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From Flashcardlet > Exam 4 - CAT/Tactics > Flashcards

Exam 4 - CAT/Tactics Flashcards

0
Q

If a person is experiencing symptoms of PTSD from an incident that occurred three weeks ago, what would he be diagnosed with?

a. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
b. Schizophrenia nervosa
c. Bipolar disorder
d. Acute Stress Disorder

A

d. Acute stress disorder

Symptoms occurring within the first 30 days are termed acute stress disorder. A month after the event it is likely PTSD.

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1
Q

After an SNS Activation, what percentage of an event do people generally remember about the incident within the first 24 hours?

a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%

A

a. 30%

First 24 hours: 30%
After 48 hours: 50%
After 72-100 hours: 75-95%

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2
Q

What’s the ideal heart rate for combat performance?

a. 75-100 bpm
b. 115-145 bpm
c. 165-195 bpm
d. 200+ bpm

A

b. 115-145 bpm

Heart rates above 175 bpm make fine (hands, fingers) and complex (hand eye coordination) more difficult

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3
Q

Which of these is an example of gross motor skills?

a. Tennis serve
b. Sewing
c. Punching
d. Hitting a baseball

A

c. Punching

Gross motor skills utilize large muscle groups and simple actions, not requiring the precise hand eye coordination of fine and complex motor skills

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4
Q

How long does the ATP/PC fuel system last?

a. Less than 5 seconds
b. 10-15 seconds
c. 30-120 seconds
d. 3+ minutes

A

a. 10-15 seconds

ATP/PC energy system utilizes 100% of your strength, after that it decreases to 65%

Adenosine triphosphotel/phosocreatine (ATP/PC) - 10-15 seconds
Lactic Acid system - 30-120 seconds
Aerobic system - 90 seconds forward

*these times vary based on physical fitness level

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5
Q

Which of these is NOT a portion of the ooda loop?

a. Observe
b. Orient
c. Decide
d. Assault

A

d. Assault

A - Act

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6
Q

During an SNS activation, vision can decrease by as much as ____

a. 25%
b. 40%
c. 70%
d. 90%

A

c. 70%

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7
Q

Which set of motor skills require greater attention and/or concentration?

a. Fine motor skills
b. Complex motor skills
c. Gross motor skills
d. Motor vehicle skills

A

a. Fine motor skills

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8
Q

During a state of arousal, hyper-vigilance may occur. Another term for this is:

a. Fight
b. Freezing
c. Tunnel vision
d. Flight

A

B. Freezing

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9
Q

During which state would experiential thinking most likely occur?

a. Reflective
b. Unhurried
c. Reactive
d. Deliberate

A

c. Reactive

Experiential thinking happens when the individual perceives a threat, the SNS activates and the body is in a state of high arousal. It is reactive, action-oriented, and emotional.

Rational thinking occurs when the individual has time to make smart, precise, deliberate, reflective, and unhurried decisions.

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10
Q

During which phase of OODA loop does the agent focus on the threat and analyze the information received to develop a current mental perspective?

a. Observe
b. Orient
c. Decide
d. Act

A

b. Orient

Observe - stimulus draws agents attention (pre-assault indicator, bulge, movement, etc.)
Orient - information analysis, focus on threat
Decide - use education, experience, and training to determine action
Act - perform response

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11
Q

Following an incident, the body will try to regulate itself back to a sense of normalcy (homeostasis). This occurs during a(n):

a. PNS Backlash
b. SNS activation
c. OODA loop
d. PTSD

A

a. PNS Backlash

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12
Q

Feelings of fatigue, dizziness, tremors, and excessive bleeding in wounds are all symptoms of:

a. SNS activation
b. PTSD
c. PNS Backlash
d. OODA loop

A

c. PNS Backlash

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13
Q

After an SNS activation, studies show that people remember general characteristics of an event up to ___% within the first 24 hours

a. 10
b. 30
c. 50
d. 75

A

b. 30

First 24 hours (before first sleep cycle): 30%
After 48 hours: 50%
After 72-100 hours: 75-95%

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14
Q

In the first month following a traumatic event, a person exhibiting symptoms such as difficulty sleeping, irritability, outburst of anger, exaggerated startled response, etc., would likely be diagnosed with:

a. PTSD
b. Schizophrenia
c. Insomnia
d. Acute stress disorder

A

d. Acute stress disorder

The symptoms listed are all persistent symptoms of PTSD, but within the first month following the event, it is characterized as acute stress disorder. If the symptoms persist beyond one month, it is likely PTSD.

