brooklyn wrong answers

Question 1

Question 4:
An alarm comes in for L007H. What does this a suffix stand for?

A: Tech Decon Task Force Ladder

B: High Rise Nozzle

C: Haz Mat Tech Unit

D:Hi-Rise Roof Team

Answer 1

d

Explanation:
A. D-Tech Decon Task Force (Engine or Ladder)
B. N-High Rise Nozzle (Eng)
C. H-Haz Mat Tech Unit (Eng)
D. Comm Ch 2 page 37

Question 2

Question 21:
Members are under the “Immediate Supervision” of an Officer in all of the following choices except?

A:When they are within visual contact of the Officer.

B:When they are within Handie-Talkie contact of the Officer.

C: When they are working with a search line which is under the supervision of an Officer.

D: When they are working with hose line which is under the supervision of an Officer.

Answer 2

b Explanation:
When they are within VOICE contact of the Officer.
Acronym: SHSH (Sight, Hearing, Search Line, Hoseline)
Lads 3.2.1 11 Note

Question 3

Question 8:
E-300 and L-400 respond to 344 Fulton street for a CO activation in apartment 4C on the 4th floor. Upon investigation, the officers get readings on their GasAlert Extreme CO meters of 70 PPM. Based on this reading, the officers follow the procedures according to Haz-Mat chapter 4. Choose the incorrect procedure

A: Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO

B:Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate

C: If it is determined that an appliance is malfunctioning and thereby producing CO, it should be shut down

D:Attempt to reset the detector

Answer 3

b Explanation:
RECOMMEND that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation for CO readings greater than 9 PPM but less than 100.
100 PPM or greater, begin evacuation
Haz-Mat ch 4 pages 4-5

Question 4

Question 39:
At an Old Law Tenement fire, which size-up factor will determine the “severity of the life hazard and intensity of the fire?”

A:Time

B: Construction

C: Street Conditions

D:Occupancy

Answer 4

d Explanation:
Lads 3 1.4.1

Question 5

Question 10:
The following radio transmissions are heard at a fire: “L-120 to Battalion 44, we have a fire in apartment 3D, we have door control and we are in the apartment.” “E-231 to L-120, the line is charged and ready for advance” These radio transmissions indicate all of the following except?

A:Indicates the Engine Company has a charged hoseline at the entrance door, ready to advance

B: The location of the fire apartment for the Engine Company, other members, and the IC

C: Confirms that interior conditions are tenable to begin operations and that the door is being controlled

D:The Engine Company Officer should direct the Engine Company to the fire area

Answer 5

d Explanation:
The Ladder Company Officer should direct the Engine Company to the fire area.
FFP Ventilation sec 5

Question 6

Question 18:
The Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19) shall be forwarded by the apparatus operator/officer within _________ of the apparatus collision/incident?

A:4 days

B:72 hours

C: 7 days

D: 48 hours

Answer 6

D Update
2 copies of the MV-104(s) when required
2 copies of the PD accident report when required
SB 56 sec 10

Question 7

Question 19:
For a fire in a vacant Rowframe building, positioned in a row of vacant Rowframes, which hoseline was stretched incorrectly?

A: The first to arrive engine company stretched a 3 ½” hoseline to supply a tower ladder, and then stretched a hoseline for use on the exterior of the building.

B: The first engine company positioned their apparatus to use the multiversal nozzle as the officer deemed it was necessary.

C:The first hoseline initially operated from the exterior until a tower ladder was placed into operation. The hoseline was then stretched into the fire building.

D:As the second hoseline was not needed to back up the first hoseline, it was stretched through an exposure to the rear yard.

Answer 7

c Explanation:
First Hoseline: Initially operate from the exterior until the tower ladder, multiversal, or a heavy caliber stream can be placed into operation. The hoseline is then stretched into the MOST SEVERE EXPOSURE.
D) Or this line can go to the opposite exposure.
RF 6.7 B

Question 8

Question 28:
The incorrect flagging column entry can found in which choice?

A:CV- for Chief’s vacation

B: CM- Cleaning and maintenance

C:RXD- Scheduled to report for or be relieved from duty

D: EI- Exchange of information

Answer 8

a Explanation:
Chief’s Visit
Guide to Company Journal Entries sec 5

Question 9

Question 39:
A knowledgeable Engine Officer should know which choice below to contain incorrect information regarding Low Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwellings (LRFPMD)?

A: Fires in LRFPMDs may be extinguished using 1¾” or 2½” hose, hand stretched from a pumper depending on the hallway length.

B: If hallways in LRFPMDs are small, that is, every apartment door is within 50’ of every stairway on that floor, then 1¾” hose can be stretched from the pumper when compatible with fire conditions.

C:If a LRFPMD has long hallways, that is, any apartment door is more than 50’ from any stairway on that floor, then the additional GPM available from 2½” hose may be needed and 2½” hose should be hand stretched from the pumper.

D:Division Commanders shall ensure that non-standpipe buildings where 2½” hose may be used are entered into CIDS.

Answer 9

d Explanation:
Division Commanders shall ensure that non-standpipe buildings where 1¾” hose may be used are entered into CIDS.
MD 7.6

Question 10

Question 2:
The most correct way to make a notification of an on-duty injured member can be found in which choice?

A: Immediate phone call to FDOC with full particulars

B: Via Dept radio to the Borough dispatcher with name and/or unit of member

C:Via Dept radio to the Borough dispatcher without requesting the mixer off with no name or unit number of member via dept radio

D:Via Dept radio to the Borough dispatcher requesting mixer off without transmitting the name or unit number of member

Answer 10

d Explanation:
As soon as possible thereafter, particulars shall also be telephoned to FDOC….THIS IS FOR AN INITIAL NOTIFICATION OF A FATALITY OR SERIOUS INJURED ON-DUTY MEMBER
The name or unit number of a member with a minor injury may be transmitted over dept radio after requesting “Mixer Off”
Also, Signal 10-45 shall not be used to indicate a fatality or injury to an on-duty member
Comm ch 8 sec 8.2.5 and 8.2.6

Question 11

Question 31:
The placement of an aerial ladder apparatus (tractor-trailer and rear mount) is dependent on each of the following conditions with the exception of which choice?

A: Whether immediate rescue is apparent.

B:Where no immediate rescue effort is required, the number and type of windows shall be utilized to determine placement.

C:Smoke, heat or fire causing an exposure that would endanger a victim, a member or the ladder.

D: Area or street conditions that might hamper optimum positioning.

Answer 11

b Explanation:
Where no immediate rescue effort is required, the size of the frontage of the building to be covered in case of future need.
ACRONYM: FISH
Frontage
Immediate rescue
Heat/smoke/fire
Street/area conditions
Lads 2 2.1

Question 12

Question 33:
Most fires in rowframe buildings will be extinguished by first alarm units or an “all hands” assignment. As additional units may be required, all guidelines below should be followed with the exception of which choice?

A: When using all hands and the fire is not under control, it may be necessary to special call an extra engine and ladder to the scene.

B: When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also advisable to call for an additional engine and ladder.

C:When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, a second alarm is required.

D:When two buildings are involved, we have a 2nd alarm situation. Prompt consideration must be given to transmitting a 3rd alarm when it extends beyond two buildings.

Answer 12

c Explanation:
When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, the need for a second alarm must be CONSIDERED.
RF 7.6

Question 13

Question 34:
Removal of manhole covers by FDNY personnel may reduce the infiltration of gas into surrounding properties during a natural gas emergency. Which is the most correct policy when removing manhole covers?

