonella tx with prado and doxy - resolve CS, negative PCR

Answer 106

Tx - 1 wk abx 70% - 3 wk abx 30% No short term relapse Long term in 3 dogs Image resolution lags behind CRP. AP safely and effectively treated using a short-term antimicrobial regimen discontinued after clinical improvement and serum CRP normalization.

Answer 107

0.3 - 14y old SMALL <10kg = 85% Breeds - shiz tzu 24% - terrier 24% 80% systolic heart murmur Most common symptoms - exercise intolerance 37% - syncope 18% Most hypertrophy is symmetrical 84% SAM of mitral valve 60% LV diastolic dysfunction 89% 6 dogs sudden death 3 CHF Survival time between 1d and 114mo HCM - differential diagnosis if LV hypertrophy. Uncommon for dogs with HCM to develop CHF although sudden death can occur.

Answer 108

Myoclonus occurs in middle-aged to older CKCS and seems to be another epiphenomena of this breed. A link to epilepsy might be present. Rapid blinking, head nodding, thoracic limb extension median age of onset 8y 33% also had paroxysmal events - seizures 9/13

Answer 109

Med vs. surgical management both viable. 10/15 hypoechoic 2/15 anechoic No complications after hospitalization Predominantly neutrophilic inflammation 11/15 = negative culture 7 surgical - 4 discharged, 3 euth 8 medical - 7 discharged, 1 died - 3 represented for surgical management Subclassifications of pancreatic fluid accumulations using diagnostic findings could enable more tailored management approaches Septic - surgery

Answer 110

Ultrasound GI wall changes with AP = common 47% Duodenum 71% wall thickening 74% abnormal layering 61% corrugation 35% Increased HR - predictor of GI wall changes, which might imply more severe disease.

Answer 111

Gastroduodenal ulceration = 10% of dogs with liver disease 10% ulcers 15% erosions No difference in endoscopic score or proportion of lesions among groups

Answer 112

Electroanatomic mapping to find the arrythmogenic substrate for radiofrequency catheter ablation = feasible in Boxers with ventricular tachycardia. may help decrease runs of VT and improve clinical signs. After tx - no further collapse, fewer to no runs of VT procedural complications - vfib - bruising / hemorrhage at access site - retroperitoneal hemorrhage - aortic and mitral regurg - SVT - R pelvic lameness

Answer 113

No benefit of preoperative atenolol treatment was identified in this small group of dogs. Atenolol group = lower HR during procedure No differences in ventricular rhythms / beats Similar procedure time

Answer 114

Dogs with DCM or subclinical cardiac abnormalities previously eating non-traditional diets had improvements in echocardiographic parameters (fractional shortening) after diet changes. sudden death most common cause in both groups survival time non-traditional diet group 611d vs. DCM group 161d - NTD live longer bc reversible with diet change

Answer 115

Imaging-based assessment of BBB integrity has the potential to predict risk of seizures in dogs with MUO. Blood brain barrier dysfunction = higher prevalence of seizures - 72% vs. 19% Subtraction enhancement analysis (SEA) + MRI = enhanced detection of brain pathology from 50 --> 72%

Answer 116

Cardiomyopathy = increased RAAS activity SH did not. Furosemide + amlodipine = nonspecific activation of classical and alternative RAAS pathways CM cats higher - angiotensin 1 - aldosterone - plasma renin activity

Answer 117

1D, 2D, CEV (contrast enhancing volumetric techniques), and TTV (total T2W tumor volumetric method) = comparable for determining therapeutic response. TTV = recommended to standardize glioma therapeutic response criteria. Partial tumor response at 6 weeks = lower death hazard

Answer 118

Higher risk of mortality - thromboembolic events - AKI - CHF ***Admin of antithrombotics*** = prolonged survival time. - without = MST 92d - with = did not reach MST in study period Survival to discharge = 70% Survival to 1mo = 54% MST 72d Heart valves involved and agent did not correlate with outcome

Answer 119

Lung ultrasound findings resemble those of humans with comAP (community acquired penumonia) and differ from CXR findings. Shred signs and high CRP concentrations better reflect clinical findings during serial evaluation of dogs. B-lines and TXR abnormalities persist at 1mo follow up Shred sign disappears, clinical improvement, and CRP normalize at 1mo follow up

Answer 120

Acute, potentially life-threatening hepatopathy associated with oral administration of zonisamide to dogs is estimated to occur in **less than 1% of dogs and was observed in the first 3 weeks of treatment.** 3 dogs - 2 recovered, 1 euthanized Subclinical abnormalities in ALT (6 dogs) and ALP (10 dogs) activity were noted in <10% of dogs during chronic administration of zonisamide, with no clinical signs of liver disease noted.