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15
Q

When a subject can be touched with the agents foot, but the subject cannot touch the agent with his hand, which range of combat are they in?

a. Hand range
b. Kicking range
c. Trapping range
d. Grappling range

A

b. Kicking range

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16
Q

When both subject and agent can throw, choke, immobilize, or lock joints of their opponent, which range of combat are they in?

a. Hand range
b. Kicking range
c. Trapping range
d. Grappling range

A

D. Grappling range

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17
Q

A subject is directly across from the agent, what position is he in?

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Inside

A

d. Inside

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18
Q

The escort position is from the:

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 2 1/2
d. Inside

A

c. Level 2 1/2

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19
Q

The motor nerve point located several inches above the knee on the outside of the thigh is:

a. Common peroneal
b. Femoral
c. Brachial plexus
d. Radial

A

a. Common peroneal

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20
Q

The motor nerve point located on the side of the neck is:

a. Common peroneal
b. Radial
c. Brachial plexus
d. Superficial

A

c. Brachial plexus

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21
Q

The radial motor nerve point is located on the:

a. Side of the neck
b. Top of the forearm
c. Inside of the thigh
d. Instep, near the bottom of the shin

A

b. Top of the forearm

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22
Q

The femoral motor nerve point is located on:

a. Top of the forearm
b. Bottom of the forearm
c. Inside of the thigh
d. Center of the calf

A

c. Inside of the thigh

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23
Q

The motor nerve point located at the instep, near the bottom of the shin is the:

a. Femoral
b. Tibial
c. Common peroneal
d. Superficial

A

d. Superficial

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24
Q

The motor nerve point located at the bottom of the forearm is the:

a. Common peroneal
b. Radial
c. Medial
d. Superficial

A

c. Medial

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25
Q

The ATF use of force policy is based upon:

a. Probable Cause
b. Reasonable belief
c. Objective reasonableness
d. General orders

A

c. Objective reasonableness

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26
Q

True/False

Firearms may be used to disable a moving vehicle

A

False

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27
Q

True/False

Verbal warnings are always necessary before using deadly force

A

False

Verbal warnings should be used if feasible and if doing so would not increase the danger to the special agent or others

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28
Q

True/False

Deadly force may be directed against dogs or other vicious animals in self-defense or defense of others

A

True

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29
Q

Use of Force incidents involving physical force greater than minor restraint should immediately be reported to:

a. Force review branch
b. RAC/GS
c. Internal affairs
d. SAC

A

b. RAC/GS

They then report to SAC

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30
Q

Which of these situations would NOT require an agent reporting the incident?

a. Intentional discharge by citizen in agent presence while off duty
b. Intentional discharge during laboratory or technical examination
c. Unintentional discharge on firing line during authorized enforcement training
d. Intentional discharge by an agent during an enforcement activity

A

b. Intentional discharge during laboratory or technical examination

Only unintentional discharges require reporting in the lab

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31
Q

If an agent wishes to make alteration or modifications to a bureau issued weapon, they must first receive the approval of:

a. Chief, FTB
b. RAC
c. SAC
d. FIC

A

a. Chief, FTB

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32
Q

When flying armed, ATF order 3020.1 prohibits consuming alcohol within ___ hours of a flight

a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12

A

b. 8

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33
Q

True/False

If weapons must be stored in check baggage outside the custody and control of the agent, the firearm must be stored unloaded

A

True

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34
Q

True/False

If a pilot refuses to allow an agent to fly armed, the agent may give his firearm to the pilot to hold in the flight deck until the flight is complete

A

False

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35
Q

We may detain persons for brief periods of time based on:

a. ATF O 3020.2A
b. A hunch
c. Reasonable suspicion
d. Probable cause

A

c. Reasonable suspicion

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36
Q

Which of the following should NOT occur during a voluntary contact between a LEO and a citizen?

a. Identifying yourself as a LEO
b. Asking if they are willing to answer questions
c. Frisk
d. Asking for ID

A

c. Frisk

During a voluntary contact, you should not give Miranda warnings, use any force whatsoever, or frisk. All imply that it is not a voluntary contact and instead a detention.