A: Removal of sewer manholes covers can be performed by FDNY personnel only when requested by the on scene utility company gas representative

B: Removal of electric manhole covers by FDNY personnel may be performed only when requested by the on scene chief

C:Under no circumstances, shall electric manhole covers be removed

D: Round manhole covers should be removed by at least 3 FFs utilizing the manhole hooks carried in all battalion vehicles

E:Under no circumstances shall rectangular or square electric manhole covers be removed

Answer 13

e Explanation:
A- Can be removed with the approval of an on-scene Chief Officer
B- When requested by a utility company gas representative on the scene and approved by an on-scene Chief Officer
C- See choice B
D- 2 FFs utilizing the 2 manhole hooks for use in removing electric manhole covers carried in all battalion vehicles
Emergency Procedures Natural gas 9.2.4 sec 3

Question 14

Question 1:
Two officers discussing still water operations identified which incorrect comment?

A: When a report is received that individuals are stranded due to flooding, a Water Rescue Team consisting of a Water Rescue Company and an Engine Company will be dispatched. The Water Rescue Team will be equipped with a 14-foot Flat Bottom Boat, waders, CWS’s, and PFD’s.

B: When the Water Rescue Company is a Ladder Company, an Engine Company will be dispatched to transport the Flat Bottom Boat. Priority will be given to dispatching the Engine that is quartered with the Ladder Company, when available.

C:When the Water Rescue Company is an Engine Company, they will transport the Flat Bottom Boat, and a neighboring Engine Company will be dispatched to assist in operations.

D:Members of Water Rescue Companies trained in the use of Cold Water Suits shall don the suits prior to commencing operations. The remaining members of the Water Rescue Team shall be equipped with waders and a PFD. Only under extreme circumstances should a member enter the water without a Cold Water Suit or waders and a PFD.

Answer 14

d Explanation:
No member shall enter the water unless equipped with a Cold Water Suit or waders and a PFD.
AUC 159 Add 7 4.1-4.4

Question 15

Question 3:
Which choice below is incorrect regarding NYC Transit’s Emergency Evacuation Device (EED)?

A: The EED is a yellow, 7-foot long device with steps on the front and a flat surface on the backside. A non-skid surface is applied to both sides. Each unit weighs approximately 42 pounds.

B:Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are only available at full-time token booths. are secured with a corrosion resistant padlock. If a key cannot be obtained, the locks can be forced using conventional forcible entry methods.

C:When positioned against the side or end doors of a subway car the EED will reach the roadbed at approximately a 70° angle (safe for ascent / descent) and the steps will provide a horizontal stepping surface. A notch cut in the beams on one end of the ladder helps to anchor the EED in position against the car and or platform.

D: These devices are constructed of fiberglass reinforced plastic and are electrically nonconductive for use within the confines of the subway environment.

Answer 15

b Explanation:
Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at EVERY token booth.
AUC 207 Add 11 2.1-2.3, 3.4

Question 16

Question 21:
During company drill, a probationary firefighter made which incorrect comment about chainsaw operations?

A: Use extreme caution when cutting small size brush and saplings which may easily catch the chain and pull you off balance.

B:The most dangerous kickback zone is the upper 90 degree quadrant of the blade.

C:A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10’ should be established before the commencement of cutting. The saw operator, control person and officer should be the only personnel in this area during cutting.

D: If a branch, tree section or other object is hanging, leaning or otherwise damaged, members are to prevent access to the danger area by unauthorized persons. If practical, the object should be stabilized by lashing or shoring. Cutting it down is not to be attempted.

Answer 16

c Explanation:
The SAW OPERATOR and CONTROL PERSON will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. The OFFICER is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person.
TB Tools 24 3.10.1 B, 4.4, 5.3, Figure 5

Question 17

Question 29:
A newly promoted company officer should be able to identify which incorrect comment below regarding units with “reduced staffing”?

A: A reduced staffed unit is a Ladder, Rescue, or Squad company staffed with four firefighters. When this occurs, the Company Officer shall determine which outside position (OV/ROOF) will be staffed. This decision shall be based in part on the unit’s response area.

B: Upon arrival, if the necessity exists, the Officer may reassign the position of the outside firefighter (OV to ROOF or ROOF to OV). The Officer shall inform the IC and units operating of the unstaffed position.

C:A reduced staffed unit responding to alarms shall transmit to the dispatcher “We are responding understaffed”. If the Officer is having difficulty getting this message to the dispatcher due to heavy radio traffic, the Officer shall transmit an “Urgent” to the dispatcher to ensure the message is heard.

D:An additional Ladder Company (above the Fast Truck) shall be assigned to a 10-75 when both of the two initially assigned Ladder Companies report responding with four firefighters.

Answer 17

c Explanation:
A reduced staffed unit responding to alarms shall transmit to the dispatcher “WE ARE RESPONDING WITH FOUR FIREFIGHTERS”.
An understaffed unit is any unit staffed with less than four firefighters. An understaffed unit responding to alarms shall transmit to the dispatcher “We are responding understaffed”.
AUC 287 8.2.1-8.3.2

Question 18

Question 36:
During a collapse operation, it is necessary to identify the location of known and potential victims. Units conducting searches for these victims use the letter “V” to denote their location. Choose the incorrect statement made in regards to the letter “V”

A:A large “V” 12” in height is painted near the location of a known or potential victim

B: An arrow may need to be added next to the “V” pointing towards the victim’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby

C:A circle is painted around the “V” when the location of a potential victim has been confirmed, either visually, vocally, or by hearing sounds that would indicate a high probability of a victim

D: When a victim is confirmed deceased, a circle is painted around the “V” and a horizontal line through the middle of the “V”

E: When the deceased victim(s) have been removed, a circle is painted around the “V” with a horizontal and vertical line through the middle of the “V”

Answer 18

a Explanation:
2 feet in height
FFP Collapse Operations add 2 secs 5.2 5.3 5.4 5.5

Question 19

Question 7:
Today is February 1, 2019 and you are working in L-500 for 9x6 tour when you receive a ticket to fill out alarm. You and your FFs board the apparatus and proceed to 44-45 Carlton st in the Borough of Brooklyn. En-route, the dispatcher tells you that L-500 is designated the FAST Unit for a fire on the 4th floor of a 6 story 100x100 “H” type multiple dwelling. As the FAST Unit officer, the operational considerations for this fire include all of the following except?

A: FAST Unit search team shall make entry to locate, package, and remove the member if possible

B: FAST Unit removal/resource team will stage at the entrance and be available to assist

C:In an “H” type building, the FAST Unit officer can use a 2 sided approach where the search team makes access via the interior and the removal team makes access via the exterior of the building

D:Due to the size and type of building, the FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up

Answer 19

d Explanation:
The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings
Choice “C” is good as written…Just cant split company for large commercial or complex buildings
MMID ch 2 sec 7.3 and 7.4

Question 20

Question 8:
In a private dwelling of lightweight construction, when the fire is on the top floor and there is clear indication that the fire has NOT entered the cockloft, roof operations shall be limited to each of the following except?

A: Checking the rear and sides of the building.

B: Inspecting HVAC duct vents for unusual heat.

C:Cutting inspection holes and monitoring for the presence of smoke and fire at these cuts.

