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ANA, BCHM, PHY > ⭐️ PREVMED > Flashcards

⭐️ PREVMED Flashcards

0
Q

Define mean.

A

Average, the sum of observations divided by the number of observations

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1
Q

Appropriate measure of central tendency in qualitative data such as gender, religion or nationality,

A

Mode

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2
Q

Define median.

A

Middle observation in a series of ordered observations i.e. 50th percentile

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3
Q

The observtion tht occurs with the greatest frequency

A

Mode

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4
Q

Define epidemiology

A

Studies both the DISTRIBUTION of diseases in human populations and the DETERMINANTS of the observed distribution.

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5
Q

What is the sampling unit in epidemiologic studies in the identification of causal factors?

A

A group of individuals

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6
Q

Ultimate goal of an epidemiologic investigation

A

To institute curtive, preventive, and control measures to avoid most cases

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7
Q

Study of the distribution of diseases in animals

A

Epizootiology

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8
Q

Define antigenic drift

A

Slow and provressive change in the antigenic composition of microorganisms. This alters tye immunological responses of individuals and a population’s susceptibility to that organisms.

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9
Q

Define antigenic SHIFT.

A

A sudden change in the molecular structure of a microorganism and produces new strains. This results in little or no acquired immunity to these new strains and is the ecplanation for new epidemics and pandemics.

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10
Q

____________ would result in influenza cases with high case fatality rates seen previously with this strain.

A

Vaccine failure

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11
Q

__________ would decrease the rate of infection by decreasing the probability that a susceptible person would come into contact with an infected person. This would not affect the clinical presentation of those infected.

A

Herd immunity

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12
Q

Define endemic.

A

Constant occurence

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13
Q

Define epidemic.

A

Occurence of a number of cases of disease in excess of normal occurrence of expectancy.

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14
Q

Define pandemic.

A

Epidemic involving many countries.

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15
Q

Also called a prospective study

A

Cohort

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16
Q

Refers to the group of subjects who are followed forward in time to see which ones develop the outcome

A

Cohort

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17
Q

Prospective studies in which an intervention is supplied

A

Clinical trials

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18
Q

Also known as a retrospective study

A

Case control study

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19
Q

Bias usually found in case control studies

A

Recall bias

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20
Q

Exposures and outcomes are measured at the same point in time

A

Cross sectional study

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21
Q

Name the type of study.

Clinical characteristic or outcome from a single clinical event or subject (n=1)

A

Case report

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22
Q

Following a prison inmate population and marking the development of MDRTB.

Name the type of study.

A

Cohort

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23
Q

A 23 year old man with MDRTB.

Name the type of study.

A

Case report

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24
Q

Name the type of study.

Clinical characteristic or outcome from a group of clinical subjects or events (n>1)

A

Case series

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25
Q

Patients in a local hospital with MDRTB.

Name the type of study.

A

Case series

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26
Q

Population group exposed to a risk factor is followed over time compared with a group not exposed to the risk factors.

Name the type of study.

A

Cohort

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27
Q

Can determine incidence and causal relationships if there is a statistical association between risk factor and disease.

Name the type of study.

A

Cohort

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28
Q

Control group is the population at risk vs. population not at risk.

A

Cohort

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29
Q

Prevalence study

A

Cross-sectional

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30
Q

Who in the community now has MDRTB?

Name the type of study.

A

Cross-sectional

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31
Q

Determines in each member of the population the presence or absence of a disease and other variables at one point in time.

Name the type of study.

A

Cross-sectional

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32
Q

Causality cannot usually be determined.

Name the type of study.

A

Cross-sectional

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33
Q

Comparing cases of MDRTB with cases of non-resistant TB.

Name the type of study.

A

Case-control

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34
Q

Assesses many risk factors for disease.

Name the type of study.

A

Case-control

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35
Q

Cannot assess incidence and prevalence of disease.

Name the type of study.

A

Case-control

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36
Q

Weakest because outcome has already happened.

Name the type of study.

A

Case-control

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37
Q

A new screening test is applied to a representative sample of 1,000 people in the population. Based on the data presented in the following table, calculate the requested screening test measures:

Diseased (pos=90 neg =10)
Well (pos=60 neg=840)

Sensitivity?

A

90/100 [true pos/total disease]

90%

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38
Q

A new screening test is applied to a representative sample of 1,000 people in the population. Based on the data presented in the following table, calculate the requested screening test measures:

Diseased (pos=90 neg =10)
Well (pos=60 neg=840)

Specificity?

A

840/900 [true negative/total number without disease]

93%

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39
Q

A new screening test is applied to a representative sample of 1,000 people in the population. Based on the data presented in the following table, calculate the requested screening test measures:

Diseased (pos=90 neg =10)
Well (pos=60 neg=840)

Positive predictive value?