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37
Q

True/false

A frisk of a vehicle gives you access to the entire vehicle

A

False

A terry-type stop of a drive coupled with reasonable suspicion that the suspect is presently armed and dangerous will support the frisk of the entire passenger compartment including unlocked containers, but NOT the trunk.

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38
Q

Which of the following is a factor that may give rise to development of reasonable suspicion to conduct a frisk?

a. Prior information that the suspect is armed
b. Reputation of the individual
c. Bulge in clothing representative of a weapon
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

Others include:

  • a furtive movement, such as suddenly reaching inside one’s coat
  • type of offense for initial stop (murder, robbery, firearms violations, etc. are presumed to include weapons)
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39
Q

True/False

Agents must qualify on the low light pistol qualification course once a quarter

A

False

Low light pistol, tactical rifle, and shotgun qualifications are required once a year

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40
Q

True/False

ATF agents may arrest for any federal offense

A

True

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41
Q

Under which circumstance is a criminal complaint required to be submitted to a U.S. Magistrate Judge?

a. After executing an arrest warrant
b. When arresting someone outside of the U.S.
c. When arresting someone without a warrant
d. After arresting someone in their residence

A

c. When arresting someone without a warrant

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42
Q

When executing an arrest warrant for someone in a third party’s residence, you must have an arrest warrant for the defendant AND

a. A search warrant for the premises
b. Consent by the owner or person in control
c. Exigent circumstances
d. Any of the above

A

d. Any of the above

a, b, or c on their own would give you lawful access to the property when paired with an arrest warrant

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43
Q

Which of the following is an example of using force to execute a search warrant?

a. Opening an unlocked door
b. Ramming a door
c. entering through an open garage door
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

Force means to enter without permission

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44
Q

True/False

Agents approached the house, rang the doorbell, announced their identity and authority, announced their purpose, an demanded entry.

This was a violation of the knock and announce statute because they didn’t knock

A

False

Knocking, ringing the bell, yelling, use of a bull horn, etc. are all acceptable to satisfy the “knock” portion of the statute

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45
Q

True/False

Following use of force to enter a home, agents are responsible for securing the premises prior to leaving

A

True

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46
Q

A protective sweep is conducted to:

a. Obtain evidence
b. Prevent suspect escape
c. Look for booby traps
d. Ensure officer safety

A

d. Ensure officer safety

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47
Q

True/False

During an arrest warrant at a residence, officers can conduct a protective sweep of the entire residence even if the subject of the warrant is arrested at the front door

A

False

Protective sweep while making an arrest is limited to closets and other spaces immediately adjoining the place of arrest from where an attack could immediately be launched unless there is reasonable suspicion that other armed people may be present.

During a search warrant, a protective sweep of the entire premises is warranted regardless of indications of additional threats

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48
Q

True/False

A search of a premises allows for the search of all persons found on the premises during the execution of the warrant

A

False

Separate warrants should be obtained for people expected to be located on the premises prior to entry

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49
Q

Agents have a search warrant for the residence of Richard Rowe, but do not intend to arrest him unless evidence is discovered. While executing the warrant, they detain him. This is lawful under what doctrine?

a. Ybarra v. Illinois
b. Michigan v. Summers
c. Maryland v. Buie
d. Terry v. Ohio

A

b. Michigan v. summers

Agent may detain an individual to minimize risk to officers, prevent flight in case evidence is retrieved, and to complete the search in an orderly manner

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50
Q

During execution of a search warrant, agents come upon a social visitor with no criminal history, no connection to criminal activity being investigated, and did not consent to a search. This person:

a. May be detained under Michigan v. summers
b. May be detained/frisked under Terry v. Ohio
c. May be searched under Ybarra v. Illinois
d. Is free to leave

A

d. Is free to leave

A social visitor may not. E frisked without reasonable suspicion he or she is armed and dangerous, or searched without consent or probable cause

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51
Q

True/False

A search warrant for a premises authorizes the frisk of every person who may be present for officer safety

A

False

You must be able to articulate reasonable suspicion that each person frisked was armed and dangerous

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52
Q

Upon executing a search warrant, agents find car keys for a Honda Civic in the premises owners bedroom, belonging to a vehicle parked in the driveway. The vehicle isn’t registered to the owner, but he has previously been seen driving the car during surveillance. Are the agents allowed to search the vehicle?

a. Yes, it is presumed to be under the control of the premises owner and therefore would be included in the search warrant
b. Yes, any vehicle on the premises of a search warrant can be searched
c. No, any vehicle searched must be owned by the subject of the search
d. No, vehicles must have separate search warrants

A

a. Yes, it is presumed to be under the control of the premises owner and therefore would be included in the search warrant

The scope of the warrant is to include those automobiles either actually owned or under the control and dominion of the premises owner, or, alternatively, those vehicles which appear, based on objectively reasonable indicia, present at the time of the search, to be so controlled.