Answer 121

Features of CT may help radiologists predict AT type and provide probabilistic information on vascular invasion. 50% adrenal carcinoma 40% pheochromocytoma 10% adrenal adenomas Differences between adrenal carcinoma and pheo. - pre- and post attenuation - contralateral adrenal size - thrombus dimensions - thrombus mineralization Benign vs. malignant = differed in contour irregularity

Answer 122

Incidence risk 0.54% ABXs common (58%) despite minimal evidence of UTI. Repeat catheterization = 30% case fatality rate during a UO episode = 30% - most (88%) euthanasia Repeat catheterization within 48 hours of elective removal of a urethral catheter was less common in cats that had previously had indwelling catheters. (vs. placed and immediately removed). Majority of cats w/ repeat catheterization survived.

Answer 123

The HLO (helicobacter like organisms) score was associated with a high GLFH (gastric lymphoid follicular hyperplasia) score. Vomiting associated with GLFH. Helicobacter-like organisms are highly prevalent in young dogs and GLFH is indirectly associated with this factor. Associated with GLFH (univariate) - Intact M - Young - Vomiting - gastroscopy findings - histopath findings GLFH associated with HLO score and vomiting - not with breed or age

Answer 124

SBRT is effective and well tolerated for treating localized nasal lymphoma in cats. Outcomes for cats with lower stage disease (canine modified Adam's stage 3 and lower) are comparable to historic data of cats treated with fractionated radiation therapy. progression free survival - 225d MST 365d No sig diff between 1 vs >1 fraction Negative prognostic factors - cribiform lysis - intracalvarial involement Disease progression 38% - local 22% - systemically 16% Late adverse effects - keratitis / KCS - alopecia - leukotrichia 75% had signs of chronic rhinitis

Answer 125

The results support feeding the high fiber diet described herein to dogs with acute large bowel diarrhea. 100% fed high fiber had fecal score <5 on adoption or day 9 - vs. standard diet only 55%

Answer 126

Increasing developmental stage of GBM = increased likelihood of biliary tract related clinical signs. Death predictors after chole - intra-op BP NADIR - age Lower NADIR - possible GB rupture

Answer 127

early post-op seizures (EPS) in dogs with rostrotentorial brain tumors = 13% previous structural epilepsy - not associated with EPS risk Peri-op AED not associated with EPS EPS - longer hosp - more complications - less likely to survive Hard to predict which dogs are at risk

Answer 128

Protein-poor (TP <1.5 g/dL) and protein-rich (TP >2.5 g/dL) transudates were associated with distinct lipoprotein patterns and specific groups of disease. Effusions secondary to pancreatitis might be transudative and rich in triglycerides. Rich in VLDL + IDL - CKD - PLE - acquired PSS Rich in dense lipoproteins - heart disease - caudal vena cava syndrome - intracavitary neoplasia --> higher concentrations of cholesterol and TP Triglyceride rich - panc

Answer 129

Esophageal - younger than gastric - higher bone cross sectional area - most resolved non-surgically - erosions more likely with distal entrapment / longer durations Many gastric left to desolved - no reported complications Gastric advancement of E-bFBs should be considered when oral removal is not feasible, and dissolution can be considered even with large bones.

Answer 130

Azithromycin and erythromycin shorten GE time in a comparable manner in healthy cats. gastric emptying faster and more completely with either drug Fractional emptying - 75% placebo - 95% azith/erythro No effects on antral motility

Answer 131

The UCCR seems to be a valuable and reliable screening test for HA in dogs. UCCR - lower in dogs with Addison's Cutoff <1.4 - spec 97% - sens 100% advantage = need only a single urine sample.

