fire tech moodle wrong answers Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q
  1. Choose an incorrect choice regarding the FDNY Extra-Departmental Employment Policy (EDE).

Select one:

a. All members must have the approval of the Fire Commissioner in order to participate in EDE.
b. Members serving with volunteer fire departments must submit the Form BP-150.
c. While on light duty or limited service, members may engage in EDE only with the approval of the Fire Commissioner or the Commissioner’s designee.
d. While on medical leave, members are prohibited from engaging in any EDE, profession, occupation or business.

A

A

Members may engage in EDE WITHOUT the approval of the Commissioner unless except as noted in PA/ID 12-67 (PA/ID 12-67)

The correct answer is: All members must have the approval of the Fire Commissioner in order to participate in EDE.

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2
Q
  1. Members placed on Military Leave may be eligible for a maximum of _________ hours of paid Military Leave per calendar year.

Select one:

a. 150
b. 240
c. 325
d. 96

A

B (PA/ID 7-75 4.1)

The correct answer is: 240

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3
Q
  1. Members who would like to exchange RSOT tours should be governed by all but which one of the following guidelines?

Select one:

a. An RSOT tour that has been mutualed or rescheduled may not be mutualed or rescheduled again.
b. Mutual exchange of scheduled RSOT tours by full duty Firefighters must be competed (worked) by both parties within 90 days of the first scheduled RSOT tour or by the end of the calendar year (whichever is earlier).
c. Mutual exchange of RSOT tours must be submitted to the Battalion at least 24 hours before the first RSOT tour for approval.
d. Mutual exchange of scheduled RSOT is permitted for all full duty firefighters assigned and working in the field.

A

within 30 days (PA/ID 1-90) B

The correct answer is: Mutual exchange of scheduled RSOT tours by full duty Firefighters must be competed (worked) by both parties within 90 days of the first scheduled RSOT tour or by the end of the calendar year (whichever is earlier).

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4
Q
  1. When positioning a tower ladder, the ideal horizontal distance from the centerline of the turntable to an objective is _______ feet. With the centerline of the turntable _______ feet from a building there will be sufficient room for the bucket to be dropped from the horizontal with the boom perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.

Select one:

a. 32 / 15
b. 32 / 25
c. 25 – 35 / 32
d. 25 – 35 / 25

A

b 32/25

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5
Q
  1. A “High Flow” reading registered on the Engine Company Apparatus Flow Meter indicates which possibilitie(s)?

Select one or more:

a. A Riser Control Valve may be closed
b. A pipe may be fractured
c. A Post Indicator Valve may be closed
d. Standpipe outlet valves may be open

A

(MDs 6.27.1) B D

The correct answers are: A pipe may be fractured, Standpipe outlet valves may be open

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6
Q
  1. Regarding the use of open interior stairs by the Roof FF’s to reach the roof in buildings with only one open interior stairway where the roof cannot be accessed via an aerial or tower ladder, it would be correct to state?

Select one:

a. The fire apartment door must be maintained closed by either the engine or ladder officer
b. The fire apartment door must be maintained closed until the Roof FF communicates to the IC that he is in a safe area and the bulkhead door is closed
c. If the stairway is an IDLH, it may not be used by the Roof FF’s
d. The Ladder Officer must grant permission for the Roof FF to use the stairs

A

(

d

Mds Pg 86 Note) - If the stairway is an IDLH, Roof FF’s must pair up. - The fire apartment door must be maintained closed by the ladder officer. - The fire apartment door must be maintained closed until the Roof FF communicates to the Ladder Officer that he is in a safe area and the bulkhead door is closed

The correct answer is: The Ladder Officer must grant permission for the Roof FF to use the stairs

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7
Q
  1. Where the fire apartment door is found closed at a wind impacted fire and window failure has not yet occurred, who should enter the fire apartment first?

Select one:

a. The Engine Company, after the Engine Officer contacts the Roof FF
b. The Ladder Company, to locate and confine the fire

A

b

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8
Q
  1. Sprinkler siameses should be supplied when sprinklers are located in the?