53
Q

In executing a search warrant, how must agents treat containers found in possession of an overnight visitor?

a. They cannot search them without a separate warrant
b. They cannot search, but they can frisk for weapons
c. They can search them as long as there is probable cause
d. They can search because the visitor has a significant relationship to the premises

A

d. They can search because the visitor has a significant relationship to the premises

54
Q

When arresting someone in their house, what is the scope of the search incident to arrest?

a. Only the area under the immediate control of the arrestee
b. Only anything on the suspects body
c. Only adjoining rooms
d. The entire residence

A

a. Only the area under the immediate control of the arrestee

55
Q

If probable cause exists to arrest a person in a car, what is the scope of the search incident to arrest?

a. Agent can only search the suspect, not the car
b. Agent can search the passenger compartment, but not containers within
c. Agent can search the passenger compartment, including containers within
c. Agent can search the entire car

A

c. Agent can search the passenger compartment, including containers within

56
Q

True/False

Body cavity and strip searches are always permitted during searches incident to arrest

A

False

There must be real and articulable justification to ensure a balance between governmental needs and the invasion of personal rights.

57
Q

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of performing an inventory?

a. Protection of LEOs
b. Collection of evidence
c. Protection of owners property
d. Protection from disputes of lost or stolen property

A

b. Collection of evidence

Evidence found during a lawful inventory is permissible but it’s not the intended purpose

58
Q

True/False

The concept of DUTY TO ACT permits law enforcement officers have a clearly duty to secure medical care for persons injured as a result of/or while in police custody regardless of safety concerns to the LEO

A

False

The safety of LEOs as well as other civilians takes precedence to the LEOs duty to act. They are to provide care when it’s safe to do so.

59
Q

An ATF agent gets into a physical altercation with a suspect before eventually arresting him. As a result of the altercation, the suspect has a bloody nose. The agent indicates he’ll be taking him to the hospital before going to jail, and the suspect indicates he does not wish to receive medical attention. The agent should:

a. Abide by his wishes and take him directly to jail
b. Ask the suspect to sign a refusal of care form before taking him to jail
c. Call his/her RAC for advice
d. Ignore the refusal and take the suspect to a medical authority

A

d. Ignore the refusal and take the suspect to a medical authority

When they are under arrest, they are your property and it’s not their decision to make. All suspects injured during an ATF enforcement operation should be presented to a recognized medical authority for evaluation. They may refuse medical care at that point, and that is when they would sign the refusal of care form

60
Q

What is the primary difference between a hospital and a trauma center?

a. Trauma centers are larger
b. Trauma centers have more staff on duty
c. Trauma centers have full time surgeons on duty at all times
d. Trauma center doctors have better educations

A

c. Trauma centers have full time surgeons on duty at all times

61
Q

What is the best method of transporting an agent in need of care?

a. GOV
b. Ambulance
c. Medical helicopter
d. Depends on the circumstances

A

d. Depends on the circumstances

Decision should be based on one factor - TIME.

Consider where you are in relation to hospital, resources hospital has to get to you, etc.

Quick decision making, platinum 10 minutes, golden hour, etc., maximize chances of surviving a major surgery. The faster to a surgeon, the better.

