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1

10. Regarding “Rear Tenements” it would be incorrect to state?

Select one:

a. Raising ladders at the rear tenement may be a problem

b. The distance between the front and rear building is usually 10-25 feet 

c. They are all of Class 3, Non-Fireproof construction

d. They range from 2-5 stories

(MDs 4.8.8) Frame Class 4 or NFP Class 3

The correct answer is: They are all of Class 3, Non-Fireproof construction

2

09. Regarding SRO’s in Old Law Tenements, it is incorrect to state?

Select one:

a. The sprinkler system cannot be supplied by the FDNY 

b. They require sprinklers in each room and in the stairway

c. The sprinkler system is supplied only by a roof tank

d. They require an interior alarm system

MDs 4.8.4) The sprinkler system is supplied only by a roof tank

The correct answer is: The sprinkler system is supplied only by a roof tank

3

08. Units with Positive Pressure Fans (PPF) should start the fans weekly at MUD and allow the fans to run at full RPM for _________ minutes.

Select one:

a. 15 

b. 10

c. 5

d. 20

5

4

56. Sprinkler siameses should be supplied when sprinklers are located in the?

Select one:

a. Fire area only

b. Area adjacent to the fire area only 

c. Fire area or adjacent area

(MDs 6.27.6)

The correct answer is: Fire area or adjacent area

5

77. Where the fire apartment door is found closed on arrival and window failure has not occurred, but sizeup indicates wind conditions exist, which tactic(s) should be implemented prior to entry into the fire apartment?

Select one or more:

a. A WCD should be in position above, ready for immediate deployment 

b. A hose line can be advanced to and charged at the fire apartment door 

c. A WCD may be deployed over an intact window on the orders of the Ladder Officer 

d. The IC shall assign a member with a TIC to scan the windows of the fire apartment 

e. A High Rise Nozzle should be ordered to the apartment on the floor below 

ab de 

6

02. Apartment houses built after 1929 required firewalls to (Which choice(s) are correct)?

Select one or more:

a. The underside of the roof boards from 1930-1940 

b. The top of the roof boards after 1940 

c. Enclose floor areas and the cockloft to 3000 square feet or less

abc

7

04. Regarding vacant building markings, it would be incorrect to state that?

Select one:

a. All vacant buildings shall be marked with an "X" symbol inside of a square

b. Primary markings shall be made above the front entrance

c. Additional markings may be made at other places like roof bulkheads or windows on fire escapes 

d. The square should be approximately 18” x 18”

The correct answer is: Primary markings shall be made above the front entrance

8

When placing the ladder to the roof, extend the ladder so that the tip is at least how many feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building?

Select one:

a. 3

b. 5

c. 10

d. 2 

Feedback

(Lad. 2, 7.13)

5

9

Choose an incorrect answer regarding mutual exchanges of partial or full vacation periods.

Select one:

a. Mutual exchanges must be between full duty members currently working the two platoon system in field units

b. All vacation periods shall begin and end at either 0900 or 1800 hours on dates specified in vacation schedules.

c. Not more than one application involving either member shall be made in one calendar year.

d. A 5th or 6th grade firefighter may exchange vacation only with another firefighter of either 5th or 6th grade. 

((Regs 17.7.11) All vacation periods shall begin and end at 0900 hours

The correct answer is: All vacation periods shall begin and end at either 0900 or 1800 hours on dates specified in vacation schedules.

10

The operation, shutdown or change of any building system shall not be done by the Systems Control Unit without the permission of the IC or which choice below?

Select one:

a. The Logistics Section Chief

b. The Fire Sector Supervisor 

c. The Operations Section Chief

d. The Safety Officer

ICS Chap.2 Add 6 4.2)

The correct answer is: The Operations Section Chief

11

The priority tactic at large brush fires is to protect exposures that may be affected by the fire. Once the exposures are covered the fire attack can begin. Which choice listed below would be an incorrect tactic to take at these fires?

Select one:

a. Avoid chasing fire, running out of hose, and exhausting operating forces.

b. The best time to move in for a close attack is when the wind diminishes. 

c. Consider wetting down unburned area ahead of the fire.

d. Never operate in front of the fire. An on-rushing wall of fire can endanger operating forces.

AUC 151 5.4.3, 5.4.4, 5.4.6, 5.4.8) In general avoid operating in front of the fire. If necessary to operate in front of the fire (ONLY TO PROTECT LIFE), sufficient lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces.