Select one:

a. Fire area or adjacent area
b. Fire area only
c. Area adjacent to the fire area only

A

a

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9
Q
  1. If a fire window faces onto a balcony or terrace in a HRFPMD, which of the following will be impossible to utilize on that window? (more than one)

Select one or more:

a. High Rise Nozzle
b. Window Blanket
c. KO Curtain

A

b and c

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10
Q
  1. Members operating at a fire in a Low-Rise FPMD would be incorrect to think that venting the attack stair bulkhead?

Select one:

a. Will be accomplished by the 1st and 2nd arriving LCCs
b. Should be delayed until a proper sizeup can be made, particularly on windy days
c. Will be emphasized early in the operation
d. Must be approved by the IC

A

a

(MDs 7.4)

The correct answer is: Will be accomplished by the 1st and 2nd arriving LCCs

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11
Q
  1. The classic ventilation profile of a wind impacted fire is?

Select one:

a. Fire or smoke not venting out of an open or failed window
b. Fire blowtorching straight out horizontally of an open or failed window
c. Fire blowing upwards and outward of an open or failed window
d. Fire or smoke pulsing in or out of an open or failed window

A

a

(MDs Add 3.2.2)

The correct answer is: Fire or smoke not venting out of an open or failed window

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12
Q
  1. At a wind impacted fire in a HRFPMD, the use of water from a high rise nozzle, an exterior stream, or a flanking strategy is a/an?

Select one:

a. Defensive tactic
b. Offensive tactic

A

b

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13
Q
  1. At a wind impacted fire in a HRFPMD, the use of water from a high rise nozzle, an exterior stream, or a flanking strategy is correctly indicated in which point(s)?

Select one or more:

a. Must be directed at / deflected off the ceiling
b. Requires removal of members to a safe location before water is applied
c. Requires communication between the IC and Fire Sector Supervisor
d. Should be applied to the room with the main body of fire

A

(MDs Add 3 4.2.2) a c d

The correct answers are: Must be directed at / deflected off the ceiling, Should be applied to the room with the main body of fire, Requires communication between the IC and Fire Sector Supervisor

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14
Q
  1. At a store fire in a taxpayer, to which position should the 2nd hand line be stretched to?

Select one:

a. To the roof of the fire building
b. Into the most severely exposed exposure
c. Into the store involved
d. Operated from the exterior into the fire building

A

cT

he 1st two hand lines are stretched into the store involved (Taxpayers 7.3.1 A)

The correct answer is: Into the store involved

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15
Q
  1. At a private dwelling fire, the Incident Commander should consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown when there will be a delay in applying water from the interior or whenever fire conditions dictate. In this situation an Incident Commander can be considered?

Select one:

a. A Chief or Company Officer
b. A Chief Officer or Acting Chief Officer only

A

a

(Private Dwellings Chapter 3 2.6)

The correct answer is: A Chief or Company Officer

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16
Q
  1. An engine company stretching the 1st handine for a fire in the choir loft of a place of worship should stretch?

Select one:

a. A 2 ½” line through the main entrance
b. A 2 ½” line through the access that provides the quickest access to the fire area
c. An 1 ¾” line through the main entrance
d. An 1 ¾” line through the access that provides the quickest access to the fire area

A

b

(Paces of Worship 6.3.1)

The correct answer is: A 2 ½” line through the access that provides the quickest access to the fire area

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17
Q
  1. Your company finds an overcrowding condition in a local restaurant. You would be correct to take all of the following actions with the exception of which choice? (AUC 5, Chapter 2, Addendum 8)

Select one:

a. A summons shall be served for Violation of Law
b. Request the response of a Battalion Chief
c. A forthwith violation order shall be issued to reduce the number of occupants
d. A Vacate Order shall be issued in all instances of overcrowding

A

d

If conditions are deemed hazardous or the occupancy load cannot be readily reduced to the legal limit, a vacate order should be considered.

The correct answer is: A Vacate Order shall be issued in all instances of overcrowding

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18
Q
  1. A hose line shall never enter the public hallway of a HRFPMD until the ladder company locates the fire apartment and provides direction for the advancing Engine Company.

Select one:

a. Disagree
b. Agree

A

dissagree

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19
Q
  1. A cabaret or social club of any size must have at least _______ Sq. Ft. of space per person. (AUC 5, Chapter 2, Addendum 8, 3.1)

Select one:

a. 4
b. 10
c. 6
d. 8

A

10

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20
Q
  1. The _________________ stair is the most common fire stair found in Class 2 High Rise Residential Buildings.