D:Venting the top floor windows, and skylights if present.

Answer 20

c Explanation:
Note: All members shall be removed from the roof upon completion of these duties (in Choices A, B and D)
When fire is on the top floor and there ARE indications that it has extended to the attic/cockloft, the IC shall be immediately notified, and members shall not be permitted to operate on the roof. Any fire present in the attic/cockloft represents the potential for a partial or complete collapse of the roof.
PD Ch 6 4.3,10, 4.3.11 PD Ch 6

Question 21

Question 12:
To remove metal gates often found on fire escape windows of nonfireproof tenements, you would be most correct in which tactic described below?

A: These gates are always on the outside of the window.

B: The gate is attached to the window frame with wood screws.

C:Use either the fork or adz end of the halligan tool to pull the gate loose at the locking device.

D: If severely exposed to heat or smoke at the lock side, cease removal and notify the IC.

Answer 21

b Explanation:
A) These gates are always on the ROOM SIDE of the window and will first require opening or removing the window.
C) Use either the fork or adz end of the halligan tool to pull the gate loose at the side OPPOSITE THE LOCKING DEVICE.
D) If severely exposed to heat or smoke opposite the locking device of the gate, removal may be accomplished at the LOCK SIDE.
Lads 3 5.3.2 3 a, b

Question 22

Question 14:
The students of one Ladder Company were sitting around on the apparatus floor talking about gas leaks in a structure and the following statements were made. Which is the only one that is CORRECT as stated?

A: If at any time gas levels reach above 60% of the LEL, treat the affected area as a “Potential Blast Zone”.

B:If the leak can be found and levels can be kept at less than 80% LEL by venting, members may continue to operate.

C:Treat the affected area as a “potential blast zone” if levels cannot be limited to less than 20% LEL by venting, the leak cannot be found and there are indications the leak is coming from an outside subsurface source.

D: Ladder companies have a gas detector designed for detecting natural gas in voids.

Answer 22

b Explanation:
NATURAL GAS EMERGENCIES
B IS CORRECT – Section 3 2nd Bullet point
A – If levels reach 80% of the LEL or higher, treat the area as a “Potential Blast Zone”. Section 3 4th Bullet point
C – If levels cannot be limited to less than 10% LEL by venting and… Section 3 pg. 32 bottom
D – Haz Mat 1, HMTU’s and Squads have a gas detector designed for detecting natural gas in voids.
Section 3 5th Bullet point.

Question 23

Question 19:
You, the Lieutenant, have arrived to a fire in St Phillip Neri Church located at 3021 Grand Concourse, in the Bronx. Since this is your first tour out of FLSTP, the tactics for Engines and Ladders are fresh in your mind. Choose the tactic that was carried out incorrectly.

A:To effectively extinguish fire spreading to the attic or bell tower, the 1st hoseline should be stretched up the spiral stairs leading to the attic or bell tower area

B: When the fire is located in a large open area, the initial hoselines will generally be 2 1/2”

C: After a size-up for a cellar fire, which indicated operations will be in close quarters, the 1st 1 3/4” hoseline should be stretched to the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the cellar in order to extinguish the fire

D:For a first floor fire, the 2nd arriving Ladder Company will ensure that the cellar is examined for fire

Answer 23

a Explanation:
FFP Places of Worship
A- In most cases when fire does spread into the attic or bell tower, it cannot be extinguished by the use of handlines due to the limited access to the space and lack of ventilation. FFs will have to be withdrawn and an exterior operation employed…sec 6.4.1
B- sec 6.1.2
C- sec 6.1.3
D- 1st ladder will attempt an examination of the cellar for fire…the 2nd ladder will ENSURE the cellar is examined for fire…sec 7.3.1 and 7.3.2

Question 24

Question 22:
Maintenance of the Department’s Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans is essential to ensure optimal performance when in use. Which choice is incorrect?

A:Fans shall be inspected daily at the start of the 9x6 tour.

B:At MUD, fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 15 minutes. A visual inspection of the fan belt and tightness check should be conducted prior to starting the fan.

C: The run time for these fans is 2 to 3 hours at full throttle.

D: When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses must always be attached to the operating fan in order to limit and control the introduction of CO inside the structure.

Answer 24

b Explanation:
At MUD, fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for “5” minutes. A visual inspection of the fan belt and tightness check should be conducted prior to starting the fan.
TB Tools 32 1, 3.3, 4.1, 4.2

