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Semester 4 > Head And Neck Session 3 > Flashcards

Head And Neck Session 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the facial skeleton arise from?

A

Neural crest cell infiltration of the mesenchyme core of PA1

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2
Q

Where do the muscles of mastication originate from?

A

Mesoderm of PA1

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3
Q

Where do the muscles of facial expression arise from?

A

Mesoderm of PA2

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4
Q

What are neural crest cells?

A

Specialised population of cells that originate in the neuroectoderm upon induction by the neural tube (4th germ lineage)

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5
Q

What happens to neural crest cells at the lateral border after being induced by the neural tube?

A

Displace and ente mesoderm instead of becoming CNS. Then migrate throughout body to give rise to many structures

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6
Q

What are the external features that derive from the FNP?

A

Forehead, bridge of nose, nose and philtrum

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7
Q

What is located at the base of the stomatodeum?

A

Buccopharyngeal membrane

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8
Q

What is the external feature that derives from the stomatodeum?

A

Oral fissure

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9
Q

Where do the cheeks, lateral upper jaw and lip derive from?

A

Maxillary prominence of PA1

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10
Q

What arises from the mandibular prominence of PA1?

A

Lower lip and jaw

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11
Q

Describe the process of formation of the nose.

A

Nose placodes appear on FNP and sink to form nasal pits –> medial and lateral prominences on either side of pit are pushed together by maxillary prominence moving medially –> maxillary fuse with medial nasal –> medial prominences fuse in the midline

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12
Q

What does fusion of the medial nasal prominences create?

A

Intermaxillary segment consisting of labial component, philtrum, upper jaw, 4 incisors and primary palate

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13
Q

What is the main part of the definitive palate?

A

Secondary palate

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14
Q

Where is the secondary palate derived from?

A

Palatial shelves of maxillary prominences

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15
Q

How is the secondary palate formed?

A

Palatal shelves grow vertically downwards into oral cavity either side of tongue –> mandible enlarges –> tongue drops –> palatal shelves fuse in the midline

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16
Q

What initially separates the nasal pit and oral cavity but quickly degenerates?

A

Oronasal membrane

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17
Q

How does the nasal septum form?

A

Mid-line down growth that fuses with palatal shelves

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18
Q

What is the cause of lateral cleft lip?

A

Failure of fusion of medial nasal prominence and maxillary prominence

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19
Q

What is the cause of lateral cleft lip involving the primary palate?

A

Failure of fusion of medial nasal prominence and maxillary prominence

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20
Q

What is the cause of cleft lip and cleft palate?

A

Failure of fusion of medial nasal prominence and maximally prominence combined with failure of palatal shelves to meet in the midline

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21
Q

What are the consequences of cleft lip and left palate?

A

Difficulty suckling and with speech

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22
Q

What is the fate of the FNP?

A

Forehead, bridge of nose and medial and lateral nasal prominences

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23
Q

What is the fate of the medial nasal prominence?

A

Philtrum, primary palate and mid upper jaw

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24
Q

What is the fate of the lateral nasal prominence?

A

Sides of the nose

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25
Q

What is the fate of the maxillary prominence?

A

Cheeks, lateral upper lip, secondary palate and lateral upper jaw

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26
Q

What is the fate of the mandibular prominence?

A

Lower jaw and lip

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27
Q

When does development of the eyes begin?

A

In the 4th week at the3-vesical brain stage

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28
Q

How do the eyes develop?

A

Forebrain pouches grow outwards –> met overlying ectoderm (optic placodes) –> optic placode invaginates and pinches off

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29
Q

What forms the lens of the eye in the developed foetus?

A

Optic placodes

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30
Q

Where does the retina derive from?

A

Diencephalon (forebrain) as part of the optic vesicle

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31
Q

What transforms to give the optic nerve?

A

Optic stalk

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32
Q

What causes humans to have binocular vision?

A

Growth of facial prominences pushing eye primordia from the side of the head to the front of the face

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33
Q

What do all common chromosomal abnormalities have associated anomalies with?

A

External ear

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34
Q

What arises in the neck to form the external ear?

A

External auditory meatus from 1st pharyngeal cleft and auricles from proliferation of PA1&2 surrounding meatus

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35
Q

What causes ascension of the ears from the neck to be in line with the eyes on the sides of the head?

A

Mandible growth

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36
Q

How is the inner ear formed?

A

Otic placodes invaginate to form auditory vesicles and membranous labyrinth forms cochlea and semi-lunar canal system

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37
Q

What is foetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Exposure of the developing foetus to alcohol causing disruption to neural crest cell migration and brain development causing characteristic facial features and severe restriction of cognitive development

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38
Q

What is alcohol-related neurodevelopment disorder (ARND)?