Select one:

a. Primary open
b. Open fire stair
c. Shared
d. Service

A

open fire stari

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21
Q
  1. The 2nd arriving ladder Roof FF would be correct to take which action at a fire on the 9th floor of an 18-story Class 2 High Rise Residential Building?

Select one:

a. Drop the KO Curtain off on the 10th floor prior to proceeding to the roof
b. Bring the KO Curtain to the roof
c. Drop the LSR off on the 10th floor prior to proceeding to the roof
d. Bring the LSR to the roof

A

If the fire was within 2 floors of the top floor, then the LSR should be brought to the roof. (8.8.9)

The correct answer is: Drop the LSR off on the 10th floor prior to proceeding to the roof

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22
Q
  1. When operating at a vacant building fire, members shall not conduct searches on the floors above the fire until _________________

Select one:

a. All visible fire has been knocked down and the ladder officer has conducted a size-up and risk assessment.
b. All fire has been extinguished and the IC has conducted a size-up and risk assessment.
c. All fire has been extinguished and the ladder officer has conducted a size-up and risk assessment.
d. All visible fire has been knocked down and the IC has conducted a size-up and risk assessment.

A

d

The correct answer is: All visible fire has been knocked down and the IC has conducted a size-up and risk assessment.

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23
Q

All members must be aware that the Inspector General requires direct notification regarding any situation where an FDNY employee?

Select one:

a. Claims an off-duty injury occurred while on-duty
b. Misappropriates Department time
c. Is arrested
d. Has an on-duty incident involving possession of illegal drugs

A

a

(AUC 268 — 2.1.7, 3.1.1, 3.1.3, 4.1.5)

The correct answer is: Claims an off-duty injury occurred while on-duty

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24
Q

Brush Fire Units and all Staten Island engine companies are equipped with 1” lightweight yellow hose in 100-foot lengths. This hose is intended for wildland operations and in an emergency can be used for structural firefighting.

Select one:

a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

d

(AUC 151 4.7) Is intended for wildland operations only, and is not to be used for any other type of operation.

