uWorld 41 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the signs of digoeroge (22q11.2 micro deletion)

A

hypocalcemia (tetany, carpopedal spasms, or seizures)

loss of thymic shadow (no thymus due to 3rd pouch fucked)

recurrent viral, fungal, protozoan infections

conotruncal anomalies (interrupted aortic arch, truncus arteriosus)

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2
Q

what are the Ckvostek and Trousseau signs

A

due to HYPOCALCEMIA

Chvostek sign: twitching of the nose and lips when tapping on the facial nerve

Trousseau sign: inflation of BP cuff leads to CARPASL SPASM

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3
Q

what needs to be known in order to perform the amplification part of PCR

A

the nucleotide sequence of the regions flanking the target exon

these are used to make the PRIMERS necessary to start PCR

thermostable DNA pol, deoxynucleotide tirphosphates, and a source DNA template strand are also necessary

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4
Q

what is the best initial approach to someone who has drug seeking behaviors (clearly asking for specific drug and getting frustrated when you suggest otherwise)

A

clarify the patients medication history to determine which drugs have been prescribed, by whom, and at what frequency

state-based, online prescriptions, clarify prescription patterns, and identify patients who obtain prescriptions from multiple providers

by identifying potential opioid misuse, providers can make more informed decisions regarding pain prescriptions

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5
Q

hematogenous osteomyelitis is predominantly a disease of children that most frequently affects the long bones. what are the most common causes

A
  1. Staph Aureus

2. Strep pyogenes

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6
Q

in what phases do oocytes arrest

A

childhood-puberty: meiosis I arrested in PROPHASE
-chromosome pairs arranged in tetrad and in close proximity allowing for RECOMBINATION

monthly, from puberty to menopause: meiosis II arrested in METAPHASE until fertilization

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7
Q

when during the membrane potential is the membrane most permeable to POTASSIUM, what about sodium

A

potassium: during the depolarization phase (halfway down, before the undershoot)
sodium: at the peak of the membrane potential the sodium permeance is the greatest

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8
Q

during aerobic exercise what increased in terms of blood gas values

A

skeletal muscle CO2 production increased PCO2 of mixed venous blood but homeostatic mechanisms maintain arterial blood gas levels and arterial pH near the resting values

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9
Q

most common lung cancer in female nonsmoker

A

adenocarcinoma

CLUBBING and HYPERTROPHIC OSTEOARTHROPATHY

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10
Q

BRADYCARDIA with regular rhythm and NARROW QRS complexes but complete DESYNCHRONIZATION b/w P waves and QRS
where the beat coming from

A

AV NODAL CELLS (become pacemakers when conduction b/w SA and AV node gets fucked)

can occur in complete (THIRD-DEGREE) AV block: impulses from SA node cause ATRIAL contraction while AV node causes VENTRICULAR contractions

pace is about 45-55bpm

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11
Q

boy with left sternal murmur that accentuates with the handgrip exercise (most likely diagnosis)

A

VSD (often asymptomatic and detected incidentally during routine cardiac auscultation)

proly gna have a sound clip with a low pitch holosystolic murmur

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12
Q

they systolic ejection murmur of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy decreases when

A

maneuvers that INCREASE AFTERLOAD and PRELOAD (b/c increasing these attenuate the left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and associated mitral regurgitation, by increasing left ventricular volume)

handgrip increases after load thus decreased this murmur

straining phase of the VALSALVA (decreases preload) will INCREASE IT

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13
Q

when would one see POPLITEAL and INGUINAL lymph node enlargement from the same thing

A

LATERAL lesions of the foot (drain via lateral superficial lymphatic system)

medial lesions follow the medial superficial lymphmatic system which go straight to superficial inguinal lymph nodes with no connection to the popliteal lymph nodes

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14
Q

where does the glans penis lymph drain

A

DEEP INGUINAL NODES

different from the rest of the skin of the penis and scrotum which go to the superficial inguinal nodes

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15
Q

what cytokines cause bacteremia and shock

A

IL-1, IL-6 and TNF-alpha

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16
Q

facial pain, headache, and nasal eschar in a patient with likely diabetic ketoacidosis
what the fuck they got