62
Q

In many cases, what is the determining factor in the outcome of a patient?

a. Time from injury to receiving pre-hospital care
b. Time from injury to arriving at hospital
c. Time from injury to surgery
d. Quality of pre-hospital care

A

c. Time from injury to surgery

63
Q

In response to receiving trauma, the body will initiate a fight or flight response, which of these is NOT a typical reaction from the body?

a. Muscles tighten giving greater strength
b. Blurred vision
c. Rational thought decreases
d. Pulse and breathing rate increases

A

b. Blurred vision

Vision sharpens

Other reactions:

  • someone attempting to render aid may be perceived as a threat
  • loss of fine motor skills
  • brain may perceive everything in slow motion
64
Q

In the MARCH algorithm, the A stands for:

a. Ailment
b. Abrasion
c. Asphyxiation
d. Airway

A

d. Airway

M - Massive Bleeding
A - Airway
R - Respirations
C - Circulation
H - Head Injury or Hypothermia
65
Q

When blood is “spurting” from the body, this is usually characteristic of:

a. Venous bleeding
b. Rectal bleeding
c. Arterial bleeding
d. Severe bleeding

A

c. Arterial bleeding

Venous bleeding is a steady stream.

66
Q

When using a clotting agent, after applying, the provider must apply very strong direct pressure to the site without letting up for at least:

a. 30 seconds
b. 1 minutes
c. 3 minutes
d. 5 minutes

A

c. 3 minutes

67
Q

True/False

If a pressure bandage becomes soaked with blood, you should remove it and apply another.

A

False

They should never be removed. Apply another over the top.

68
Q

True/False

When applying a clotting agent, you should remove all the previous bandaging material from the wound.

A

True

The clotting agent must be applied directly to the bleeding site for the intended effect.

69
Q

If a patient is conscious and having airway problems, the recommended solution is to:

a. Put him/her in a position of comfort until EMS arrives
b. Perform mouth to mouth resuscitation
c. Perform the Heimlich maneuver
d. Sweep the airway with your fingers looking for obstructions

A

a. Put him/her in a position of comfort until EMS arrives

This is designed to best protect the airway.

If they’re unconscious, open the airway using the head tilt, chin lift method learned in CPR, looking for foreign objects and finger sweep them out,

70
Q

If a patient is having a hard time answering simple questions or staying alert, this is indicative of:

a. Hypothermia
b. Massive blood loss
c. Circulation issues
d. Head injury

A

d. Head injury

71
Q

True/False

Trauma patients who arrive at the ER cold (95 degree body temp or lower) and with significant blood loss usually die within a week

A

True

72
Q

Pale skin, sweating, anxiety, increased pulse and breathing are signs of:

a. Hypothermia
b. Massive blood loss
c. Shock
d. Airway constriction

A

c. Shock

73
Q

If you finish going through MARCH and EMS has not arrived, you should:

a. Call them back
b. Start driving them to the hospital
c. Reassess
d. Do the steps again in reverse

A

c. Reassess

74
Q

The only medical intervention applied in the hot zone:

a. Assessing the airway
b. Stop massive bleeding
c. Preventing hypothermia
d. Assessing Respirations

A

b. Stop massive bleeding

75
Q

The only zone EMS will enter is:

a. The danger zone
b. The hot zone
c. The warm zone
d. The cold zone

A

d. The cold zone

76
Q

Which zone is defined as receiving indirect fire?

a. Danger zone
b. Hot zone
c. Warm zone
d. Cold zone

A

c. Warm zone

77
Q

Proper care in the warm zone would be:

a. Apply a tourniquet or strong direct pressure if practical, otherwise stay in the fight
b. Continue through MARCH and reassess as needed until EMS arrived
c. Drag the patient to a secure area and wait for EMS
d. Continue through MARCH from cover with security protecting you and the patient

A

d. Continue through MARCH from cover with security protecting you and the patient

The care provided here is behind cover in an otherwise unsecured area. Security is extremely important as it can become a hot zone very quickly.

78
Q

A single agent drag is achieved by:

a. Grabbing the patients shoulder straps and walking backwards
b. Grabbing the patients hands and walking backwards
c. Going under the patients armpits and grabbing his/her wrists and walking backwards
d. Picking patient up and carrying over the shoulder

A

c. Going under the patients armpits and grabbing his/her wrists and walking backwards

79
Q

True/False

Heat exhaustion may occur at a variety of temperatures and weather conditions

A

True

80
Q

True/False

Force that is not likely to cause death or serious physical injury but unexpectedly results in death or injury is deadly force

A

False

81
Q

Which division of the ATF coordinates and conducts the review of ATF involved shooting and other use of force incidents?

a. Inspection division
b. Personal review board
c. Force review branch
d. Internal affairs

A

c. Force review branch

Also know for test:

Inspection division - conducts inspections, audits, and management reviews that are fair, thorough and consistent

