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RUSVM SAM II > Derm- No pictures Exam 2 > Flashcards

Derm- No pictures Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What constitutes a primary derm lesion and what are the examples?

A

Initial erruption developing spontaneously as direct reflection of underlying dz- appear/disappear quick
Macule, papule, pustule, vesicle, wheal, nodule (abscess, tumor, cyst)

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2
Q

What are examples of a primary or secondary derm lesion?

A

Alopecia, scale, crust, follicular casts, comedone

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3
Q

What constitutes a secondary derm lesion and what are the examples?

A

Evolved from a primary lesion or artifact induced by patient or by external factors (licking/biting/trauma)
Epidermal collarette, scar, excoriation, erosion-ulcer, fissure, lichenification, callus

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4
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis?

A

Stratum corneum –> lucidum –> granulosum –> spinosum –> basale

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5
Q

What is a superficial skin scrape performed for?

A

Large surface area examined looking for parasites (surface mites)
- Sarcoptes, notoedres, otodectes, cheyletiella, demodex gatoi (cats)

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6
Q

What is a deep skin scrape performed for?

A

Small focal area examined for follicular parasites

- demodex spp.

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7
Q

What is the difference in morphology of an anagen vs. telogen hair?

A

Anagen: ball or balloon at bottom of hair
Telogen: arrow head

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8
Q

When performing a wood’s lamp exam, what should fluoresce if dermatophytes are present?

A

Hair must fluoresce not the skin

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9
Q

When should a fungal culture be performed?

A

All cats with skin disease and all dogs with inflammatory skin lesions

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10
Q

What is the test of choice for fungal culture?

A

Dermatophyte Test Medium (DTM)

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11
Q

If a dermatophyte is present in DTM- what occurs?

A

Dermatophytes use protein in the media resulting in alkaline byproducts causing the media to turn RED and the colony appears at that time (colonies not present before color change)

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12
Q

If a saprophyte is present in DTM- what occurs?

A

Color change will occur- but with this, there will be colonies present before and after the color change

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13
Q

What is the scotch tape test good for?

A

Crusts or dandruff- can use for mites (walking dandruff)

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14
Q

T/F: You should prep and scrub the skin before performing a skin biopsy?

A

FALSE- you will wash away the things you want

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15
Q

What are the most common indications for a bacterial C&S test to be run?

A

Deep pyodermas
Chronic AB/GC therapy
GSD pyoderma

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16
Q

What is the gold standard for environmental allergies?

A

Intradermal allergy testing-important to go to a LOCAL vet

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17
Q

What test relies on antigen-specific Ab levels?

A

Blood allergy testing

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18
Q

What is an unpleasant sensation of the skin that provokes the urge to scratch?

A

Pruritus

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19
Q

What are some causes of pruritus?

A

Infections, allergies, parasites

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20
Q

What signs do we commonly see when a patient presents with pruritus?

A

Alopecia, erythema and excoriation followed by lichenification, hyperpigmentation, seborrhea

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21
Q

What are the three most common allergens causing pruritus?

A

Flea bite allergy, atopic dermatitis and cutaneous adverse food reaction

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22
Q

What are you suspecting if a patient presents with caudal dorsum alopecia?

A

Flea allergy

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23
Q

What are you suspecting if a patient presents licking and chewing feet?

A

Food allergy or atopy

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24
Q

What are you suspecting if a patient presents with alopecia on the ears and elbows?

A

Sarcoptic mange

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25
Q

What is the most important allergic skin condition in dogs and cats?

A

Flea bite allergic dermatitis

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26
Q

What type hypersensitivity is flea bite dermatitis considered?

A

Type I hypersensitivity- saliva acts as the antigen

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27
Q

What is the common distribution pattern for flea bite dermatitis?

A

Lumbo-sacral, tail base, caudomedial thighs, ventral abdomen, flanks

Cats often present with miliary dermatitis

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28
Q

T/F: All dermatoses are considered flea related until proven otherwise?

A

TRUE

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29
Q

Where does majority of the flea population live?

A

ENVIRONMENT- not actually on the pet

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30
Q

Atopy is considered to have what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type I hypersensitivity to aeroallergens

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31
Q

What is the most common cause of otitis in dogs?

A

Atopy

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32
Q

What is the most common cause of atopy?

A

Dust mites

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33
Q

Where are the signs of distribution for atopy?

A

Paws, face, distal extremities, elbows, ventrum and otitis externa

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34
Q

Intradermal skin tests detect the which antigen?

A

Allergen-specific IgE

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35
Q

What is the gold standard dx test for atopy?

A

intradermal allergy testing

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36
Q

What three things should be avoided before intradermal allergy testing is performed (5 days prior, 2 wk. prior and 1 month prior)

A

No baths 5 days prior
No antihistimines and essential FA 2wks. prior
Avoid oral/topical steroids 1 month prior

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37
Q

What is the positive and negative control for intradermal allergy testing?

