Exam 6 - Explosives Flashcards
The main goal of a post blast investigation is to:
a. Establish public safety
b. Conduct research to prevent future incidents similar in nature
c. Determine whether it’s accidental or criminal
d. Establish a motive
c. Determine whether it’s accidental or criminal
Under which scenario does ATF conduct full investigations of bombings?
a. All bombings or attempted bombings within the Bureau’s jurisdiction
b. All bombings or attempted bombings with a federal interest
c. All accidental explosions
d. All thefts and recoveries of explosives
b. All bombings or attempted bombings with a federal interest
* Also conduct full investigation of unlawful dealings in explosives for suppressing criminal trafficking of explosives materials
Which of these non-explosion investigations typically fall under the jurisdiction of the FBI?
a. Bomb threats
b. Hoax device
c. Explosives theft
d. Illegal manufacturing or dealing
a. Bomb threats
* ATF will usually still respond to determine if there is a bomb present. Once it’s determined there is no bomb, it stays with FBI.
Which of these non-explosion incidents would not warrant opening an investigation?
a. Hoax device
b. Explosives thefts
c. Mechanical failures
d. Illegal storage
c. Mechanical failures
Non explosion incidents that warrant an investigation:
- recovery of stolen and abandoned explosives
- illegal storage
- explosives theft
- illegal manufacturing or dealing
- other 18 USC 842 unlawful acts (importing, false entry)
- hoax device
- attempted bombing (recovered IED)
- bomb threats (usually FBI jurisdiction)
Which statute directs that ATF is responsible for investigation criminal and regulatory violations of federal explosives laws?
a. 18 USC 924(c)
b. 26 USC 5861
c. 28 USC 599a
d. 18 USC 844(h)
c. 28 USC 599a
The driving force of an explosives investigations:
a. Offender behavior and motive
b. Type of device
c. Elements of the crime
d. Interviews
c. Elements of the crime
Elements that are not proved = investigative lead, or no violation
Who is responsible for making device determinations?
a. EEO
b. SABT
c. Interstate Nexus expert
d. CES
a. EEO
What is the proper way to obtain certification from the National Firearms Registration and Transfer Record (NFRTR) from the NFA branch in headquarters?
a. Phone
b. Tax
c. E-request
d. All of the above are acceptable
d. All of the above are acceptable
* e-request is only available for selected SAs and IOIs
**an official document (ribbon copy) to this effect will be generated by the NFA branch, upon request for actual judicial proceedings
Which of these is not one of the three mediums determining lead agency in a bomb investigation?
a. Jurisdiction
b. Type of explosive
c. Law
d. Special agreements
b. Type of explosive
True/False
Determining offender behavior and motivations will always prove an element of an offense
False
But is the underlying cause of the offense and how it is committed, and it’s useful as judges and juries generally like to know answers as to why and how it was done
Who acts to de-conflict jurisdictional issues between FBI and ATF if it cannot be resolved at the field office or divisional level?
a. Department of Homeland Security
b. US Postal Service
c. National Explosives Task Force
d. ATF can override the FBI
c. National Explosives Task Force
Explosions where terrorism is presumed to be the motive fall under the jurisdiction of:
a. ATF
b. USPS
c. DHS
d. FBI
d. FBI
Upon discovering an attempted bombing (recovered IED) the first step of a responding agent should be:
a. Notify FBI and JSOC
b. Identify potential hazards such as secondary devices
c. Interview complainant and/or others with possible knowledge
d. Contact bomb techs or EEOs to render device safe
d. Contact bomb techs or EEOs to render device safe
ATF’s legal authority to inspect the site of any accident or fire in which there is reason to believe explosive materials were involved is given by:
a. Title 18 USC 844
b. Title 18 USC 846
c. Title 18 USC 3051
d. Title 18 USC 842
b. Title 18 USC 846
How should a report of a hoax device be handled?
a. Send an IOI to document the incident
b. Treated as an actual IED until appropriate personnel have examined it
c. Passed over to the FBI
d. Evaluated by responding agent to determine if it’s worth having an EEO or bomb tech come on scene
b. Treated as an actual IED until appropriate personnel have examined it
During which type of explosion would it be important to develop a thorough knowledge of suspects and their activities before, during, and after the incident?