82
Q

All uses of force incidents greater than minor restraint should be reported to:

a. Force review branch
b. Supervisor
c. Internal affairs
d. SAC

A

b. Supervisor

83
Q

Post shooting incident, the responsibilities of a special agent do NOT include:

a. Issuing a statement regarding the operational plan
b. Render first aid as appropriate
c. Continue to engage in law enforcement activity
d. Coordinate with local authorities

A

a. Issuing a statement regarding the operational plan

Other responsibilities in addition to b, c, d:

  • ensure personal and public safety
  • know policies on statements and firearms
  • immediately report to supervisor

PROHIBITED: statements regarding operational planning, strategies, or confidential informants

84
Q

Under what circumstances shall agent release their firearms to an outside agency?

a. After a shooting incident
b. After a shooting incident if the agent was in the wrong
c. With SAC approval
d. With RAC approval

A

c. With SAC approval

85
Q

After what period of time following a shooting incident is an agent free to speak with outside agencies?

a. 1 hour
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

A

b. 24 hours

**must first consult with Chief, Force Review Branch

86
Q

Other than ATF supervisory personnel, agents can only speak with assigned personnel from:

a. Force Review Branch
b. Office of Professional Responsibility and Security Operations
c. Inspection Division
d. All of the above

A

b. Office of Professional Responsibility and Security Operations

**requires approval of Chief, Force Review Branch

87
Q

Administrative review of use of force incidents is NOT used to:

a. Determine if use of force was within bureau policy and training
b. Investigate integrity of the agent
c. Identify possible aspects of incident that highlight a need for changes
d. Create reports for civil lawsuits and criminal proceedings

A

b. Investigate integrity of the agent

NOT an integrity investigation, guy kept mentioning that, so probably worth remembering

88
Q

In the stages of mental preparedness, the stage in which an individual is at rest and unaware of his or her environment is the ______ zone

a. Red
b. White
c. Orange
d. Yellow

A

b. White

89
Q

In the stages of mental preparedness for combat, the most recent addition to the chart, the stage at which panic has consumed the individual rendering them unable to defend themselves (hyper vigilance) is the _______ zone

a. Red
b. White
c. Black
d. Yellow

A

c. Black

The black zone is the stage of ultimate victimization

90
Q

What statute gives ATF agents authority to arrest on all federal offenses?

a. 18 USC 922(d)David
b. 18 USC 3501
c. 18 USC 3510
d. 18 USC 3051

A

d. 18 USC 3051

91
Q

The philosophy that since most subjects comply with verbal direction, the need to train intensely for the worst case scenario is rarely needed or altogether unnecessary is known as:

a. Predicted compliance
b. Presumed compliance
c. Assumed compliance
d. Assumed consent

A

b. Presumed compliance

92
Q

Which of these are among the effects that presumed compliance has on the warriors mental condition and physical readiness:

a. Empathy, denial, decreased reaction time
b. Apathy, denial, decreased reaction time
c. Empathy, overconfidence, increased reaction time
d. Apathy, overconfidence, increased reaction time

A

d. Apathy, overconfidence, increased reaction time

Full list:

  • overconfidence
  • tactical overconfidence (“it’s not the size of the dog..”)
  • apathy
  • diminished motivation to train
  • denial (“I can’t believe this is happening to me”)
  • increases reaction time
  • dulls intuition and instincts
93
Q

Which of the following is not a common pre-attack posture/signal?

a. Crouching
b. Feet spread
c. Open hands
d. Statements like “I can’t go back to jail”

A

c. Open hands

Full list:

  • scanning for witnesses and escape routes
  • blading the body
  • crouching
  • balled fists
  • feet spread
  • head down
  • staring at target area
  • statements like “I can’t go back to jail”
  • conspicuously ignoring your commands
  • known violent background
94
Q

The contact offices responsibilities include all except:

a. Discourages escape
b. Conducts all business of the encounter
c. Handcuffs all arrestees
d. Performs pat downs and searches of suspects and vehicles

A

a. Discourages escape

Contact office responsibilities:

  • conducts all business of the encounter
  • records suspect or incident details
  • performs pat downs and searches of suspects and vehicles
  • handcuffs all arrestees
  • recovers evidence and contraband
  • handles routine communications
95
Q