A

MUCORMYCOSIS

rhino cerebral infection from some spore inhalation

broad ribbon-like nonseptate hyphae with right-angle branching

tissue invasion i seen along blood vessels; vascular thrombosis and tissue necrosis can occur

to visualize do a MUCOSAL BIOPSY as this shit won’t grow in a blood culture

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17
Q

C5-C6 spinal nerves innervate what

A

biceps and brachioradialis reflexes

via musculocutanous nerve

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18
Q

high serum levels of what is diagnostic for 21-hydroxylase deficiency

A

17-HYDROXYPROGESTERONE

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19
Q

all patients with 17-hydroxylase deficiency appear how

A

phenotypically female

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20
Q

what is cheyne-stokes breathing and when is it seen

A

commonly seen in patients with advanced CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE (CHF)

cyclic breathing pattern in which APNEA is followed by GRADUALLY INCREASING THEN DECREASING TIDAL volumes UNTIL the NEXT APNEIC period

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21
Q

what causes KUSSMAUL BREATHING

A

deep and labored breathing pattern often associated with severe metabolic acidosis

KUSSMAUL:  
Ketones
Uremia
Sepsis
Salicylates
Methanol
Aldehydes
U
Lactic acidosis
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22
Q

what is seen in obstructive sleep apnea

A

reductions or cessation of airflow during sleep due to upper respiratory obstruction despite ADEQUATE RESPIRATORY EFFORT

ventilation remains nearly constant during the non-apneic periods with minimal cyclical variation in tidal volume

23
Q

what are the types of neoplastic colonic polyps

A

serrated

adenomatous (tubular, villous and tubulovillous)

24
Q

what are the non-neoplasic colonic polyps

A

hyperplastic
submucosal
inflammatory
mucosal

25
Q

what is an inflammatory intestinal polyp

A

non-neoplastic

seen in Ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease

composed of regenerating intestinal mucosa

26
Q

what is a submucosal polyp

A
non-neoplastic
submucosal structures (LIPOMA, LYMPHOID AGGREGATES) that bulge up into the mucosa
27
Q

what are mucosal polyps

A

non-neoplastic

colonic mucosa that resemble polyps but ar made of normal mucosa

28
Q

what are the criteria that determine the malignant potential of a adenomatous polyp

A

1/ degree of dysplasia

  1. histological pattern: VILLOUS adenomas are MORE LIKELY to undergo malignant transformation than tubular adenomas
  2. size: risk of malignancy increases with size, especially over 4cm
29
Q

what is the single most important measure to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms between patients (and thus hospital acquired infections)

A

HAND HYGIENE

30
Q

when must one use contact precautions (wearing NONSTERILE gloves for all patient contact and gowns during substantial contact with infective material)with a patient

A

specific MULTIDRUG RESISTANT BACTERIA (MRSA) or with PARASITIC or VIRAL pathogens

31
Q

when are isolation precautions indicated

A

infectious airborne disease (TB) and involve private airport infection isolation room with negative pressure, closed doors, and the use of specialized particulate respirator masks

32
Q

what is mifepristone

A

PROGESTERONE antagonist
glucocorticoid antagonist

used for abortions with misoprostol (PGE1 analog)

causes APOPTOSIS and NECROSIS of the UTERINE DECIDUA and prevents further development of a first trimester pregnancy (has higher affinity for progesterone receptor than natural hormone)

33
Q

nifedipine and indomethacin are tocolytic drugs used to stop what

A

PRETERM LABOR

decreased intracellular calcium form nifedipine blocks myosin kinase phosphorylation, which in turn leads to myometrial relaxation

indomethacin stops PG synthesis, which decreases uterine contractility

34
Q

how does methotrexate terminate pregnancy

A

inhibits trophoblast division, therefore decreasing trophoblastic survival, hindering implantation, and encouraging explosion

used to tx ectopic pregnancy and used with misoprostol for abrotion with mifepristone not around

35
Q

what is the inheritance of von WIllebrand disease

A

Autosomal DOMINANT

36
Q

how does desmopressin work in von willebrand disease

A

stimulates secretion of vWF (and factor VIII) from ENDOTHELIAL CELLS

37
Q

what si the difference between a complete mole and an invasive mole

A

complete mole is benign

invasive mole is malignant and has invaded the myometrial tissue

38
Q

how can one tell a choriocarcinoma apart from all the moles

A

choriocarcinoma has NO VILLI all the moles got at east some

39
Q

what is the major function of the hippocampus

A

formation of new memories

40
Q

what nucleus is said to place a central role in panic attacks and pacing disorder