a. Accidental
b. Mechanical
c. Chemical
d. Criminal
d. Criminal
During which type of explosion investigation would you look for evidence of causation?
a. Accidental
b. IED
c. Criminal
d. Hoax device
a. Accidental
During which type of explosion investigation would it be important to obtain technical recommendations regarding precautions for future purposes?
a. Criminal
b. Non-explosion
c. Accidental
d. Chemical
c. Accidental
Among the CES’ mandatory requirements, they must complete explosives recertification every:
a. Year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
b. 2 years
The ATF’s primary asset for responding to and investigating explosives-related incidents:
a. EEO
b. CES
c. SABT
d. ESC
b. CES
A SABTs investigations and activities are directed by:
a. SAC
b. ETB
c. RAC
d. ESC
a. SAC
True/False
In court, destructive device determinations are made by a certified SABT
False
ETB will provide determinations on destructive devices. SABTs provide testimony on all other explosives related matters
Under which of these explosion scenarios would a SIR not always be required?
a. Hoax device
b. Fatality
c. Significant loss of explosives
d. Prohibited person in possession
a. Hoax device
SIR required:
- explosives incidents with fatalities
- explosives thefts
- significant loss of explosives
- explosives found in possession of a prohibited person
- an incident which may bring a lot of publicity to ATF
Who manages the EEO program?
a. NCETR
b. FTB
c. ETB
d. JSOC
c. ETB
Which of these is not certified to demonstrate or destroy explosives?
a. EEO
b. SABT
c. ESC
d. CES
c. ESC
Destruction of explosives materials requires approval of:
a. RAC
b. AUSA
c. SAC
d. Chief, ETB
c. SAC
* AUSA approval also required if evidentiary material is involved
True/False
CES’ may conduct render safe procedures or dismantle any manufactured or improvised destructive device for public safety purposes
False
SABTs and EEOs, as well as military EOD and local bomb techs, can for public safety, CES’ can’t do shit
During a demonstration or destruction of explosives, how many qualified persons must be present?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
b. 2
Two categories of explosive waste are:
a. Chemical and biological
b. Biological and radiological
c. Hazardous and non-hazardous
d. Immediate safety threat and non-immediate safety threat
d. Immediate safety threat and non-immediate safety threat
* with non-immediate, 90 days to dispose of after disposal order signed
Who solicits candidates for Explosives Specialist Candidacy training?
a. SAC, NCETR
b. CES Program Manager
c. ETB Program Manager
d. SABTs
b. CES Program Manager
* special agent applies through GS/RAC and SAC, who submit to CES Program Manager
**ESC candidate must be GS-13 with at least 5 years experience (exceptions for those with military EOD experience, combat engineer, stage or local bomb tech., etc), and must have investigated federal explosives cases with a high evaluation record
______________ approves what explosives can be manufactured or imported into the U.S
a. ATF
b. DOT
c. FBI
d. DHS
b. DOT
A non-licensed manufacturer makes M-80’s and transports them to a non-licensed retailer. After receiving them, the retailer distributes them to a non-licensed purchaser who then transports them home.
Under this scenario, who is guilty of 842(a)(3)(A&B) - Illegal manufacturing and dealing
a. Manufacturer
b. Retailer
c. Purchaser
d. All three are guilty
d. All three are guilty
- Transport or receive explosives, (A) 10 years
- Distribute explosives to other non-licensees/permittees, (B) 10 years
Exceptions: smokeless powder and some black powder, 845(a)
TRANSPORT, RECEIVE, DISTRIBUTE
True/False
To manufacture or deal in M-80’s, you must first receive a license from the ATF
False
ATF doesn’t issue licenses for M-80’s or higher because they are usually manufactured with approximately 50 grains of powder, making them much more dangerous than the typical < 2 grains ATF issues licenses for.