Cover officer responsibilities include everything except:

a. Discourages escape
b. Recovers evidence and contraband
c. Resists distraction
d. Devotes full attention to the suspect through a position of surveillance and control

A

b. Recovers evidence and contraband

Cover officer responsibilities:

  • devotes full attention to the suspect through a position of surveillance and control
  • discourages hostile acts by subjects
  • discourages escape
  • alerts contact officer to any attempt to hide, discard, or destroy evidence
  • intervenes with force, if necessary, to protect contact officer
  • resists distraction
  • constitutes an unspoken force presence
96
Q

When positioning him/herself, cover officers should consider:

a. Shooting background
b. Personal cover
c. Unobstructed view of contact officer and subject
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

Also:

  • peripheral view of surrounding area
  • control of likeliest escape route
97
Q

According to Bruce Siddle, the key to preventing or reducing SNS activations is:

a. Mental preparation
b. Scanning
c. Physical training
d. None of the above

A

c. Physical training

98
Q

Scenario based training a such as FIST suit drills and tactical scenarios offer mental and physical rehearsals that hard wire agent so that when the moment of truth arrives, the stimulus will not be a new one. This is known as:

a. Stress induction
b. Stimulus induction
c. Stress inoculation
d. Stimulus induction

A

c. Stress inoculation

99
Q

Which of these are not among the possible benefits of strength training:

a. Increased firearms accuracy
b. Less likely to be taken to the ground
c. Improves tactical movement
d. More powerful strikes

A

c. Improves tactical movement

Benefits:

  • stronger (less strikes required to hurt)
  • leg strength (better base, less likely to fall/be taken down)
  • grip strength (indirect benefit on firearms accuracy)
  • increased girth (more resilient to strikes, falls, etc)
100
Q

ATFs mission objective include all of these except:

a. Enforce federal laws
b. Preserve life
c. Ensure public safety
d. Assist with stabilizing the community impacted by the operation and/or critical incident

A

a. Enforce federal laws

Correct objective:
- enforce the laws within ATF’s jurisdiction

101
Q

The correct order enforcement planners should use for safety priorities when making decisions in an operation is:

a. LEOs, hostages, uninvolved civilians, subjects
b. Hostages, LEOs, uninvolved civilians, subjects
c. Hostages, uninvolved civilians, LEOs, subjects
d. Hostages, uninvolved civilians, subjects, LEOs

A

c. Hostages, uninvolved civilians, LEOs, subjects

102
Q

True/False

In the execution of a hostage rescue a LEO is shot and goes down. The team makes the correct decision and tends to the officer before moving on to the hostage.

A

False

hostage takes precedent on the safety priority hierarchy

103
Q

If an operational plan will not be completed for a search warrant, arrest warrant, undercover meeting/purchase:

a. The case agent must receive RAC/GS approval
b. The case agent must ASAC approval
c. The RAC/GS must receive ASAC approval
d. The RAC/GS must receive SAC approval

A

c. The RAC/GS must receive ASAC approval

104
Q

According to ATF policy, which of the following do NOT always require an operational plan?

a. Conducting surveillance
b. Search warrant
c. Undercover meeting
d. Arrest warrant

A

a. Conducting surveillance

**RAC/GS has authority to mandate completion of op plan for additional enforcement activity such as surveillance

105
Q

True/False

RAC must be on scene for all ATF search warrants, arrest warrants, and undercover meetings

A

True

If RAC does not intend to be there, must obtain ASAC approval

106
Q

The approving official on ATF forms 3210.7 (op plans) is:

a. DTA
b. SAC
c. ASAC
d. RAC

A

d. RAC

* DTA should be utilized to evaluate the form

107
Q

True/False

When operating as part of a task force, ATF agents are permitted to use other participating agencies’ operational plans

A

True

The RAC/GS must first review and approve of the plan and provide notification to the ASAC

108
Q

When using other agencies’ operational plans as part of a task force enforcement activity, agents should submit the op plan for approval to:

a. RAC/GS
b. SAC
c. DTA
d. The other agencies’ RAC/GS

A

a. RAC/GS

109
Q

True/false

ATF agents are prohibited from participating in other agencies’ operations if they are not a member of a task force

A

False

Agents can assist as long as they complete ATF form 3210.7 for the op plan or submit a copy of the other agencies’ briefing plan to RAC/GS for approval