A

90/150 [how many diseased among positives?]

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40
Q

Define prevalence.

A

Total number of cases in a population at a given time. (Old and nee, for chronic conditions)

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41
Q

Define incidence.

A

Number of new cases in a population per unit time. Incidence is new incidents. (For acute conditions)

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42
Q

Define sensitivity.

A

Number of true positives divided by the number of people with disease.

Mnemonics: PID Positive in disease; SNOUT sensitivity rules out

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43
Q

Define specificity

A

Number of true negatives divided by the number of people without the disease.

Mnemonics: NIH Negative in health: SPIN Specificity rules in

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44
Q

High sensitivity is desirable for which type of test?

A

Screening test to rule out

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45
Q

High specificity is desirable for which type of test?

A

Confirmatory test to rule in

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46
Q

Define positive predictive value

A

Number of true positives divided by the number of people who tested positive for the disease.

The probability of having a condition given a positive test

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47
Q

Define negative predictive value.

A

Number of true negatives divided by the number of people who tested negative for the disease.

The probability of not having the condition given a negative test

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48
Q

The most important factor for the development of breast cancer is

A

Age

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49
Q

Is smoking a major risk factor for breast CA?

A

No

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50
Q

Population affected by appendicitis? Age and sex

A

20 to 30s and equal among males and females

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51
Q

Most common site of nosocomial infections?

A

GU tract

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52
Q

Arrange the following nosocomial infections from highest incidenc e to lowest:

SSI RTI Septicemia UTI

A

UTI SSRI RTI Septicemia

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53
Q

A methylxanthine related to theophylline which is a low potency bronchodilator

A

Caffeine

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54
Q

Most common cause of cobalamin deficiency in temperate climates

A

Pernicious anemia

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55
Q

Hypercholesterolemia is associated with increased risk for gallstone formation. True or false.

A

False

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56
Q

Exposure to sulfur dioxide causes

A

Irritation of mucus membranes

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57
Q

Exposure to mercury causes

A

Intention tremor, delirium.

Use of mercury in felt hats led to the phrase “mad as a hatter”

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58
Q

Exposure to lead causes

A

Peripheral neuropathy and ataxia

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59
Q

Exposure to nitrous oxide causes

A

Similar to neuropathy in pernicious anemia

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60
Q

A fibrosing lung disease usually due to chronic occupational exposure to air with particulate matter

A

Pneumoconiosis

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61
Q

Byssinoisis is

A

A form of pneumoconiosis from textile, cotton, or flax

62
Q

The most serious manifestation of lead intoxication is

A

Cerebral edema

63
Q

Cerebral edema is often noted with blood lead levels exceeding

A

100 ug/dl

64
Q

Hutchinson’s teeth is associated with

A

Congenital syphilis

65
Q

5 b’s of congenital rubella syndrome

A

Bulag, bingi, bobo, butas, blueberry muffin baby

66
Q

Most prevalent mental health disorder in children

A

Behavioral problems

67
Q

Behavioral problems such as ADD and learning disabilities occur in how many percent of children?

A

10%

68
Q

Autism occurs in how many percent of children?

A

0.05%

69
Q

Mental retardation occurs in how many percent of children?

A

1%

70
Q

The mother is more commonly the abuser perhaps because of the greater contact with the child. True or false.

A

True

71
Q

Time from infection to a positive tuberculin skin test

A

2-8 weeks

72
Q

Define immunogenicity.

A

Ability of a microbe or purified antigen to induce specific antibody production in a host as a result of infection or immunization.

73
Q

Define pathogenicity.

A

Capacity of a microbe to cause symptomatic illness in an infected host

74
Q

Defien virulence

A

Severity of the illness produced by a microbe; measure by percentage of severe or fatal cases

75
Q

Define contagiousness

A

Ability of a microbe to spread in a population of exposed susceptible persons

76
Q

Single most important preventive measure against diseases?

A

Water sanitation

77
Q

This test is done as a prenatal test for people at high risk for thalassemia or sickle cell anemia

A

Electrophoresis

78
Q

This prenatal test is done for women with uncertain menstrual histories or risk of IUGR

A

UTZ

79
Q

RA 10152

A

Mandatory infants and children health immunization act of 2011

80
Q

Why is gonorrhea treated with oral tetracycline for 7 days rather than ampicillin plus probenecid at one time?

A

Better coverage for chlamydia trachomatis

81
Q

Tetracycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Which alternative drug will you give?