True/False
M-80’s are classified as destructive devices
False
By itself, and M-80 is designed to make noise. However, it can be redesigned to be a weapon which would make it a DD
Which of the following is an exception to 842(a), illegal manufacturing and dealing?
a. M-80s
b. Smokeless powder
c. Gun powder
d. Pipe bombs
b. Smokeless powder
* and some black powder
In order to charge 844(d) in an explosives sting operation, an ATF agent must prove:
a. Interstate/foreign commerce
b. Intent to be used in a bombing
c. Knowledge it would be used in a bombing
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Under 845(a), exceptions to the a Explosives Control Act, commercially made black powder not to exceed ____ pounds, solely for sporting, recreational, or cultural purposes in antique ignition system firearms is allowed
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100
c. 50
True/False
An M-21 training grenade body, reloaded with smokeless powder and a fuse would be considered a destructive device
True
With commercially made explosives (e.g. Dynamite and others typically used for mining, construction, etc), what must the government prove to conclude it has been redesigned as a destructive device?
a. Motive and opportunity
b. Explosives have been stolen
c. Intent to use as a weapon
d. All of the above
c. Intent to use as a weapon
Which of these is not prosecutable under 26 USC 5861, possession of a destructive device?
a. Molotov cocktail
b. Rocket launcher
c. Flash bang
d. Dynamite
d. Dynamite
It’s used for commercial purposes and mere possession is not a crime. Must prove there was intent to use the device as a weapon.
True/false
A flash bang is a destructive device
True
Designed and used as a weapon to defeat a person = DD
True/False
An ATF agent hoped to charge Billy Bob with possession of a destructive device following a finding in a search warrant. However, he couldn’t obtain a confession that it was to be used for a weapon, and there were no tacks, no nails, no other small pieces of metal, no incendiary material, no radioactive material, no poison gas, no deadly germs.
Therefore, he could not be charged with possession of a destructive device
True
This wouldn’t be a destructive device, but it would be an explosive device
Any person who intends to acquire explosives must first:
a. Obtain a license from ATF
b. Obtain a permit from ATF
c. Complete a background check
d. Be screened by the FEL
b. Obtain a permit from the ATF
* ATF uses this form to initiate a background check
True/False
There are different penalties for bomb threats, depending on whether it was an actual or false threat
False
844(e), illegal to:
a. Willfully make a [real] bomb threat, or
b. Maliciously make a false bomb threat, or make
c. Bomb threat or false bomb threat in or affecting interstate commerce, 10 years
True/False
Transporting explosives is only illegal if the explosives travel interstate
False
844(d) - illegal to transport explosive in interstate or foreign commerce to commit a bombing
842(a)(3) - illegal for individual (non licensee or non permittee) to transport explosives anywhere
____________ provides technical assistance during bombing and arson investigations as well as written determinations pertaining to the applicability of a device or its components
a. NCETR
b. BATS
c. USBDC
d. ETB
d. ETB
Also provide expert opinion in court and many participate on NRT and IRT
The person that can conduct render safe procedures and disassemble IEDs for agents in the field as well as provide written determinations on applicability of the technical aspects of a device to the law and violation that has occurred is the:
a. EEO
b. SABT
c. CES
d. CESBT
a. EEO
True/False
Explosives samples must be shipped in ATF approved boxes
False
DOT approved boxes
They should also have a 24 hour emergency response number on the shipping label
When requesting an inert explosive prop from ETB, requests should be made through your _______ to the Chief, Arson and Explosives Programs Division
a. CES
b. SAC
c. RAC
d. EEO
b. SAC
Requests should also be made at least one week in advance
When using an inert explosive prop for an undercover operation, what must be explained and fully understood by the prosecuting AUSA?
a. Props cannot be retained for evidence
b. Props have been fully cleared by an EEO
c. What the explosive the prop is representing is classified as
d. The undercover agent’s backstory
a. Props cannot be retained for evidence
They are limited in supply and can’t be held, but photos can be used in court for demonstrative evidence
Which of these is not among the qualifications necessary to be an EEO for ETB?