110
Q

True/False

ATF agents are allowed to assist state and local authorities with operations even if the warrant doesn’t meet federal standards

A

False

Special agents can only assist state/locals on warrants in line with federal standards (Rule 41)

111
Q

The most important phase of operational planning is:

a. Rehearsal
b. Execution
c. Planning
d. Briefing

A

c. Planning

112
Q

Photographs, maps, and drawings are most likely to be utilized in the ________ stage

a. Planning
b. Briefing
c. Rehearsal
d. Execution

A

b. Briefing

113
Q

Discussions of staging vehicles, team member positions in vehicles, and equipment use are all likely to be part of the ________ stage

a. Planning
b. Briefing
c. Rehearsal
d. Execution

A

c. Rehearsal

114
Q

The stage in which a contingency plan will go into effect is:

a. Briefing
b. Execution
c. Debrief
d. Rehearsal

A

b. Execution

115
Q

Discussion of operational problems occurs in the ________ stage

a. Planning
b. Briefing
c. Rehearsal
d. Debrief

A

d. Debrief

116
Q

True/False

When completing the case background portion of an operational plan, it’s important that every detail of the case is included

A

False

They should be brief. Not just a copy and paste of your ROIs, they should be broken down to what the people in the operation need to know

117
Q

A tactical technique designed to divert the subjects attention from the actual mission is referred to as a:

a. Surprise
b. Undercover operations
c. Ruse
d. Trick

A

c. Ruse

118
Q

The tactical technique in which a perimeter containment team is formed and the subsequent initiation of contact with the occupants is designed to draw them to a controlled designated area is referred to as a:

a. Breach and limited penetration
b. Breach and delay
c. Containment and Callout
d. Ruse

A

c. Containment and Callout

119
Q

That tactical technique in which force is used to penetrate a door/window but entry to the structure is not made is referred to as:

a. Containment and Callout
b. Breach and delay
c. Breach and limited penetration
d. Dynamic movement

A

b. Breach and delay

120
Q

The tactical technique in which the entry team proceeds into a structure and holds at a controlled point is referred to as:

a. Breach and limited penetration
b. Dynamic movement
c. Covert movement
d. Breach and delay

A

a. Breach and limited penetration

**most common among ATF search warrants

121
Q

Which of the following is NOT an element of dynamic movement?

a. Speed
b. Surprise
c. Ruse
d. Command presence

A

c. Ruse

Additional to a, b, d: diversion

122
Q

True/False

Members of the cover team can assist agents inside when needed

A

False

Cover team should NEVER enter and/or shoot into a structure once entry is made

123
Q

During which phase of an operational plan should contingencies be considered?

a. Planning
b. Briefing
c. Rehearsal
d. Execution

A

a. Planning

124
Q

If a tactical team will be handling enforcement operations at more than two locations in a given day, approval is required from the:

a. SAC
b. ASAC
c. DTA
d. RAC/GS

A

a. SAC

the RAC/GS is responsible for monitoring this and ensuring his team isn’t over stretched at all times but the “more than two in a day” is a hard and fast rule and requires SAC approval.

**if it is an SRT Operation, approval of the Chief, Special Operations Division would be required

125
Q

When moving from one operation to another, the team:

a. must meet again for a new operational briefing
b. has no additional requirements
c. must rally at a staging location
d. should first discuss issues of the first operation to ensure they don’t repeat on these second

A

c. must rally at a staging location

126
Q

In the stages of mental preparedness, a relaxed level of alertness that perceives danger cues and process them quickly and accurately is representative of the _______ zone

a. Red
b. White
c. Orange
d. Yellow

A

D. Yellow

127
Q

In the stages of mental preparedness, the stage in which the battle is in progres is the _____ zone

a. Red
b. White
c. Yellow
d. Black

A

a. Red

128
Q

In the stages of mental preparedness, a heightened level of preparedness where a threat is imminent and preparations and being made to fight or flee is representative of the ________ zone

a. Yellow
b. Orange
c. White
d. Black

A

b. Orange

129
Q

If a LEO is unable to make the briefing portion of an operation:

a. He can participate as long as he is an agent
b. He can participate if he’s on SRT
c. He cannot participate in the operation
d. He can participate with RAC/GS approval

A

c. He cannot participate in the operation

From Flashcardlet (78 decks)

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