A

CNS, behavioural and learning dysfunction due to alcohol exposure in utero without characteristic facial features of FAS

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39
Q

What are the characteristic facial features seen in FAS?

A 
Short palpebral fissure lengths
Smooth philtrum
Thin upper lip
Short, upturned nose
Microcephaly
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40
Q

What is the incidence of FAS and ARND?

A

1 in 100 births

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41
Q

What drives development of the face?

A

Expansion of the cranial neural tube, appearance of complex tissue systems, development of sense organs and need to separate resp from GI tracts

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42
Q

What is the function of the cervical spine?

A

Support skull, allow a large range of movement, provide passage for descending nerves

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43
Q

What type of curvature does the cervical spine have?

A

Secondary

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44
Q

What ligaments support the cervical spine?

A 
Anterior and posterior longitudinal
Ligamentum flavum
Interslinous ligament
Nuchal ligament
Transverse ligament of atlas
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45
Q

Where are the anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments positioned?

A

Along bodies and discs of the vertebral column

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46
Q

What does the ligamentum flavum connect?

A

Laminae of adjacent vertebrae along length of vertebral column

47
Q

What does the inter spinous ligament connect?

A

Adjacent spinous processes along length of vertebral column

48
Q

Describe the nuchal ligament.

A

Continuation of supraspinous ligament to C1-7 spinous tips giving attachment for rhomboids and trapezius

49
Q

What does the transverse ligament of atlas connect?

A

Lateral masses of atlas to anchor dens in place

50
Q

What are the characteristic features of C1?

A

No body, no spinous process

51
Q

Where does the vertebral artery pass in relation to C1?

A

Through groove, not transverse foramen

52
Q

What movement of the head does C1 facilitate?

A

Nodding

53
Q

What movement of the head does C2 facilitate?

A

Shaking

54
Q

What are the characteristics of C2?

A

Dens/odontoid peg and bifilar spinous process

55
Q

Why do cervical vertebrae have characteristic large vertebral foramen?

A

For passage of the vertebral artery

56
Q

What are the characteristic features of C7?

A

Prominent, easily palpable non-bifid spinous process and large transverse process

57
Q

Where do the vertebral artery, vein and nerves run in relation to C7?

A

Vertebral artery around vertebra, vein and nerves pass through the foramen

58
Q

Which ligaments are unique to the cervical spine?

A

Nuchal and transverse ligament of atlas

59
Q

Which 3 lines of reference can be used to see if the cervical vertebrae are in alignment?

A

Anterior vertebral bodies
Posterior vertebral bodies
Spinolaminar

60
Q

What forms the spinolaminar line?

A

Point at which the spinous process and lamina fuse

61
Q

What is Jefferson’s fracture?

A

Vertical fall on extended neck –> compression of lateral masses between occipital condyles and axis causing fracture of anterior and poster arches

62
Q

Why is spinal cord damage at C1 level unlikely in burst/Jefferson fracture?

A

Large vertebral foramen

63
Q

What is hangman’s fracture?

A

Hyperextension of head and neck –> compression of spinal cord and lower brainstem

64
Q

What is the definition of the skull?

A

Cranium and mandible formed by 22 discrete flat bones joined by fibrous joints (sutures) with the only moveable joint being the TMJ

65
Q

What can the cranium be divided into?

A

Clavarium (roof) and cranial base

66
Q

Which bones form the calvarium?

A

Frontal
Occipital
2 parietal bones

67
Q

Which bones form the cranial base?

A 
Frontal
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Occipital
Parietal
Temporal
68
Q

What is the purpose of them many foramina present in the skull?

A

Allow entry of sensory nerves, arterial supply to the brain and meninges, sympathetic fibres and venous blood.
Allow exit of cranial motor nerves, PS outflow, veins and lymph

69
Q

What is the cribiform plate?

A

Part of ethmoid bone at top of nasal sinuses with lots of foramina allowing passage of CNI

70
Q

What is the optic foramen?

A

Located at the back of the eye socket allowing passage of CNII

71
Q

What is the superior orbital fissure?

A

At the rear of the eye socket in the sphenoid bone allows passage of CNIII, IV and V

72
Q

What is the foramen rotundum?

A

Opening in the middle of the skull allowing passage of CNV maxillary branch

73
Q

What is the foramen ovale?

A

Opening in the base of the skull that allows passage of the mandibular branch of CNV

74
Q

What is the stylomastoid foramen?