a. Bomb disposal experience
b. Expert testimony experience
c. Previously an ATF CES
d. Bombing investigation experience
c. Previously an ATF CES
Also:
- received initial training at either the military or civilian bomb disposal school
- military ordnance and IED experience
____________ provides investigative leads involving arson and explosive incidents to federal, state and local LEOs
a. NCETR
b. BATS
c. ETB
d. USBDC
d. USBDC
The database that connects the nation’s fire and post blast investigators with state and local bomb squads in an effort to bridge the intelligence gap by sharing info in real time
a. BATS
b. USBDC
c. Explosives tracing system
d. N-Force
a. BATS
Anyone with knowledge of an explosives loss or theft must alert the ATF within ____ hours
a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 48
c. 24
For anyone: federal misdemeanor
For an FEL: felony violation
The link between the explosives industry and law enforcement
a. BATS
b. E-Trace
c. National Explosives Tracing Center
d. USBDC
c. National Explosives Tracing Center
For nexus determinations of commercial and military explosives, you should contact:
a. CES
b. NETC
c. EEO
d. USBDC
b. NETC (National Explosives Tracing Center)
Each licensed manufacturer must include all of these markings on their explosives except:
a. Date of manufacture
b. Identity of importer
c. Location of manufacture
d. Shift of manufacture
b. Identity of importer
Identify of manufacturer
This information is known as the “Date Shift Code” and only applies to domestic commercial explosives
Which of these would require identification markings?
a. Detonator
b. Safety fuse
c. Detonating cord spool
d. Binary explosives
c. Detonating cord spool
Markings are not required on the actual cord
The number issued by the Department of Transportation to identify an explosive which has been tested and classified by the DOT is:
a. Lot Number
b. Date Shift Code
c. UN Number
d. EX Number
d. EX Number
The military equivalent of the Date Shift Code is the:
a. UN Number
b. EX Number
c. Lot Number
d. Campaign code
c. Lot Number
An alternative to the Date Shift Code, used to represent a product made under a certain run where multiple DSCs may be present
a. Campaign Code
b. EX Number
c. Lot Number
d. UN Number
a. Campaign Code
To initiate an explosive trace request, you should contact (choose all that apply)
a. USBDC
b. ETB
c. NETC
d. E-trace
a. USBDC
c. NETC
Either is fine, they can be contacted by phone (24 hours), email, fax, or through the portal
Which of these is not a key element for tracing an explosive?
a. Product size
b. Clear digital photos of markings
c. Date Shift Code/Lot Number
d. EX Number
d. EX Number
Also:
- complete product info on label
- lab analysis
- X-ray (for detonators)
A device placed in an improvised manner incorporating explosives, destructive, lethal or chemical fillers designed to destroy, disfigure, distract, or harass (intended as a weapon)
a. Mortar
b. IED
c. Mine
d. Grenade
b. IED
An IED contained or concealed within a container where the components are not visible is which type of IED?
a. Open device
b. Closed device
c. Soft cased device
d. Hard cased device
b. Closed device
An IED with no container or concealment, where all components are visible is a:
a. Open device
b. Closed device
c. Soft cased device
d. Hard cased device
a. Open device
A sophisticated device incorporating radioactive materials designed to result in the formation of nuclear-yield is a:
a. IED with biological enhancement
b. IED with chemical enhancement
c. Radiation dispersal device (RDD)
d. Improvised nuclear device (IND)
d. Improvised nuclear device (IND)
A pipe bomb placed in an airport terminal fitted with a bag of infected blood would be an example of a:
a. IED with biological enhancement
b. IED with chemical enhancement
c. Radiation dispersal device
d. Improvised nuclear device
a. IED with biological enhancement
When two chemicals come into contact to ignite/burn, this is an example of what kind of chemical reaction?
a. Acid bomb
b. Hyperbolic
c. Hypergolic
d. Combination fuzing
c. Hypergolic
Other one in study guide is:
Acid bomb - when acid, water, and aluminum are combined the reaction produces gases that cause the container to explode from pressure build up
A fuzing/firing method using just an initiator, time fuse, and explosive filler would be a(n):
a. Non-electric
b. Chemical reaction
c. Electric
d. Combination fuzing and firing system
a. Non-electric
An explosive left in a duffel bag left in an NYC subway station designed to function upon opening would be an example of which fuzing and firing method?
a. Command detonated
b. Suicide device
c. Victim operated
d. Time device
c. Victim operated
An IED designed with both an electrical fuzing system and non electric switch with a percussion primer and a trip wire for a second firing system would be a(n):
a. Electric
b. Non-electric
c. Chemical reaction
d. Combination fuzing and firing system
d. Combination fuzing and firing system