Answer 132

Stenting of the aorta and aortoiliac trifurcation can provide an apparently safe and effective treatment with rapid return to ambulation for some dogs with aortic thrombosis. 4/7 non-ambulatory 2/7 no underlying disease 5/7 dogs had PLN 1/5 PLE 1/5 caudal aortic chondrosarcoma No procedural deaths Post-op complications - pain - bruising / edema MST 264d 5/7 ambulatory within 2 days of stenting

Answer 133

In both healthy and sick cats, active Bartonella infections had minimal association with clinically relevant laboratory abnormalities. Areas considered high risk for Ctenocephalides felis fleas - active infection with Bartonella is a differential **Bartonella DNA from 3.2% of cats --> 99% from high flea risk areas --> 95% sick** **Fever Neutrophilia Young** Decreased ALP Hyperproteinemia - negatively associated Not associated with other infectious diseases

Answer 134

Bronchomalacia 41% 38% >10kg (small) All dogs had more than 1 cardiopulmonary comorbidity. BM dogs - older - smaller - more likely to have tracheal or mainstem bronchi collapse or bronchiectasis PH more prevalent with BM

Answer 135

<2 in 28% Repeat cortisol testing - excluded most prevalence 0.3% Most common dx - IBD 62% Repeat resting cortisol concentration may be considered as a test to try and exclude hypoadrenocorticism.

Answer 136

Low prevalence (3.4%) of positive culture with inactive sediment E. coli most common Voided samples = increased risk of positive culture compared to cysto No difference with UPC, USG, breed, pH, age, sex

Answer 137

Biomarkers normalized within 7 to 14 days. Serial measurements of CRP and SAA might ID resolution and guide abx therapy. D1 Highest - CC-motif chemokine ligand 2 - CRP - keratinocyte chemoattractant-like D3 Highest - SAA - cell free DNA - high mobility group box-1 - nucleosomes D7 highest - haptoglobin Concentrations significantly different on D60 CRP and SAA decreased by 80% and into reference range before ABX were discontinued.

Answer 138

Lethargy 90% Anorexia 83% Vomiting 68% Etiologies -ischemic/inflammatory 58% - infectious 8% - nephrotoxins 6% - other 5% Hospital acquired 9% Presentation creat 4 Peak creat 4.6 IRIS GRADES 1 = 2% 2 = 15% 3 = 36% 4 = 31% 5 = 16% Association between death and IRIS grade 66% survival Other organ involvement - worse outcome Case fatality higher if anuric 20% hemodialysis - 60% survival

Answer 139

Iron deficiency 14% CHr (corpuscular hemoglobin) added moderate value to the diagnosis of iron deficiency in cats with CKD. Cutoff 15.9pg - Sens 67% - Spec 82%

Answer 140

qRT-PCR - positive in at least 1 site in all dogs - 83% positive in all sites - 99% negative in healthy dogs before vaccination healthy puppies 10d after vax - 62% positive fecal - 31% positive blood - 12% positive pharyngeal Proportion of positive decreased 20d after vax - negative 12-28d after second vax Vaccinated adults negative before and after booster PCR of CPV is sensitive, but specificity is hampered temporarily during the vaccination period. Blood, feces, and pharynx are suitable sampling sites. Fecal samples had the lowest sensitivity in sick dogs and highest positivity in puppies after vaccination.

Answer 141

**Creat at the time of diagnosis is a useful prognostic indicator** for survival after a diagnosis of DA. 7.4x hazard compared with dogs with normal creat **MST treated with multimodal antifungal therapy is LONGER than itra alone. ** itra alone MST 63d multimodal antifugnal 830d

Answer 142

**Dogs with DM may be at increased risk for adrenal neoplasia.** Odds of developing neoplasia not different for dogs with/without DM. DM higher odds of adrenal mass Odds of splenic mass increased but not significant

Answer 143

Lymphoma - most common spinal cord neoplasia - 2nd most common intracranial tumor in cats Median duration CS 14d Neuro exam abnormal in 30/31 CNS lesions = 18 PNS lesions = 1 Both = 12 Intracranial = mixed extra- and intra-axial most common. Spinal cord = 6/12 affecting conus medullaris and lumbosacral plexus Infiltration of extraneural tissue 11/31 Contrast enhancement in all Meningeal enhancement in most. Wide range of MRI features None are pathognomonic Clinical data + CSF + MRI may provide a strong tentative antemortem diagnosis.