A

Opening at the base of the skull allowing passage of CNVIII

75
Q

What is the hypoglossal canal?

A

Opening at the base of the skull in the occipital bone allowing passage of CNXII

76
Q

What is the jugular foramen?

A

Opening at the base of the skull bounded by the temporal and occipital bones allowing passage of CNIX, X and XI

77
Q

What is the contents of the foramen magnum?

A

Medulla oblongata, meninges, spinal roots of accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments

78
Q

Why is the cranial floor likely to fracture in high energy impact to the head?

A

Foramina weaken it

79
Q

What are the functions of the skull?

A

Enclose and protect brain and special sense organs, creates cranial cavity and provide site of attachment for muscles and meninges

80
Q

What forms the meninges?

A

Periosteal layer of dura mater

81
Q

Where is the cranium thick?

A

Occipital and frontal bones

82
Q

What are the layers of the cranium?

A

Inner plate of cortical bone, middle layer of spongy bone (diploe), outer compact bone layer

83
Q

What are the cavities of the skull?

A

Orbit, cranial cavity, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, oral cavity, auditory canal

84
Q

Describe the structure of the mandible.

A

L&R mandibles joined by midline fibrous joint called the mental symphysis

85
Q

What is found at the mental symphysis?

A

Many foramina

86
Q

What does the condylar process of the mandible articulate with?

A

Skull

87
Q

What are the three divisions of the cranial fossa/floor/base and what do they contain?

A

Anterior: CNI and part of CNII
Middle: CNII-VII
Posterior: CNVII-XII

88
Q

What are the three lines that divide the calvaria?

A

Coronal suture line, sagittal suture line and lamboid suture line

89
Q

What is bregma?

A

Point of intersection of the coronal and sagittal suture lines

90
Q

What is lambda?

A

Point of intersection of sagittal and lamboid suture lines

91
Q

What does the frontal bone form?

A

Anterior part of skull vault, upper border of orbital margins and orbit roof

92
Q

Where is the ethmoid bone found?

A

Midline of anterior cranial fossa

93
Q

What gives the ethmoid bone a serrated appearance?

A

Passage of olfactory nerve fibres

94
Q

What can fracture of the ethmoid bone lead to?

A

Anosmia

95
Q

What are the notable features of the ethmoid bone?

A

Cribiform plate, crista galli, ethmoid bulla, ethmoid air cells

96
Q

Where are the olfactory bulbs located?

A

Either side of crista galli

97
Q

What are the components of the sphenoid bone?

A

Central body, greater wing, lesser wing and pterygoid process

98
Q

Where is the sphenoid bone located?

A

Upper nasal cavity associated with the pituitary and hypothalamus

99
Q

What does the body of the sphenoid bone form?

A

All of the median middle cranial fossa

100
Q

What are the notable features of the sphenoid body?

A

Optic groove, tuberallum sellae, sella turcica, dorsum sellae with posterior clinoid process, clivus

101
Q

What does the parietal bone form?

A

Large part of side and roof of the cranial cavity

102
Q

What does the internal surface of the parietal bone have?

A

Grooves of MMA, sagittal sulcus, granular pits from CSF valves and grooves for the sigmoid sinus

103
Q

What are the 6 parts of the temporal bone?

A

Squamous, mastoid, tympanic, styloid process, zygomatic process and petrous part

104
Q

What is the importance of the temporal bone?

A

Senses of hearing and balance and passage of the facial nerve

105
Q

Which part of the temporal bone is involved in the inner auditory meatus?

A

Petrous part

106
Q

What are the four parts of the occipital bone found around the foramen magnum?

A

Squamous, L&R condylar and basilar

107
Q

What do each of the four parts of the occipital bone form?

A

Squamous: posterior vault
L&R condylar: edges of foramen magnum
Basilar: anterior foramen magnum

108
Q

What holds together bones in the neonatal skull?

A

Thick CT matrix

109
Q

Why are the bones of the skull not joined by sutures in the neonate?

A

To allow for movement of the cranial bones during the birthing process

110
Q

Why does the neonatal skull not collapse during the child birth process?

A

Serrated bone edges temporarily interlock

111
Q

What is the risk to the neonatal skull in pre-term birth?

A

Sutures too wide therefore no interlocking of bones causing high probability of brain damage during the normal birthing process

112
Q

What are bregma and lambda known as in the neonatal skull?

A

Anterior and posterior fontanelles

113
Q

Are the proportions between the cranium and facial skeleton the same in the neonate and adult?

A

No

114
Q

How many bones articulate to form the facial skeleton?

A

14

Semester 4 (33 decks)

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