The correct answer is: Disagree

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25
After battling a multiple alarm fire on a hot summer day the officer would be correct to instruct her members to take all but which one of the following actions to avoid “Heat Stress”? Select one: a. No member should be alone during any phase of the recuperation process. Maintain the “buddy system” for the duration of R&R. b. Members should drink cold water or sports drinks (20 oz. initially and 6-8 oz. every 15 minutes thereafter). c. Have members remove their helmets and coats, and open the front flap of their pants to remove pent up heat and humidity within the Bunker Gear. d. Members should seek cool, shady areas and casually move about to enhance rehydration.
b ## Footnote (SB 87 4) AVOID concentrated “sports” drinks and hot drinks. The correct answer is: Members should drink cold water or sports drinks (20 oz. initially and 6-8 oz. every 15 minutes thereafter).
26
A firefighter raising a portable ladder to an overcrowded fire escape would be correct to place the ladder to which location? Select one: a. The 2nd balcony, opposite the drop ladder b. The 1st balcony, same side as the drop ladder c. The 2nd balcony, same side as the drop ladder d. The 1st balcony, opposite the drop ladder
b ## Footnote (Ladders 1, 10.1) The correct answer is: The 1st balcony, opposite the drop ladder
27
Engine 222 arrives first at a fire in an occupied 3-story Row Frame building. They find the building is fully involved with fire and that fire has already extended to exposure 2. In this situation, they would be most correct to? Select one: a. Stretch a 1 ¾” line into the fire building, and stretch a 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder. b. Drop two 1 ¾” lines in front of the building, and stretch the first line into the fire building. Also position the engine apparatus for possible use of the multiversal c. Stretch a 1 ¾” line into exposure 2, and stretch a 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder. d. Stretch a 2 ½” line into the fire building, and stretch a 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder.
a ## Footnote Row Frames — 6.5) The correct answer is: Stretch a 1 ¾” line into the fire building, and stretch a 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder.
28
Each Assigned and Alternate Unit has been issued two sets of Unit Alarm Assignment and Instruction cards. Where should these two sets of cards be stored? (more than one correct) Select one or more: a. In the company office b. On the apparatus c. Posted on a wall on the apparatus floor d. At the house watch desk
b ## Footnote (AUC 149 4.3) An extra pipeline map shall also be stored with these cards The correct answers are: On the apparatus, At the house watch desk
29
Your ladder company has just arrived at a fire on the 5th floor of a 6 story multiple dwelling where a victim is seen at the 5th floor window. Which action taken by the OV and LCC was incorrect? Select one: a. While descending the aerial, the LCC placed himself one rung below the rung the victim was standing on. b. The OV ascended the aerial followed by the LCC c. After assisting the victim to the turntable, the LCC returned to the window to assist the OV with other victims. d. The OV climbed into the window, assisted the victim out of the window feet first to the LCC, closed the door to the fire area, and then searched the area.
c ## Footnote (Lad 2., 5.6,5.7,5.9) Removal is not complete until the victim(s) have been assisted to the GROUND. Do not leave them on the turntable The correct answer is: After assisting the victim to the turntable, the LCC returned to the window to assist the OV with other victims.
30
A ladder company is discussing the use of a “Light Train” for fires and emergencies in the subway system. Which point made regarding “Light Train” operations is incorrect? Select one: a. A Communications link with the FDNY unit must be established. If a communications link cannot be established, the “Light Train” is not to be used b. The decision to use a “Light Train” is to be made only by the Chief in Charge of the operation. c. A “Light Train” shall not travel past the next station without the permission of the Chief in Charge d. The apparatus of the unit that boards a “Light Train” should remain at the original location until directed to another location by the borough dispatcher.
d ## Footnote (AUC 207 Add 7 2.1, 2.4, 2.6, 2.7) Remain at original location until directed to another location by the Chief The correct answer is: The apparatus of the unit that boards a “Light Train” should remain at the original location until directed to another location by the borough dispatcher.
31
04. Regarding Peck Vents, it is incorrect to state they? Select one: a. May have a red cap b. Are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure c. Normally have an odor of natural gas d. Vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails
c ## Footnote 04. Regarding Peck Vents, it is incorrect to state they? Select one: a. May have a red cap b. Are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure c. Normally have an odor of natural gas d. Vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails
32
07. The first priority at a natural gas emergency is to locate and mitigate the leak. Select one: a. Agree b. Disagree
diss
33
09. A leak or break in ________ may be stopped or greatly diminished by taping, or stuffing putty, rags into the break? Select one: a. Low pressure gas piping b. Plastic piping c. Low or medium pressure gas piping d. Medium or high pressure gas piping
a