Answer 144

Mortality in dogs with ENL is high but differed according to disease categories. Mortality 41% - higher with neoplasia (56%) vs. immune mediated (20%) or tissue damage (19%) Negatively associated with survival - Weight - Neutrophilic count Duration of hospitalization positively associated with survival

Answer 145

The intrarenal RAS might be activated in cats with CKD. CKD cats - older, more likely neutered - higher angiotensin - lower levels of ACE Angiotensin 1 increased in CKD cats

Answer 146

Nephrocalcinosis associated with CKD Mild to severe 78% Absent to minimal 22% Risk factors - elevated total calcium - phosphate restricted diet Absent to minimal nephrocalcinosis cats had increasing creat, urea, phosphate over a 1y period - shorter MST than those with mild to severe Nephrocalcinosis NOT associated with rapid CKD progression.

Answer 147

10y MN DSH - chronic diarrhea Hyperglobulinemia, mild anemia Endoscopy - diffuse granulomatous and lymphoplasmocytic inflammation Leishmania amastigotes in cytoplasm of macrophages from bx. Organism detected in spleen, bone marrow, and with serology. Tx: allopurinol, dietary supplement (nucleotides and hexose) - GI signs resolved - Seropositivity and gammopathy persisted Died of unrelated causes 3mos later

Answer 148

Selected ***sphingolipids*** are moderately positively correlated with fPLI and appear to have fair to moderate diagnostic accuracy in discriminating between cats with normal and increased fPLI.

Answer 149

Alaskan malamute polyneuropathy - progressive - exercise intolerance - pelvic limb ataxia - inspiratory stridor - muscle atrophy EMG - spontaneous activity in skeletal muscles, decreased motor nerve conduction veolcity Degenerative, demyelinating NDRG1 missense mutation - similar to Charcot Marie Tooth disease Tongue atrophy - spontaneous EMG activity Histopath - atrophic myofibers, hypoglossal nerve demyelination / degen - similar to skeletal muscle changes Macroscopic tongue atrophy is part of the disease phenotype of AMPN.

Answer 150

A formula could be useful for assisting clinicians in determining the likelihood of spinal shock. Odds of spinal shock DECREASED - larger dogs - longer duration of CS - with decreased pelvic limb tone Odds of spinal shock increased with paraplegia Decreased pelvic limb reflexes with spinal cord injury may be L4-S3 vs. spinal shock with T3-L3.

Answer 151

Esophageal varices - abnormally dilated veins caused by an alteration in blood flow or pressure. Rarely reported Prevalence 0.012% Most identified by CT Clinical signs typically due to underlying condition, not EV. Commonly identified concurrently with portal, pulmonary, and caval hypertension. Hemorrhage is not a common clinical manifestation of EV.

Answer 152

New gastroesophageal abnormalities after TEE - mucosal damage Nausea post procedure in 4 dogs Probe did not compress any structures clinically. Major complications remain possible, complications in this study were mild and few in number. Dog size and probe characteristics are factors to consider when performing TEE.

Answer 153

Mitral valvuloplasty contributes to decreased RAAS activity in MMVD dogs, which paralleled the process of cardiac reverse remodeling up to Post-3M. - aka RAAS variables decreased as well as echo values Improvement in echo values. Decrease in plasma renin, angiotensin 2, and aldosterone compared to baseline at all time points. Decreased bun / creat at 1m post

Answer 154

**Short-term mortality 30%** Factors significantly associated with short-term mortality - increased age - shorter duration of hospitalization - development of SE before arrival - SE caused by a potentially fatal etiology **SE recurred in 27% ** of dogs that survived to discharge. Factors significantly associated with recurrence of SE included - drug resistant - focal seizure phenotype