A

Azithromycin

82
Q

Cut off age for tetracycline and fluoroquinolones

A

Tetracycline -8

Fluoroquinolones -18

83
Q

Prevention of human brucellosis depends on

A

Pasteurization of dairy products derived from goats, sheeps or cattle

84
Q

Effective means of preventing trichinosis in humans

A

Prohibiting marketing of garbage fed hogs

85
Q

Thorough cooking at temperature at least ____ helps in the control of trichinella spiralis

A

77 C

86
Q

Absolute indication for a pap smear

A

Sexual activity

87
Q

Signs of vitamin c deficiency

A

Petechiae, sore gums, hematuria, bone, and joint pain

88
Q

Signs of niacin deficiency

A

Dermatitis, diarrhea, delirium

89
Q

Signs of thiamine deficiency

A

Edema, neuropathy, myocardial failure

90
Q

Signs of vitamin A deficiency

A

Xerosis conjunctivae, hyperkeratosis, and keratomalacia

91
Q

Effect of calcium deficiency

A

Poor mineralization of bones and teeth, osteoporosis

92
Q

Effect of sodium deficiency

A

Nausea, diarrhea, muscle cramps, dehydration

93
Q

Effect of fluorine deficiency

A

Tendency of dental caries

94
Q

Effect of zinc deficiency

A

Dwarfism, hepatosplenomegaly, poor wound healing

95
Q

Most common cause of cobalamin deficiency in temperate climates

A

Pernicious anemia

96
Q

Hypercholesterolemia is associated with increased risk for gallstone formation. True or false.

A

False

97
Q

Exposure to sulfur dioxide causes

A

Irritation of mucus membranes

98
Q

Exposure to mercury causes

A

Intention tremor, delirium.

Use of mercury in felt hats led to the phrase “mad as a hatter”

99
Q

Exposure to lead causes

A

Peripheral neuropathy and ataxia

100
Q

Exposure to nitrous oxide causes

A

Similar to neuropathy in pernicious anemia

101
Q

A fibrosing lung disease usually due to chronic occupational exposure to air with particulate matter

A

Pneumoconiosis

102
Q

Byssinoisis is

A

A form of pneumoconiosis from textile, cotton, or flax

103
Q

The most serious manifestation of lead intoxication is

A

Cerebral edema

104
Q

Cerebral edema is often noted with blood lead levels exceeding

A

100 ug/dl

105
Q

Hutchinson’s teeth is associated with

A

Congenital syphilis

106
Q

5 b’s of congenital rubella syndrome

A

Bulag, bingi, bobo, butas, blueberry muffin baby

107
Q

Most prevalent mental health disorder in children

A

Behavioral problems

108
Q

Behavioral problems such as ADD and learning disabilities occur in how many percent of children?

A

10%

109
Q

Autism occurs in how many percent of children?

A

0.05%

110
Q

Mental retardation occurs in how many percent of children?

A

1%

111
Q

The mother is more commonly the abuser perhaps because of the greater contact with the child. True or false.

A

True

112
Q

Time from infection to a positive tuberculin skin test

A

2-8 weeks

113
Q

Define immunogenicity.

A

Ability of a microbe or purified antigen to induce specific antibody production in a host as a result of infection or immunization.

114
Q

Define pathogenicity.

A

Capacity of a microbe to cause symptomatic illness in an infected host

115
Q

Defien virulence

A

Severity of the illness produced by a microbe; measure by percentage of severe or fatal cases

116
Q

Define contagiousness

A

Ability of a microbe to spread in a population of exposed susceptible persons

117
Q

Single most important preventive measure against diseases?

A

Water sanitation

118
Q

This test is done as a prenatal test for people at high risk for thalassemia or sickle cell anemia

A

Electrophoresis

119
Q

This prenatal test is done for women with uncertain menstrual histories or risk of IUGR

A

UTZ

120
Q

RA 10152

A

Mandatory infants and children health immunization act of 2011

121
Q

Why is gonorrhea treated with oral tetracycline for 7 days rather than ampicillin plus probenecid at one time?

A

Better coverage for chlamydia trachomatis

122
Q

Tetracycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Which alternative drug will you give?