34
12. Plastic valves are color coded? Select one: a. White b. Salmon c. Grey d. Yellow
white
35
16. Members are operating inside of a Private Dwelling where they have a natural gas leak that has NOT been found. While operating, they determine they cannot locate the leak and there are indications that the leak is coming from an outside, subsurface source. In this case, they should treat the affected area as a “Potential Blast Zone” if levels cannot be limited to less than _____ % LEL by venting? Select one: a. 50 b. 10 c. 20 d. 80
10
36
04. Segment one responses include all of the following call types except? Select one: a. Choking b. Respiratory arrest c. Cardiac arrest d. Difficulty breathing
difficulty breathing
37
08. In which situation(s) below should an engine officer place his unit completely out of service after a CFR-D response? Select one or more: a. Decontamination of a member is required b. Decontamination of CFR-D equipment is required c. Decontamination of PPE is required d. The unit's only defibrillator was left with a patient and will be replaced later
(CFR 2—3.16.1, 3.16.2) ABC The correct answers are: Decontamination of a member is required, Decontamination of PPE is required, Decontamination of CFR-D equipment is required
38
14. Under no circumstances shall fire apparatus be used to transport patients? Select one: a. Disagree b. Agree
A GREE
39
2. All one of the following must be performed daily except? Select one: a. Handholds, hand rails b. Air loss in brake system c. Purge the air tanks d. Radiator level
C PURGE AND AIR
40
5. When snow chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed ______ mph? Select one: a. 25 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30
30
41
08. If a security decal becomes damaged on an engine or ladder apparatus, the fire apparatus shall be placed out of service? Select one: a. Agree b. Disagree
DISS
42
10. The officer of a fire apparatus that needs a new vehicle security decal must forward a letterhead report explaining the circumstances through the chain of command to the? Select one: a. Assistant Commissioner of Fleet Services/Technical Services b. Chief of Operations c. Bureau of Investigations and Trials d. Chief of Fire Investigation
A
43
05. The LCD symbol “XXX” displayed under the COMB/EX icon indicates all of the following except? Select one: a. The atmosphere is potentially explosive b. The meter is now in a “Lock Alarm State” and the LEL Sensor is shut down and can no longer read natural gas levels c. The atmosphere is above 30 % LEL d. The atmosphere is extremely dangerous
C s: The atmosphere is above 30 % LEL
44
05. Members conducting drill on the 100’ Rearmount Aerial Ladder were incorrect to state? Select one: a. Lowering the aerial ladder stabilizers is a two firefighter operation b. Stabilizers each require a clearance of 5’ 2” for full horizontal extension c. Load capacity of the aerial ladder varies from 250-750 pounds at the tip, depending on the degree of elevation d. The 100-foot aerial ladder operates from 0-80 degrees above the horizontal
B ## Footnote (App L-7—1.2, 1.4, 3.1) (One firefighter operation) The correct answer is: Lowering the aerial ladder stabilizers is a two firefighter operation
45
08. The guideline for extending and lowering stabilizers for aerial ladders when the ground is NOT level and the inboard side (working side) is also the high side is to: Extend the stabilizer on the low side first until that stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, then lower that stabilizer to its maximum. Then, ensure the inboard stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, and then lowered the distance necessary to level the apparatus. Select one: a. Disagree b. Agree
AGREE
46
09. When utilizing the Aerial Ladder Emergency Hydraulic Operation, it would be incorrect to think that? Select one: a. The electrical pump and batteries need a cool-down period between operations b. All functions will be operated at a reduced rate of speed when the emergency system is activated c. The Engine should be running and the Normal / Emergency Hydraulic Switch placed in the Auxiliary position d. The steps required must be followed in precise order
C s: The Engine should be running and the Normal / Emergency Hydraulic Switch placed in the Auxiliary position
47
12. Whenever In-Line Pumping operations are implemented, 3 ½” hose shall always be the initial supply line? Select one: a. Disagree b. Agree
AGRREE
48
01. DNR Orders authorize health care providers to NOT perform CPR to patients in? Select one: a. Cardiac arrest only. b. Cardiac or respiratory arrest
Cardiac or respiratory arrest
49
08. Lt Adams should know that a DNR Order shall be disregarded and full resuscitative efforts initiated in all of the following except which situation below? Select one: a. If there is reasonable evidence to suggest the DNR Order has been revoked or cancelled b. If the patient is conscious and states they wish resuscitative measures c. A physician directs the order be disregarded d. If the patient is unable to state his/her desire and a family member or a close personal friend is present and requests resuscitative measures for the patient and a confrontational situation is likely to result if the request is denied
D ## Footnote (CFR 2—Add 1—4.3) No mention of any close personal friends The correct answer is: If the patient is unable to state his/her desire and a family member or a close personal friend is present and requests resuscitative measures for the patient and a confrontational situation is likely to result if the request is denied
50