Question 25

``` Question 27: Please read the explanation... You just went 10-84 for a class 3 alarm involving a private dwelling. Upon further investigation, you suspect a possible illegal drug factory or type of clandestine lab inside. You approach with caution and request the response of Haz-Mat 1. In addition to Haz-Mat 1, who else should you notify? ``` A:PD and Fire Marshals only B: Fire Marshals and Department of Health only C: O.E.M., PD, Fire Marshals D:BC, DC, PD, Fire Marshals and Department of Health

Answer 25

d Explanation: \*\*\* This info is found in 2 sections of our manuals. Haz-Mat ch 2 Reference 1 and ERP add 3 sec 8.7.5 \*\*\* ERP add 3 sec 8.7.5 for clandestine labs states "Upon discovery of any type of lab the following notifications shall be made" BC, DC, Haz-Mat, PD(including Bomb Squad when necessary), and BFI Haz-Mat ch 2 Reference 1 states "PD and dept of health"

Question 26

Question 33: When operating at a taxpayer fire, company officers need to be well- versed in wood and steel trusses. Choose the incorrect statement made about trusses. A:Protected open web steel joists are particularly vulnerable to elevated temperatures of a fire and may collapse after only 5 or 10 minutes B:"I" beams protruding above the roof surface or roofs built in step fashion with one store roof slightly higher than another sometimes give false impression of fire division walls. The side walls of such protrusions are made of wood sheathing and are easily detected by striking them with a tool to differentiate them from a masonry wall C: Open web steel joists come in standardize lengths, depths, and carrying capacities. They are used to span long distances up to 60 feet D: Wood truss roofs appear to fail without warning. The roof does not sag or get "spongy." Steel trusses tend to "stretch" when losing their strength because of elevated temperatures, but wood tends to "snap"

Answer 26

a Explanation: Unprotected Taxpayers page 6 and 7

Question 28

Question 38: The Department has created a Rehabilitation Manager Unit to oversee the day to day operations of all five RAC Units and provide direct supervision at the scene of fires and emergencies. The Rehabilitation Manager will respond on each of the following signals except? A:2nd and greater alarms B: When special called by the IC C:10-80 Code 1 D: 10-60

Answer 28

c Explanation: AUC 230 Add 1 5.1, 5.2

Question 29

Question 40: Which statement below regarding the common features of Row Frame buildings is described incorrectly? A: Common or poorly fire-stopped cockloft and cornice permits rapid fire spread into exposures. The term “Row Frame” is derived from the fact that these are constructed in rows, often running the length of the entire block. B:To gain entrance to the roof from the interior of the building, there is a bulkhead which is reached by an interior stairway from the top floor. C: Lack of fire stopping at cellar ceilings may permit fire travel from one building to another. Sometimes the cellar runs under more than one building with no separation. D:There are many variations in the construction of these buildings. Light and airshafts are found in some, while not in others. Usually the buildings of longer length will have the shafts. Air and light shafts are of wood, and fire in shafts rapidly assumes blowtorch proportions.

Answer 29

b Explanation: To gain entrance to the roof from the interior of the building, there is a scuttle which is reached by an iron ladder from the top floor. The scuttle is usually near the skylight over the stairs. RF 5.2.5, 5.2.6, 5.2.7, 5.2.9

Question 30

Question 1: Examples of conditions that should be considered for inclusion in the CIDS program include all of the following except? A: High-Rise MDs where a three length stretch would not be sufficient B: High-Rise MDs with communication systems C:High-Rise MDs with sprinklers only in below grade areas D:Non-standpipe low-rise fireproof MDs where 1 3/4 hose may be used

Answer 30

c ## Footnote Explanation: A. MD sec 6.7.1 Note B. MD sec 6.21.2.Note C. MD sec 6.27.6 Buildings with sprinkler systems should be entered on CIDS. D. MD sec 7.10

Question 31

Question 9: With the detonation of an Improvised Nuclear Device (IND), responding units shall not enter the area of detonation for at least ________ minutes. A: 5 B: 10 C: 15 D: 30

Answer 31

c Explanation: Because radiation fallout from an IND does not occur for approximately 15 minutes after detonation, units responding to an IND should not enter the area of the detonation for at least 15 minutes post-detonation, when presence of radiation can then be detected and monitored ERP add 4 sec 3.1.4.

Question 32

Question 11: You are working in E-500 staffed with 5 FFs during the 6x9 tour when you arrive 2nd due to E-400 staffed with 4 FFs for a fire on the 2nd floor in a 6 story 50X100 CL3 multiple dwelling. With no FAST unit on scene, and L-200 and L-300 in position, which members would make up the safety team at this fire? A: Control and Door FFs of E-500 B:Control FF of E-400 and LCC of L-200 C: Door FF of E-500 and LCC of L-200 D:Control and Backup FFs of E-500

Answer 32

d Explanation: If 2 Engines on scene, then it would be Backup and Control FFs of the 2nd arriving Engine regardless if staffed with 5 or 4 FFs A- If one 5 FF Engine on scene B- If one 5 or 4 FF Engine and one Ladder on scene MMID ch 1 page 4.....KNOW THIS PAGE COLD

Question 33

Question 12: Your aerial ladder responds to a fire in a Row Frame. The Row Frame is 3 stories, with a 4 window front. Fire is on the second floor. After dropping off the Roof FF to the roof, what is the next action the LCC should take? A: Reposition the aerial ladder for VEIS of the floors above the fire floor when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member). B: Reposition the aerial ladder for VEIS of the fire apartment when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member). C: VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using portable ladders when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member). D: VEIS the floors above the fire floor from the exterior using portable ladders when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).

Answer 33

c Explanation: After the Roof FF has reached the roof, reposition the aerial ladder for VEIS of the fire apartment IF fire is on the 3rd floor or above when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member). When fire is on the 1st or 2nd floor, VEIS the fire apartment from the EXTERIOR using portable ladders when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member). RF 5.7 D 8 (7)

Question 34

Question 17: You just relieved a covering lieutenant in E-300 after a very busy day tour. The lieutenant you relieved left 4 CIDS cards on the desk to review. Choose the most correct CIDs card to be entered into the eCIDS application A: MD 6 STY 100X80 CL3-DUPLEX ON 2 TO 3 FL- ENT TO APTS ON 3 FL-MINRSP 33 B: MD 6 STY 100X80 CL3-DUPLEX ON 2 TO 3 FL- ENT TO APTS ON 3 FL-MINRESP33 C: MD 6 STY 100X80 CL3-DUPLEX ON 2 TO 3 FL- ENT TO APTS ON 3 FL-MINRESP 3 Engs 3 Lads D: MD 6 STY 100X80 CL3-DUPLEX ON 2 TO 3 FL- ENT TO APTS ON 3 FL-MINRESP 33

Answer 34

d Explanation: In situations where size, construction, layout, or operational requirements of a building warrant, an enhanced response MINRESP followed by a space and then a two digit number representing the number of engines and the number of ladders placed last in the "transmitted data" would trigger the predetermined response Communications ch 4 page 8

Question 35

Question 18: Portable ladders may be utilized as barriers to dangerous areas or conditions to protect members or civilians from injury. In which choice below is this tactic incorrectly used? A: A portable ladder secured across a doorway in an area where operations are in progress will indicate that entrance to that section or room of the building is restricted. B: Portable ladders placed on one beam, elevated to the knee level on supports and properly secured, can act as a barrier to civilian pedestrian traffic near a hazardous condition or fire operation. C: Short ladders may be placed over holes in floors of buildings to prevent members from falling through during operations. D: During any operation where ladders are used as barriers and exposed to the public, care must be exercised to prevent theft.

Answer 35

b Explanation: Portable ladders placed on one beam, elevated to the WAIST LEVEL on supports and properly secured, can act as a barrier to civilian pedestrian traffic near a hazardous condition or fire operation. Lads 1 9.2.2

Question 36

Question 20: During a company drill on “FireIce” operations, the officer on duty had to correct which incorrect statement? A: Only a Chief Officer can order the application of FireIce. B: FireIce may be used on any underground electric manhole or transformer fire where suppression of fire is desired. C: During the application of FireIce, the operating pressure at the nozzle shall be between 60-100 psi. D: The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of 50 feet.

Answer 36