The correct answer is: Never operate in front of the fire. An on-rushing wall of fire can endanger operating forces.

12

In all dewatering operations, the total number of units committed to dewatering operations should not reduce the overall availability of engine and ladder companies below?

Select one:

a. 85% 

b. 90%

c. 75%

d. 50%

The correct answer is: 75%

13

An Engine Officer responds to 4 incidents on a day tour during which he transmitted the following radio code signals. In which radio code transmission was he correct?

Select one:

a. 10-29 Code 2 for an elevator emergency where a civilian was removed from the elevator car

b. 10-34 Code 2 for a sprinkler system emergency due to a surge in pressure

c. 10-25 Code 2 for smoke issuing under pressure from a transformer in the street 

d. 10-35 Code 2 for an unnecessary alarm activation due to servicing of the alarm system

(Comm Chap 8 — Pages 8, 9, 10, 11)

The correct answer is: 10-34 Code 2 for a sprinkler system emergency due to a surge in pressure

14

Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding the processing of injury/exposure reports?

Select one:

a. Biological exposures must be entered into the CIRS program immediately to ensure appropriate exposure investigation and follow-up.

b. Within 10 days from the date of the injury/exposure, modifications to the report will replace the original submission, and the report will continue to be categorized as original.

c. All available information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative. 

(SB 7 4) Within 7 days. After 7 days, all modifications will be saved as amendments.

The correct answer is: Within 10 days from the date of the injury/exposure, modifications to the report will replace the original submission, and the report will continue to be categorized as original.

15

Severe storm conditions can cause many hazards to FDNY personnel. While discussing the possible hazards our personnel may face, which statement made was incorrect?

Select one:

a. Floodwaters can harbor many hazardous materials including fuel oil and sewage. Decontamination of personnel and equipment may be needed.

b. In-ground pools, cellar openings, and sloping garage entrances may be covered by floodwaters.

c. Bunker gear should not be worn in flooded areas. 

d. Manhole covers displaced by floodwaters may be concealed. Members walking in flooded areas should stay close to the curb lines and use a tool to probe for hazards.

(AUC 159 5.4.5) Stay close to the BUILDING LINE and use a tool to probe for hazards.

The correct answer is: Manhole covers displaced by floodwaters may be concealed. Members walking in flooded areas should stay close to the curb lines and use a tool to probe for hazards.

16

Engine 456 has just operated at a car fire during a major snowstorm. While extinguishing the fire, the engine attempted to use a hydrant that was found to be frozen. After placing a yellow hydrant disc on the hydrant the officer realized that the hydrant is located in Engine 432’s administrative area. Which company is responsible for entering the frozen hydrant into the Hansen Hydrant System as frozen, so the Thawing Apparatus will be notified?

Select one:

a. Engine 432’s officer

b. Engine 456’s Officer 

(AUC 200 4.6.3) The officer of the unit that finds a frozen hydrant shall promptly notify the officer of the unit who is administratively responsible for the hydrant. That officer shall then enter the frozen hydrant information into the Hansen System.

The correct answer is: Engine 432’s officer

17

First alarm units arrive at a second-floor fire in a Private Dwelling where CIDS indicates that the building is a 2-story, flat roof PD, with Lightweight Wooden I-beams supporting all floors and the roof. In this situation, members would be correct to think?

Select one:

a. The second hose line stretched must always back up the first hose line. 

b. An additional ladder company should be special called on arrival

c. Under no circumstances are members permitted to operate on the roof at this fire

d. Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut at this fire

(FFP-PD —Ch 6—4.2, 4.3.8)

The correct answer is: Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut at this fire

18

10. FDNY members should not begin resuscitation efforts when they determine which condition(s) below exist?

Select one or more:

a. Dependent lividity 

b. Decomposition 

c. Obvious death 

d. Valid Health Care Proxy 

e. Valid DNR Order 

f. Rigor mortis 

valid health care proxy not valid

19

05. The LCD symbol “XXX” displayed under the COMB/EX icon indicates all of the following except?

Select one:

a. The atmosphere is potentially explosive 

b. The atmosphere is above 30 % LEL

c. The atmosphere is extremely dangerous

d. The meter is now in a “Lock Alarm State” and the LEL Sensor is shut down and can no longer read natural gas levels