02. Which unit(s) below are trained to perform complex confined space entries? Select one or more: a. CPC Ladder Companies b. SOC Support Ladder Companies c. Rescue Companies d. Squad companies
C D
51
03. Members of SOC Support Ladder companies are trained to attempt entry into confined spaces in? Select one: a. Extreme emergencies only b. Line of Sight and Complex entries c. “Line of Sight” situations d. Any type of unusually hazardous situations
C
52
11. Regarding medical considerations at a Confined Space incident, as soon as the patient is accessible, the surrounding area is safe, and conditions permit, a Rescue Paramedic may start patient care with the permission of? Select one: a. The Fire Sector Supervisor b. An EMS Supervisor c. An on-scene Squad or Rescue Officer d. The Incident Commander
C The correct answer is: An on-scene Squad or Rescue Officer
53
13. If the atmosphere is hazardous, performing CPR on a patient generally? Select one: a. Is acceptable, but only if using a Bag Valve Mask b. Is mandatory if the victim is in arrest c. Is preferable to waiting to remove the victim d. Should be discouraged
D he correct answer is: Should be discouraged D
54
03. In the event of a missed pickup of Red Bags by Solid Waste Technologies, the CFR-D Depot Officer shall contact? Select one: a. EMS b. The Resource Center c. FDOC d. Their Battalion
B
55
05. Regarding the use of latex gloves, it would be incorrect to think that? Select one: a. They shall be changed after contact with each patient b. These gloves shall must be washed or decontaminated when treating multiple patients c. They shall be changed if torn during the course of treating a patient d. Fire Duty gloves may be worn over latex gloves if the potential exists for compromising the latex glove barrier and integrity.
B 3.5) (Gloves must be changed when treating a new patient
56
06. Infectious waste may not be stored for more than ______ days? Select one: a. 30 b. 20 c. 25 d. 15
30
57
13. High Risk facilities for tuberculosis transmission are defined as wall of the following except? Select one: a. Shelters b. Nursing Homes c. Prisons d. Subways e. Hospitals
is: Subways
58
14. Proper procedures concerning tuberculosis precautions are indicated in all of the following points except? Select one: a. When inspecting hospitals or nursing homes, normally it should not be necessary to enter rooms with patients. b. When responding to alarms at prisons and shelters, members should be prepared to use either their SCBA or an N95 respirator c. During inspections of prisons and shelters, members should use an N95 respirator d. The N95 respirator affords the greatest degree of protection for members in emergency situations
D ## Footnote (CFR 3 — Add 1—Pg 5-6) (SCBA affords greatest protection) The correct answer is: The N95 respirator affords the greatest degree of protection for members in emergency situations
59
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Flag question Question text 16. Regarding the issue of insect infestation, it would be incorrect to state that? Select one: a. Adult bed bugs are big enough to be easily seen b. Adult bed bugs are about the size of an apple seed c. When bed bugs feed, their bodies swell and become brighter purple d. Adult bed bugs have flat rusty-red-colored oval bodie
C RED
60
21. Regarding the completion of PCR, it would be incorrect to state? Select one: a. The firefighter assigned to complete the PCR is responsible for the PCR accuracy, completeness and legibility b. When making corrections on a PCR, members shall place a single line through the words to be corrected c. All times recorded on the PCR are to be written in military time - always using 4 digits d. A CFR-D certified member shall be assigned by the Company Officer to complete the PCR
A (CFR 5 — 1.3, 3.2) (Company Officer) The correct answer is: The firefighter assigned to complete the PCR is responsible for the PCR accuracy, completeness and legibility A
61
06. When packaging evidence in situations of possible arson, it would be correct to think that? Select one: a. A glass jar can be used, but it must be brand new and have a tight fitting lid b. Avoid the use of plastic containers c. A one gallon metal can, preferably a new can, is best d. A plastic bag can be used in an emergency if it is new and at least medium gauge
B ## Footnote son—5.3) (Must be a NEW can, Can be a CLEAN glass jar, Must be heavy gauge and used in pairs) The correct answer is: Avoid the use of plastic containers
62
09. Which one of the following glass indicators likely indicates a relatively slow heat build-up at a fire? Select one: a. Half-moon effects on glass b. Large crazing of glass c. Checkering of glass d. Small crazing of glass
B s: Large crazing of glass
63
05. At a suspended scaffold incident, whether the scaffold is level or off-level, unless the workers are in danger of falling, injured, or there is another imminent dangerous condition requiring immediate action, removal should be accomplished via? Select one: a. Life Saving Rope b. Glass cutting c. High Angle Rope d. Utility Rope
C
64
06. At an occupied suspended scaffold incident that is off-level, from an open window, going onto the scaffold only if necessary, attempt to attach a Life Saving Rope snap hook onto the victim’s harness. Select one: a. Disagree b. Agree
DISS
65
02. A Fire Department mechanic enters Engine 99’s quarters to perform repairs to the apparatus. A mark in the Company Journal regarding the mechanic’s arrival should be taken by the? ## Footnote a. Mechanic in red ink b. Company Officer in red ink c. ECC in red ink d. Housewatch FF in blue inkA
A