A

Azithromycin

123
Q

Cut off age for tetracycline and fluoroquinolones

A

Tetracycline -8

Fluoroquinolones -18

124
Q

Prevention of human brucellosis depends on

A

Pasteurization of dairy products derived from goats, sheeps or cattle

125
Q

Effective means of preventing trichinosis in humans

A

Prohibiting marketing of garbage fed hogs

126
Q

Thorough cooking at temperature at least ____ helps in the control of trichinella spiralis

A

77 C

127
Q

Absolute indication for a pap smear

A

Sexual activity

128
Q

Signs of vitamin c deficiency

A

Petechiae, sore gums, hematuria, bone, and joint pain

129
Q

Signs of niacin deficiency

A

Dermatitis, diarrhea, delirium

130
Q

Signs of thiamine deficiency

A

Edema, neuropathy, myocardial failure

131
Q

Signs of vitamin A deficiency

A

Xerosis conjunctivae, hyperkeratosis, and keratomalacia

132
Q

Effect of calcium deficiency

A

Poor mineralization of bones and teeth, osteoporosis

133
Q

Effect of sodium deficiency

A

Nausea, diarrhea, muscle cramps, dehydration

134
Q

Effect of fluorine deficiency

A

Tendency of dental caries

136
Q

Effect of zinc deficiency

A

Dwarfism, hepatosplenomegaly, poor wound healing

137
Q

Fundamental to the detection of TB infectious cases

and is recommended for case finding among adults and children who can expectorate.

A

Direct sputum smear microscopy

138
Q

Definitive diagnosis of active TB

A

Direct sputum smear microscopy

139
Q

Benefit of CXR in TB diagnosis

A

Complement bacteriologic testing in making a diagnosis. However, it has low specificity and does not differentiate drug-susceptible from drug-resistant disease.

140
Q

Routine diagnostic test for drug-resistant TB

A

TB culture and drug susceptibility test (DST)

141
Q

Basic screening tool for TB infection among children

A

Tuberculin skin test (TST)

142
Q

Time from collection of fi rst sputum sample to initiation of treatment for TB

A

Turnaround time

Desired: 5 days

143
Q

Define presumptive TB

A

Any person whether adult or child with signs and/or symptoms suggestive of TB whether pulmonary or extra-pulmonary, or those with CXR findings suggestive of active TB

144
Q

Define Presumptive Drug Resistant TB

A

Any person whether adult or child, who
belongs to any of the DR-TB high-risk groups, such as: re-treatment cases, new TB cases that are contacts of confirmed DR-TB cases or non-converter of Category I, and
people living with HIV with signs and symptoms of TB

145
Q

Define TB Exposure

A

A condition in which an individual is in close contact with an active adult TB case, but without any signs and symptoms of TB, with negative TST reaction, and no radiologic and laboratory findings suggestive of TB.

146
Q

Define latent TB or TB infection (LTBI)

A

A condition in which an individual has no signs and symptoms presumptive of TB nor radiologic or laboratory evidence, but has a positive TST reaction.

147
Q

Define TB disease.

A

A presumptive TB who after clinical and diagnostic evaluation is confirmed to have TB.

148
Q

Classification of TB based on anatomical site

A

Pulmonary and Extrapulmonary TB

149
Q

A patient with both pulmonary and extra-pulmonary TB should be classified as a case of

A

pulmonary TB

150
Q

Classification of TB based on bacteriologic status

A

Bacteriologically confirmed and clinically diagnosed

151
Q

What is the definition of a clinically diagnosed TB disease?

A

A patient with two (2) sputum specimens negative for
AFB or MTB, or with smear not done due to specified
conditions but with radiographic abnormalities
consistent with active TB;

and there has been no response to a course of empiric antibiotics and/ or symptomatic medications; and who has been decided (either by the physician and/or TBDC) to
have TB disease requiring a full course of anti-TB
chemotherapy

152
Q

What is the definition of a clinically diagnosed TB disease in children?

A

A child (less than 15 years old) with two (2) sputum
specimens negative for AFB or with smear not done,
who fulfills three (3) of the five (5) criteria for disease
activity

(i.e., signs and symptoms suggestive of TB,
exposure to an active TB case, positive tuberculin
test, abnormal chest radiograph suggestive of TB, and
other laboratory findings suggestive of tuberculosis);

and who has been decided (either by the physician
and/or TBDC) to have TB disease requiring a full
course of anti-TB chemotherapy

153
Q

Definition of a TB retreatment case

A

A patient who has been previously treated with anti-TB

drugs for at least one (1) month in the past.

154
Q

Differentiate monoresistant vs. polyresistant vs. multi-drug resistant TB vs extensively drug resistant TB

A

a. Monoresistant-TB – Resistance to one fi rst-line anti-TB drug only.
b. Polydrug-resistant TB – Resistance to more than one fi rst-line anti-TB drug (other than both Isoniazid and Rifampicin).
c. Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) – Resistance to at least both Isoniazid and Rifampicin.
d. Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB) – Resistance to any fluoroquinolone and to at least one of three second-line injectable drugs (Capreomycin, Kanamycin and Amikacin), in addition to multidrug resistance.

ANA, BCHM, PHY (23 decks)

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