The atmosphere is above 30 % LEL

20

02. When using the 30’ Vehicle Recovery Strap, it is preferred to recover the stuck vehicle from the?

Select one:

a. Rear, using the frame mounted eye hook or bumper

b. Front, using the frame mounted eye hook or bumper

c. Front, using only the frame mounted eye hook

d. Rear, using only the frame mounted eye hook 

(App C-2 3)

The correct answer is: Front, using only the frame mounted eye hook

21

04. A _____ safety zone shall be maintained when using the vehicle recovery strap?

Select one:

a. 35-foot

b. 25-foot

c. 40-foot

d. 30-foot 

 is: 35-foot

22

08. The guideline for extending and lowering stabilizers for aerial ladders when the ground is NOT level and the inboard side (working side) is also the high side is to: Extend the stabilizer on the low side first until that stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, then lower that stabilizer to its maximum. Then, ensure the inboard stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, and then lowered the distance necessary to level the apparatus.

Select one:

a. Agree

b. Disagree 

 Agree

23

09. When utilizing the Aerial Ladder Emergency Hydraulic Operation, it would be incorrect to think that?

Select one:

a. The Engine should be running and the Normal / Emergency Hydraulic Switch placed in the Auxiliary position

b. The electrical pump and batteries need a cool-down period between operations

c. The steps required must be followed in precise order

d. All functions will be operated at a reduced rate of speed when the emergency system is activated 

App L-7---5) (Engine should not be running)

The correct answer is: The Engine should be running and the Normal / Emergency Hydraulic Switch placed in the Auxiliary position

24

11. Which statement concerning hydrant connections is inaccurate?

Select one:

a. When arriving at second or greater alarms, the 10’ hard suction should be used if available

b. When drafting operations are indicated, the 10’ hard suction should be used if available

c. When other than first to arrive on the first alarm, the 10’ small hydrant connection, the 35’ soft hydrant connection, or the 10’ hard suction shall be used 

d. When first to arrive on the first alarm, the 10’ small hydrant connection or the 35’ soft hydrant connection may be used

(TB App P-3—4) (10’ hard suction MUST BE USED)

The correct answer is: When drafting operations are indicated, the 10’ hard suction should be used if available

25

01. DNR Orders authorize health care providers to NOT perform CPR to patients in?

Select one:

a. Cardiac arrest only. 

b. Cardiac or respiratory arrest

(CFR 2—Add 1—3.1)

The correct answer is: Cardiac or respiratory arrest

26

03. Hospital and Nursing Home DNR forms may be honored in any hospital or nursing homes provided they are current and have not expired.

Select one:

a. Agree 

b. Disagree

(CFR 2—Add 1—3.5, 4.1.5) (may be honored ONLY in the hospital or nursing homes they originated from)

The correct answer is: Disagree

27

08. Lt Adams should know that a DNR Order shall be disregarded and full resuscitative efforts initiated in all of the following except which situation below?

Select one:

a. If the patient is unable to state his/her desire and a family member or a close personal friend is present and requests resuscitative measures for the patient and a confrontational situation is likely to result if the request is denied

b. A physician directs the order be disregarded 

c. If the patient is conscious and states they wish resuscitative measures

d. If there is reasonable evidence to suggest the DNR Order has been revoked or cancelled

CFR 2—Add 1—4.3) No mention of any close personal friends

The correct answer is: If the patient is unable to state his/her desire and a family member or a close personal friend is present and requests resuscitative measures for the patient and a confrontational situation is likely to result if the request is denied

28

02. Which unit(s) below are trained to perform complex confined space entries?

Select one or more:

a. SOC Support Ladder Companies

b. CPC Ladder Companies 

c. Squad companies 

d. Rescue Companies 

ONLY RESSSCUE AND SQUAAAD

29

15. A fire on the 100th floor of a high-rise building will require a 3rd Stage engine. Only an IC at the rank of Battalion Chief or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage.

Select one:

a. Disagree

b. Agree 

(Engine Ops. Chap. 9 Add.1 4.2) Pressures EXCEEDING 600 psi require a 3rd stage engine. A fire on the 100th floor requires 600 psi. A fire above the 100th floor would require the 3rd Stage engine.

The correct answer is: Disagree

30

225. A minimum of two Engines, two Ladders, and a Battalion Chief shall respond and operate at all times at AirTrain incidents/emergencies on high-speed roadways. One of these units must be a Tower Ladder. Indicate if you agree or disagree with the following statement? “The primary means of accessing the guideway from the Van Wyck Expressway shall be via the nearest overpass.”

Select one:

a. Disagree 

b. Agree

AGREE