b Explanation: FireIce is not effective on class B fires. Therefore, it is NOT intended for use at any type of transformer fire; that includes transformers located in below-grade vaults or rooms, and transformers that are mounted on poles. Note: A) This normally occurs after consulting with the on-scene Con Edison supervisor. However, when necessary, the Chief Officer may order the application of FireIce prior to the arrival of a Con Edison Supervisor. Note: C) However, using a nozzle pressure between 60-80 psi is “optimal.” Note: D) AFTER establishing an adequate gel solution, and as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a “minimum safe distance” of 25’ from the manhole opening. AUC 180 Add 2 7.2, 7.3, 8.3, 8.4

Question 37

Question 21: It is critical for first responding units to address street management and fire control during collapse operations. Choose the incorrect street management procedure. A:2 engine companies on the second alarm shall be used to seal off the ends of the street. All members of these two companies shall remain with apparatus until special call to area of collapse B:First arriving TL should be the only unit in front of the collapsed structure C: SOC Support Ladder Companies shall position the same as other ladder apparatus which is away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless needed for specific rescue purposes D: If possible, both 1st and 2nd arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains

Answer 37

a Explanation: Chauffeurs of these units must remain in the cab, able to move the apparatus if directed by the IC Collapse Operations pages 6-7

Question 38

Question 33: While taking up from a CFR run in E-200, the dispatcher calls you over the apparatus radio to see if your available for another run. You try calling the dispatcher by depressing the handset button and transmitting your message, but failed to receive an acknowledgment from the dispatcher. Your next move to make is found in which correct choice? A:Make one additional attempt to call the dispatcher B:Make two additional attempts to call the dispatcher C: Make three additional attempts to call the dispatcher D: Assume the radio is inoperative and transmit your message from another mobile unit

Answer 38

b Explanation: In the event a 1st call is not acknowledged within 30 seconds, press the handset button and repeat the call, but not more than 3 attempts to contact the dispatcher. If the 3rd call is not acknowledged, assume the radio is inoperative and transmit your message from another mobile unit (3 attempts from this unit). Still if no acknowledgement, assume a problem with the Borough frequency and switch to Citywide frequency. If unable to to communicate with the citywide dispatcher by radio, contact the Borough or Citywide dispatcher via telephone Know this procedure cold Communications ch 8 sec 8.4.3

Question 39

Question 51: Some occupancies have Lexan panels instead of conventional glass in their windows. Portable ladders may be used to force these windows. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A: At times, the Lexan panel is protected by a wire screen on the exterior. Remove the exterior screen. B: Place the butt of the ladder on the Lexan window in the center of the window. C: Three or four members apply a gradual leaning pressure against the window until it is forced inward. D: If a section of window snaps off, continue forcing around the window perimeter until a sufficient opening has been made.

Answer 39

b Explanation: Place the butt of the ladder on the Lexan window in the corner adjacent to the window frame. Lads 1 10.3.1

Question 40

Question 53: The NFPA 704 Diamond is a standardized system that uses numbers and colors to define the hazards of a material. From the list below, choose the most correct definition in relation to the color/number that is found in the Diamond. A: Blue 3- Hazardous B: Yellow 1- Stable C: Red 3- Flash point below 73 degrees D: Yellow 3- Shock and Heat May Detonate

Answer 40

d Explanation: A-Extreme Danger B- Unstable if Heated C- Red 4 D- Asked on the 2005 Lts exam ERP Hazardous Materials p-39

Question 41

Question 55: For a fire in a low-rise fireproof multiple dwelling, roof access is correctly attained by the Roof FF in each of the choices below except? A: The first priority is a stairway in an attached, adjoining building. In an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section is the priority. B: The second priority is via an enclosed, evacuation stairway. C: For an isolated building with only one open interior stairway to the roof, and no access via aerial or tower ladder, a decision must be made by the company officer as to whether or not roof ventilation is required. If the stairway is not an IDLH and safety permits, the Roof Firefighter may be ordered to take the interior stair to the roof while the interior team is making its way to the fire apartment door. D: The third priority is an Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder.

Answer 41

c Explanation: For an isolated building with only one open interior stairway to the roof, and no access via aerial or tower ladder, a decision must be made by the company officer as to whether or not roof ventilation is required. If the stairway is not an IDLH and safety permits, the Roof Firefighter may be ordered to take the interior stair to the roof, PROVIDED THAT THE FIRE APARTMENT DOOR IS CONTROLLED AND MAINTAINED CLOSED BY THE LADDER COMPANY OFFICER. D Note: If the stairway is an IDLH, then the Roof Firefighter must be teamed up with another member before ascending to the roof. In either case, the fire apartment door must be maintained closed until the Roof Firefighter has communicated to their Officer that they are on the roof in a safe area, and that the bulkhead door is closed. If ordered by the IC, provide ventilation of the stairway bulkhead. The Roof Firefighter will remain on the roof until the fire is under control and the interior stairway is safe to descend. A Note: In this situation, these doors must be checked on the fire floor and the floors above to ensure that they are in the closed position. MD 7.7.3 B

Question 42

Question 6: All of the following choices contain correct information regarding the electronic riding list (EBF-4) except? A :It should be completed immediately AFTER the start of the tour, and ONLY if the company is in quarters. B: The EBF-4 may be completed prior to the start of the tour and adjusted as needed. C: The final EBF-4 shall be updated anytime during the tour as necessary (e.g., ML during tour, early relief, staffing change, reduced staffing). D: Company Officers shall login using their last name and payroll reference number.

Answer 42

b Explanation: The EBF-4 should NOT be completed prior to the start of the tour AUC 346 2.1 - 2.4

Question 43

Question 9: During taxpayer fires, a Roof Sector Supervisor should be assigned as early as possible to supervise roof operations. This could a chief or company officer as designated by the IC. As a Roof Sector Supervisor, choose the most correct tactic used during a Taxpayer fire. A: Generally, vertical openings are made at the roof level. Scuttles, skylights or covers of former skylights that are located away from the main body of fire should be opened first B: The roof cut for vertical ventilation must be large enough to cause the bulk of the heat, smoke and gases being produced by the fire to vent in that direction and away from the advancing hose line. A hole 3x6 is recommended C: If trenching is to be implemented, take skylight returns close to the trench, as soon as possible, to assist in venting D: The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two saws and four members on the roof

Answer 43

d Explanation: A- Scuttles, skylights or covers of former skylights that are located over or NEAR the main body of fire should be opened first B- 8x8 is recommended C- Leave skylights returns in place where the skylights are to be used as an effective trenching boundary Taxpayers pages 28-29

Question 44

Question 28: In cold weather, keep aerial ladder hydraulic systems operating intermittently to prevent sluggishness or freezing, return the ladder to the bed as soon as possible to prevent icing, and try to position the ladder to avoid water spray. If the ladder becomes coated with ice, remove the ice in what order? A:First free the trussing, then the rungs and ladder rung locks, and then the main beams. B:First free the rungs and ladder rung locks, then the trussing, and then the main beams. C: First free the main beams, then the rungs and ladder rung locks, and then the trussing. D: First free the main beams, then the trussing, and then the rungs and ladder rung locks.

Answer 44

b Explanation: Lads 2 8.1.9

Question 45

Question 31: You are conducting a drill on the Implementation of Emergency Life Saving Rope Operations. This policy is in effect when a large number of personal harnesses and/or personal safety systems have been placed OOS and immediate replacement is not available. After you hit all the points of this evolution, your proby asks when can the Roof FFs can leave the roof area (floor above in a HRFPMD). You tell him what? A: When the IC states all visible fire is knocked down B:When the IC states the fire is "Probably Will Hold" C:When the IC states the fire is "Under Control" D: When his Officers says its OK to leave the roof area