A

locus ceruleus (NOREPI)

found in the caudal pontine central gray matter

41
Q

acetazolamide can treat what glaucoma

A

open angle and acute-angle closure

ADRs: somnolence, paresthesias, urine alkalization, metabolic acidosis, dehydration, HYPOKALEMIA, and HYPONATREMIA

42
Q

how are ACUTE INTERMITTENT PORPHYRIA attacks managed

A

infusion of HEMIN or GLUCOSE, which DOWNREGULATES hepatic AMINOLEVULINATE (ALA) SYNTHETASE which is the RATE LIMITING step in hepatic pathway of HEME SYNTHESIS

43
Q

what is seen in acute intermittent prophyria

A

acue abdominal pain and neurological symptoms due to accumulation of ALA and PBG resulting form a combo of:
PBG deaminase deficiency
ALA SYNTHASE INDUCTION, typically precipitated by certain medications (phenobarbital, griseofulvin, phenytoin), alcohol use, smoking, progesterone, or LOW-CALORIE DIET

44
Q

what is seen in WEST NILE VIRUS

A

FEBRILE illness with a RASH and NEUROLOGICAL SYMPTOMS including ENCEPHALITIS (CONFUSION) associated with FLACCID PARALYSIS syndrome, also causes MENINGITIS

(+)RNA Flavivirus transmitted by MOSQUITOES in the SUMMER

45
Q

fever, progressive weakness, and dyspnea (due to valvular regurgitation noted by previous diagnosis of a “heart disease”) along with presence of VEGETATIONS on the MITRAL VALVE is consistent with what

A

INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS (IE)

predisposing factors for IE are VALVULAR ANOMALIES (rheumatic heart disease, MVP, prosthetic valves, congenial heart disease) and conditions that promote BACTERMEIA/FUNGEMIA (IV drug use, dental procedures)

46
Q

in rheumatic heart disease what causes the underlying degeneration of the valve predisposing it to infectious endocarditis

A

chronic INFLAMMATION and SCARRING

47
Q

what is the initial process involved in pathogenies of infective endocarditis

A

DISRUPTION OF NORMAL ENDOCARDIAL SURFACE, most commonly at areas of maximal turbulence to blood flow in preexisting valvular lesions, typically the atrial surface of incompetent AV valves or ventricular surface of incompetence semilunar valves

this is followed by focal adherence of FIBRIN and PLATELETS, forming a STERILE FIBRIN-PLATELET NIDUS

during bacteremia the organisms can colonize the sterile nidus

Staph doesn’t need a nidus it can infect normal healthy valves

48
Q

what are Janeway lesions

A

Infective endocarditis
contender, macular, and erythematous lesions typically located not he palms and loses

result of SEPTIC EMBOLIZATION form valvular vegetations and are composed of bacteria, neutrophils (microabscesses), necrotic material, and subcutaneous hemorrhage

49
Q

what are osler nodes

A

seen in infective endocarditis
tender, violacious nodules typically located in the pulp of fingers and toes

pathogenesis is IMMUNE-COMPLEX

50
Q

what is the clincal presentation of medulloblastoma

A

gait instability and limb ataxia (cerebellar involvement), increased ICP (morning headaches, vomiting, lethargy)

sheets of primitive cells with many mitotic figures (primitive neuroectodermal tumor- PNETs_- composed of small blue cells w/ deeply eosinophil nuclei and scant cytoplasm

undifferentiated aggressive tumor

2nd most common brain tumor of kids

51
Q

what is seen in pilocytic astrocytoma

A

cerebellum is invalid
pilocyic astrocytes
ROSENTHAL FIBERS (eosinophilis things)

low-grade tumor

most common brian tumor of kids

52
Q

why is seen in an ependymoma

A

3rd most common brain tumor of kids

in the walls of the ventricles and can hamper CSF flow and cause hydrocephalus

form gland-like structures called ROSETTES

53
Q

what is the order of sodium channel binding strength for class 1 antiarrythmics

A

1C is the strongest (slow dissociation- USE DEPENDENCE MORE PRONOUNCED)
1A is intermediate (intermediate dissociation)
1B is the weakest (FAST DISSOCIATION)

54
Q

whats the difference in PSGN in kids and adults

A

adults have POORER PROGNOSIS (age is the most important poor prognosis factor for PSGN)

more likely to develop chronic hypertension, recurrent proteinuria, chronic renal insufficiency, or rapidly progressive GN

preexisting kidney disease is another poor prognostic facotr