Answer 45

b Explanation: "Probably Will Hold" or the IC informs the members to either evacuate the roof or that their services on the roof are no longer required Evolution 32 sec 2.4

Question 46

Question 36: Regulators and meters are integral components of the gas supply system. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these components? A: Service Regulators are usually located after the gas meter on low pressure systems to reduce gas to low pressure (¼ psi). B: Gas Meters can supply individual occupancies or entire buildings. Before the meter there should be a ¼ turn meter valve that controls the supply of natural gas to the meter. C: Some multi-occupancy buildings have only a single master meter supplying natural gas to all occupancies and shutting it down will shut gas to the entire building. Sometimes the Utility Company will have two master meters adjacent to one another so a master meter can be serviced or replaced without interrupting service to the building; the valves to both meters would need to be closed to shut supply to the building. D: Some buildings have multiple meters, each supplying natural gas to a different occupancy or tenant. Older apartment buildings may have individual gas meters located inside of each apartment served, and in some buildings, meters may be found in the public hallway, which if found, requires appropriate enforcement action.

Answer 46

a Explanation: Service Regulators are usually located BEFORE the gas meter on MEDIUM and HIGH pressure systems to reduce gas to low pressure (¼ psi). EP Gas 4.4.2, 4.4.3

Question 47

Question 40: Natural gas has many uses in modern, urban dwellings. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding appliances and systems that use natural gas? A: Large, commercial Air Conditioner units are often located in the cellar. Some HVAC units are combination units, housing heating units using natural gas and conventional cooling units. B: Less common Air Conditioner units use natural gas in the heat exchange process. A failure in any part of large, commercial air conditioning units can allow natural gas to leak and spread throughout the entire HVAC system. C: Direct vent boilers and hot water heaters have become prevalent throughout the city and may be located anywhere within a structure. They are vented by a short length of pipe through an exterior wall. D: Direct vent window and through-the-wall heaters may be used to heat individual occupancies.

Answer 47

a Explanation: Large, commercial Air Conditioner units are often located on rooftops or SETBACKS. Some HVAC units are combination units, housing heating units using natural gas and conventional cooling units. EP Gas 4.4.5

Question 48

Question 2: Choose the most CORRECT information when the TAC "U" channel is activated A: Zone "A" channel 13 is designated the TAC "U" channel. This channel transmits at 2 watts B: All FDNY Units will have the capability to operate on the TAC "U" channel C: When the TAC "U" channel is activated, all operating units shall switch to Zone "A" channel 13 D: The yellow FAST Unit HT does NOT have the capability to operate on the TAC "U" channel

Answer 48

b Explanation: Communications ch 14 add 2 A- 5 watts.....2.1 B- Correct....3.1 C- All operating units shall remain on the Primary Tactical Channel unless specifically instructed to switch to another channel....3.3 D- The yellow FAST Unit HT has the capability to operate on the TAC "U" channel....3.3.2 Note

Question 49

LIST NEXT Question 1: In the process of mechanically ventilating subsurface structures, tactics may be employed by Utility Companies to influence the migration of sub-surface leaks by creating negative pressure between the leak and the building at risk, allowing natural gas to vent to the atmosphere in an ignition-free area. This tactic may be useful in slowing gas migration towards building basements/cellars that may be at risk and are difficult to vent and/or evacuate such as large multiple dwellings, assisted living housing, hospitals, etc. Which choice below contains incorrect information? A: Once on scene, Utility Company personnel are responsible for mechanically ventilating outdoor, sub-surface structures. Fire Department units shall not assist in this procedure. B: Both Con Edison Gas and National Grid have mechanical air movers that can exhaust air from sewers, manholes and subsoils via bar holes. The air movers use construction crew truck compressors to blow air through a venturi, creating a negative pressure. C: Con Edison Gas has an intrinsically safe electric fan with a collapsible duct that can be used to exhaust air from sewers and manholes. D: Tactics may also be employed to assist in venting by pulling air back through a subsurface structure to clear a building of natural gas so the building can be re-evaluated following evacuation. Extreme caution should be used before re-entering buildings that are in the potential blast zone.

Answer 49

a Explanation: In consultation with the Utility Company, the IC MAY deploy units to assist Utility Company personnel in mechanical ventilation of outdoor, sub-surface structures. EP Gas 9.2.4 4

Question 50

Question 3: When operating at an Incinerator emergency, the only correct procedure can be found in which choice? A: Before proceeding to the roof, the Roof FF ensured all stairwell doors were closed B: In order to locate the blockage, open a chute door on a floor. If the smoke comes out, the blockage is generally below that floor C: The Officer and forcible entry team went directly to the cellar for investigation D: LCC went directly to the incinerator room for investigation

Answer 50

d Explanation: Training Bulletins Fires 7 A- It is very important that, before the Roof FF leaves the lobby he chocks open the stairwell door at the ground floor level. This will provide for maximum draft and vertical ventilation when the roof bulkhead door is open...sec 2.3.F B- generally ABOVE that floor.....sec 2.2.A C- Will generally operate inside the building to ventilate, search, and to locate the blockage...sec 2.1 D- sec 2.4 Also: If you open a chute door on a floor and the draft goes inward or there is little smoke, the blockage is generally below that floor or the blockage has freed itself...sec 2.2.B

Question 51

Question 12: Con Edison Gas routinely monitors their Gas Transmission System for the potential need of repair work and the Department plays a key role in safety during this process. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding this procedure? A: This is considered high hazard repair work due to the high pressure gas which can range between 240-420 psig in Manhattan, Queens and the Bronx. B: Con Ed will notify the borough dispatcher when repair work is to be performed. Upon this notification, the borough dispatcher will assign the nearest available Battalion and HMTU. C: When assigned, units shall respond in non-emergency mode to the incident location. The Con Ed representative will be at the location to meet the responding units for familiarization and to review aspects of the planned repair work. D: Upon completion of the familiarization, the Battalion Chief shall notify the Deputy Chief and 1st alarm companies of the location and relevant aspects of the planned repair work. If deemed necessary, the Battalion Chief shall schedule units for additional familiarization visits.

Answer 51

b Explanation: Con Ed will notify the borough dispatcher when repair work is to be performed. Upon this notification, the borough dispatcher will assign the nearest available Battalion AND Engine or Ladder company for an administrative assignment. EP Gas Add 1 1.1-2.2

Question 52

Question 31: LT Portable was instructing FF Rung on how to properly mark a portable ladder when using it for hoisting. The only correct information he gave can be found in which choice? A: The first rung below center of portable ladders (bed of extension ladders) is to be marked with one inch tape on both ends, two inches from the beams B: The first rung above center of portable ladders (bed of extension ladders) is to be marked with one inch tape on both ends, two inches from the beams C: The center rung of portable ladders (bed of extension ladders) is to be marked with one inch tape on both ends, two inches from the beams D: The first rung above center is to be marked with one inch tape at the center of the rung

Answer 52

b Explanation: B-Correct- The first rung above center of portable ladders (bed of extension ladders) is to be marked with one inch tape on both ends, two inches from the beams D- The second rung above center is to be marked with one inch tape at the center of the rung Evolution 18 bottom p-3

Question 53

Question 39: As a newly promoted officer, you should know that all of the following signals do not require a preliminary report to the dispatcher except? A: 10-36-2 B: 10-24/10-23 C: 10-22 D: 10-21

Answer 53

a Explanation: Officers of land units are not required to submit a preliminary report when special called to an automobile, grass, rubbish, or similar outside fire......Communications ch 8 sec 8.11.7 A- Car accident no injuries no wash down Comm ch 8 page 10.... B- 10-24 Auto fire/ 10-23 Abandoned/Derelict Vehicle fire...Comm ch 8 page 8 C- Outside Rubbish...comm ch 8 page 8 D- Brush fire...comm ch 8 page 8

Question 54

Question 22: Maintenance of portable ladders is crucial to their effectiveness. Which form of maintenance below is described incorrectly? A: Pulleys on all extension ladders usually have a ball bearing center that requires 1 to 2 drops of oil once a year. B: The halyards on the 24’ extension ladders are generally made of manila rope. The halyards on the 35’ extension ladders are made of a poly blend. When either rope becomes frayed or twisted from usage, it should be replaced. C: On all ladders, plain candle wax or paraffin shall be applied every six months to all contacting surfaces of multiple section ladders to ensure smooth operation. Apply the candle wax or paraffin where there is contact between rungs, guides or side rails. D: Grease is normally used only for internally guided aluminum truss ladders. The grease shall be cleaned from the guiding grooves, and they shall be recoated each year, or when the grease has dried out and is no longer an effective aid to sliding.

Answer 54

c Explanation: On all ladders, plain candle wax or paraffin shall be applied every THREE MONTHS to all contacting surfaces of multiple section ladders to ensure smooth operation. Apply the candle wax or paraffin where there is contact between rungs, guides or side rails. Lads 1 13.3

Question 55

Question 7: When the fire is on the first floor of a 2 sty Taxpayer, operations will be similar to those for 1 sty Taxpayers, but with added emphasis on all of the following except? A: Completely ladder the second floor. Utilize portable ladders B: Do not provide ventilation holes on the upper floor due to providing an avenue of fire extension and hindering other operations C: If the fire originated in the cellar it may require flooding of the first floor as a last resort D: The possibility of a large open stairway must not be overlooked if the occupancy on the second floor is a dance hall, meeting hall, etc E: The need for an Aerial Ladder to roof for ventilation

Answer 55

b Explanation: Ventilation holes cut on upper floors can provide venting for areas below and facilitate other operations Taxpayers sec 9

Question 56

Question 16: Hoseline operations can be quite complex when operating at a cockloft fire in a taxpayer. Which choice below is incorrect? A: When fire has control of the cockloft and the need for exposure protection is critical, position the 1st Engine to utilize the deckpipe. In-line pumping will give good positioning and allow room for placement of a Tower Ladder. B: The 1st Engine should stretch a handline into the most seriously exposed occupancy/building, depending on the life hazard and location and severity of the fire. When exposures are not an immediate problem, then the 1st line should be directed to operate onto the exterior of the fire building to control possible extension. C: When fire has control of the cockloft, and the need for exposure protection is critical, the 2nd Engine should assist the 1st Engine with the initial line. When staffing and conditions permit, stretch a line into another seriously exposed building/occupancy and operate into the cockloft to confine and extinguish the fire. It may be advisable to skip stores in order to confine a cockloft fire. D: The 3rd Engine should ensure the sprinkler system is supplied. Stretch a line and operate as ordered by the Incident Commander.

Answer 56

b Explanation: When exposures are not an immediate problem, then the 1st line should be stretched into the store under the main body of fire and operated to extinguish the fire. Txpyr 7.3.5 B

Question 57

Question 25: When it comes to Loft buildings, which definition is incorrect? A:Synthetic Walls are partition walls that separate living space between apartment units B: Quoins are used by architects to give the impression of strength and firmness to the outline of the building . They provide FFs with a visual contrasting feature to neighboring buildings on Exposures 2 and 4 allowing members to accurately discern the width of the fire building C: Wrought-Iron Girders unlike cast-iron, which is strong in compression but weak in tension, wrought-iron is equally strong in compression and tension making it a logical substitute in the mid-19th century for horizontal structural elements D: Sawtooth Roofs are roofs that will impose unique obstacles to FFs regarding roof access, egress, extinguishment, and vertical ventilation. maneuvering up and over the peaks and valleys of sawtooth roofs will be difficult at best, even under non-fire conditions. Mill sawtooths are typically of wood truss design. A steel cable, however, may be substituted for the bottom chord. Sawtooth roofs of steel and/or reinforced concrete construction can also be found in fireproof lofts

Answer 57

a Explanation: Synthetic Walls are low level windows that provide excellent openings for access, egress, ventilation, and hose stream/foam delivery. Synthetic walls may be covered with cast-iron plating, metal grilling, masonry or plywood for security reasons Lofts pages 15 and 17

Question 58

Question 38: Exterior Insulation Finish Systems (EIFS) offer many challenges to the fire service; most specifically the ability to apply water to hard-to-reach locations. Of the following appliances, which has the highest vertical reach? A: Multiversal Nozzle B:Tower Ladder Monitor C:Satellite Monitor D: Engine Deck Gun

Answer 58

b Explanation: Tower Ladder Monitor - 135’ Satellite Monitor - 130’ Engine Deck Gun - 130’ Multiversal Nozzle - 110’ AUC 362 3.1

Question 59

Question 5: In underground areas, handi-talkie communication with the surface will be adversely affected. A relay system shall be set up to overcome this. Choose the incorrect statement made regarding the handi-talkie relay. A:LCC is to take a position at the bottom of subway entrance stairs If the token booth is within 150 feet of stairs to street, contact train dispatcher through the clerk. Also, the LCC should relay the token booth phone number to the Ladder Officer in case it is necessary to call the booth from a blue light telephone B: OV FF is to take a position at the foot of the stairs leading to the platform if it is within 150 feet of the LCC C: Roof FF is to take a position approximately 150 feet from the stairs on the platform for relay D:Engine Officer is to take a position approximately 100 feet (line of sight) from Roof FF on the platform

Answer 59

d Explanation: 100 yards/300 feet Ladder Officer to location of fire Additional HT equipped members every 100 yards if necessary AUC 207 sec 4 Watch out for yards vs feet on test day

Question 60

Question 21: Which action is incorrect when the 1st arriving Officer or ECC transmits a 10-70? A: The next arriving pumper, designated as the Water Resource Unit, upon hearing signal 10-70 must find a viable water source B:If water relay is necessary, the 3 1/2 supply hose or 35' hydrant connection is connected from a hydrant to the Supply Pumper C:Both the Supply Pumper and the Operating Pumper must remain in the Volume Position D: At Standpipe Operations where head pressure needs to be overcome, the Supply Pumper remains in the Volume position and the operating pumper must be in the Pressure position

Answer 60

b Explanation: 10' or 35'........The necessary lengths of 3 1/2" hose are stretched from a 3" outlet of the Supply Pumper to the Operating Pumper's 3" gated inlet on the pump panel side of the pumper Evolutions 8 sec 3

Question 61

Question 22: The Fast Pak is a portable air supply intended for use as an emergency air source for members when they are low or out of air while operating in an IDLH atmosphere. Which of the following choices is correct? A: The Fast Pak is carried by all Engine, Ladder, Rescue and Squad Companies. B: The 5 ft. low pressure hose can be used where space is restricted or when access to the UAC is obstructed. C:The 20 ft. high pressure hose will administer air to a member’s SCBA via the UAC. This will equalize air in both cylinders in approximately 30 seconds. D:High pressure and low pressure systems can be operated simultaneously.

Answer 61

d Explanation: A) The Fast Pak is carried by all Ladder, Rescue and Squad Companies. B) The 20 ft. low pressure hose can be used where space is restricted or when access to the UAC is obstructed. C) The 5 ft. high pressure hose will administer air to a member’s SCBA via the UAC. This will equalize air in both cylinders in approximately 60 seconds. TB SCBA Add 1 1.1, 3, 5.3, 6.1,

Question 62

Question 34: Your unit arrives at a fully involved private dwelling fire. Which of the following tactical considerations would be considered incorrect? A:When the first arriving Engine Company backstretches to the hydrant, they should drop one handline and one 3 1/2” hoseline to supply a Tower Ladder in front of the building. In addition, units shall maintain the front of the fire building accessible for Tower Ladder placement. B:Consider stretching a 2½ inch hoseline for a faster knock down, greater reach of stream, increased volume of water and increased exposure protection. A 2½ inch hoseline shall also be considered when encountering a wind impacted fire or a heavily involved first floor fire in a larger style Private Dwelling (Queen Anne). C: Operate the hoseline on the exterior to protect exposures before entering the building. Be aware that buildings fully involved have an increased collapse potential and require a complete evaluation by the IC before entering. D: Wood frame buildings that initially appear fully involved may only have their exterior siding burning.

Answer 62

a Explanation: When the first arriving Engine Company backstretches to the hydrant, they should drop TWO HANDLINES in front of the building. In addition, units shall maintain the front of the fire building accessible for tower ladder placement. PD Ch 3 5

Question 63

Question 37: During a High-Rise fire, the most correct operation when using the Digital In-Line Gauge can be found in which choice? A: Connect the Digital In-Line Gauge, which is pre-connected to a length of hose, to the standpipe outlet B: Firmly press and hold the green ON/OFF button for 10 to 15 seconds. Four dashes will appear under PRESSURE and "r3.00" will appear above FLOW C: The residual flow is when the gauge reads approximately 70 psi for a 3 length stretch or 80 psi for a 4 length stretch with a flow of 225-250- GPM D: If the gauge fails to display upon initial start-up, place gauge OOS and notify officer

Answer 63

c Explanation: A- The Gauge is NOT to be pre-connected to a folded length of hose B- 4 to 5 seconds D- Make another attempt to turn the gauge on. If this attempt fails the control FF shall verify with their officer that the nozzle team is receiving proper pressure and flow Training Bulletins Tools 36 sec 3.1

Question 64

Question 11: You are an S/A officer working in Engine 99 and you are assigned on a 1076 for a fire on the 45th floor of a mega high-rise building. Your company is tasked with supplying the standpipe Siamese at the correct pressure. The building has low, mid, and high-rise standpipe zones. The low supplies floors 1-44, the mid 45-70 & the high zone 71-100. Which of the following is the correct choice for supplying the system? A: Supply the system at 300 psi using the low standpipe zone. B: Supply the system at 400 psi using the mid standpipe zone. C: Supply the system at 300 psi using the mid standpipe zone. D: Supply the system at 350 psi using the low standpipe zone.

Answer 64

d Explanation: ENGINE COMPANY OPERATIONS CHAPTER 9 The fire floor is 45. Supply Siamese is determined by the floor the company is hooking up on which would be below 45. 9.3.12 Table & 9.3.14 It is imperative that once the fire floor is confirmed, the ECC supplies the correct riser that is feeding the floor outlet the attack hose line is connected to

Question 65

Question 15: All choices below correctly describe a New Law Tenement except? A: Generally six or seven stories high. B: 35' to 50' wide and 85' in depth. C: The first floor (cellar ceiling) is of fireproof construction and unpierced. The entrance to the cellar is by way of interior stairs. D: The second means of egress is either another stairway or an exterior fire escape. The fire escape is more generally found in these buildings.

Answer 65

c Explanation: The first floor (cellar ceiling) is of fireproof construction and unpierced. The entrance to the cellar is by way of EXTERIOR stairs. MD 2.2

Question 66

Question 25: When operating during a severe snow storm where the conditions of streets are doubtful as to maneuverability, the tactics of the first alarm assignment can vary. Choose the most correct tactic used during a snow storm when the street conditions are severely impacted. A: Assign members on foot to investigate B: Always have apparatus turn into block to the reported address C: When building involved is higher than 2 1/2 stories, preference shall be given to ladder company apparatus entering block first with the engine company personnel hand stretching from the nearest hydrant, if necessary D: Where building involved is 3 1/2 stories or less, preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders

Answer 66

a Explanation: B- Apparatus remain on maneuverable avenues or streets until exact building location of emergency or fire determined C- Higher than 3 stories D- 3 stories or less AUC 200 page 15

Question 67

Question 43: According to Vincent Dunn, when a large caliber stream strikes a brick wall in a heavy smoke condition, you will hear what kind of sound? A: Splattering B: Splashing C: A drum sound D: A distant rumble

Answer 67

a Explanation: Drum sound - side wall of a wooden building . Distant rumble - entering a window. Dunn Ch 17 p230

Question 68

Question 47: According to Vincent Dunn, what would be considered the “fire problem” in a building of noncombustible/limited combustible construction? A: Fire and smoke spread through concealed spaces. B: The flat, combustible asphalt roof deck covering that can ignite during a fire. C: Large wooden interior timber framework. D: Central air-conditioning system.

Answer 68

b Explanation: Fire and smoke spread through concealed spaces - Ordinary construction (brick and wood joist) Large wooden interior timber framework - Heavy Timber construction Central air-conditioning system - Fire-resistive construction Dunn Ch 3

Question 69

Question 58: After reading the Loft bulletin several times you finally have it memorized cold. Choose the most correct tactic used for a fire in a Loft building. A:For a fire in the cellar of a Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building protected by a sprinkler system servicing the fire area, if the 1st Engine has not supplied it, the 2nd arriving Engine shall stretch a supply line to feed this system B: Initial hoselines shall be 1 3/4" C: If straight run stairs are encountered for a lower floor fire in a Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building, the 1st arriving Ladder Company is to notify the IC D: Fire found extending to Segmental Arch Floors must be opened up quickly for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area

Answer 69

a Explanation: Lofts A- Correct.....6.2.....Lower floor fire its the 3rd Engine (6.2.2) B- 2 1/2.....6.3.1 C- 2nd arriving Ladder Company....7.2.2.....Upper floor fire its the 1st arriving Ladder Company (7.2.3) D- Segmental arch floors should not be breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area.....5.2.1

Question 70

Question 71: Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the construction characteristics of private dwellings? A: For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, early collapse is not a primary consideration. B: Collapse is always the primary consideration in buildings constructed with lightweight materials. C: Lightweight construction often provides for the creation of large rooms. Areas unsupported by columns with spans greater than 25’ are generally an indication that lightweight construction is present. The collapse potential in a “wide-open” room of this type is not as great as in a compartmented area that has interior walls. D: The most important factor to a safe and successful operation at lightweight buildings is the identification of the presence of lightweight construction. It is critical that any member becoming aware of lightweight construction notify the Incident Commander.

Answer 70

c Explanation: The collapse potential in a “wide-open” room of this type is GREATER than in a compartmented area that has interior walls. PD Ch 6 1.6, 1.7, 1.8, 1.9

Question 71

Question 85: What type of hydrant is found on 30 inch diameter or greater mains in strategic locations (high and low points) and is an excellent source of water for Fire Department use? A: Dresser Hydrant B:Red Satellite Water System Hydrant C:Red Air Cock Hydrant D: Yellow Hydrant

Answer 71

c Explanation: Eng Ch 6 6.7.2

Question 72

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding “Rear Tenements?” A: Raising ladders at these rear tenements is a problem. Portable ladders may have to be carried through the hallway of the front building or raised via utility rope up and over the front building, lowered to the yard in a standing position and maneuvered to the rear building for rescue work. B: The distance between the front building and the rear building varies, but is somewhere between 10 to 25 feet usually. C: The rear buildings are frequently not visible from the street. This may result in a delay in discovery of fire in a rear tenement, especially at night. D: Rear tenements are small in area, may be of frame or non-fireproof construction, and may range from three to six stories.

Answer 72

d Explanation: Rear tenements are small in area, may be of frame or non-fireproof construction, and may range from two to five stories. MD 4.8.8

Question 73

Question 96: Which of the following chemical agents typically has an odor of “fruit”? A: Organophosphates B: Vesicants C: Pulmonary Agents D: Choking Agents

Answer 73

a Explanation: Organophosphates (Nerve Agents) - Fruit Vesicants (Blister Agents) - Garlic Pulmonary Agents (Blood Agents) - Burnt Almonds Choking Agents - Chlorine/ Grass ERP Add 2 2.1-2.4

Question 74

Question 100: What is the “Recommended Engine Discharge Pressure” for a fire on the 54th floor of a high rise building? A: 300psi B:350psi C:400psi D: 450psi

Answer 74

c Explanation: Eng Ch 9 Add 1 Table 2