A

Positive control: histamine

Negative control: saline

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38
Q

What are the three possible treatments for atopy?

A

Allergen specific immunotherapy
Desensitization
Hyposensitization

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39
Q

What are the two forms of allergy shots?

A

SQ injection immunotherapy- increase dose/concentration slowly
Sublingual immunotherapy- twice daily

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40
Q

T/F: Antihistamines, essential FA and topical tx have strong evidence for tx of atopy

A

FALSE- weak evidence

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41
Q

What are the two drugs considered for tx of atopy?

A

Hydroxyzine

Clemastine

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42
Q

Why is fish oil used for FA supplementation in atopy patients

A

Arachidonic acid (fish oil) is less likely to break down and result in inflammation compared to mammalian oils

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43
Q

What is skin lipid therapy and what is the effectiveness of treatment for atopy?

A

Helps restore the epidermal barrier to lessen inflammation by not allowing as many allergens to enter skin
Fair evidence of tx
Ex: dermoscent, duoxo, allerderm

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44
Q

What drugs have strong evidence of treatment against atopy?

A

Glucocorticoids, cyclosporine A, oclactinib

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45
Q

What is the difference in a food allergy vs. dietary intolerance?

A

Food allergy=immune response

Dietary intolerance= no immune response

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46
Q

What are the three most common antigens in food that causes allergies?

A

Proteins
Glycoproteins
Carbohydrates

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47
Q

What is the most common Ag in dogs and cats?

A

Beef protein

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48
Q

What type of hypersensitivity does food allergies have?

A

Type I hypersensitivity

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49
Q

What are examples of innate immune defense to food allergens?

A

Anatomical: defense-intact mucosa of intestine
Physiological: stomach pH, mucous protective layer/peristalsis, temp
Non-specific: neutrophils, macrophages and NK cells

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50
Q

Food allergens are prevented by passing through intestinal wall by what two things?

A

Innate immunity and IgA antibodies lining the mucosal layer

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51
Q

What are four cell types that capture the antigens in food allergy response?

A

Macrophages
Dendritic cells
M-cells
Enterocytes

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52
Q

What do T1 vs. T2 helper cells activate?

A

T1 Helper Cells: activates cell mediated immunity (T-lymph proliferation and macrophage activation)
T2 Helper Cells: activates humoral immunity (B-lymph proliferation –> production of Ig)

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53
Q

What are two other hypersensitivity reactions that can occur from food allergens?

A 
Type I (IgE related)- most common
Type IV (macrophage related)
Type III (Ag-Ab complex)
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54
Q

If a pet is < 6mo. old- what is the order of skin allergy causes?

A

Fleas, food allergies, atopy

Food allergies are more common than atopy in patients <6 mo.

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55
Q

What is the distribution of pruritus for food allergy dogs and cats?

A

Cats: head, face, pinnae, neck
Dogs: muzzle, ears, distal limbs/paws/interdigital, axillae, groin/ventral abdomen

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56
Q

What is the only way to dx food allergies?

A

Positive response to elimination diet

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57
Q

What is the biggest limitation to elimination diet?

A

Owner compliance

poor vet-owner communication

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58
Q

What is the only way to definitively say a dog has a food allergy?

A

Colonoscopy allergen provocation

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59
Q

What is the best diet for food allergy patients?

A

Homemade hypoallergenic diet: novel protein & free of additives
Proteins: pinto beans, tofu, venison, duck, rabbit, fish, squid, ostrich, crocodile, kangaroo, other wild game
Carbs: brown rice, sweet potatoe

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60
Q

What is considered to be the LEAST allergenic diet?

A

Brown rice and tofu

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61
Q

What makes a hydrolyzed diet a good option for food allergy patients?

A

The smaller the particle- the less antigenic they become. Particles are so small they cannot bind to IgE on mast cells, preventing degranulation
Should be <10,000 Da
< 3,000 Da makes food hypoallergenic

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62
Q

T/F: Hydrolyzed diets are 100% hypoallergenic

A

FALSE- there are still carb and lipid sources inside the diet

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63
Q

T/F: Owner compliance for hydrolyzed diets are excellent compared to home made diets

A

TRUE

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64
Q

What is considered to have sudden onset of local or generalized wheal and edematous swelling?

A

Urticaria and Angioedema

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65
Q

What is the tx for angioedema?

A

Remove ag

Injectable IV or IM antihistamine

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66
Q

What type of hypersensitivity does contact dermatitis have?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

Extremely rare dermatosis and can take up to 8 weeks to develop (hairless regions)

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67
Q

Which mite causes intense pruritus and is very contagious and zoonotic?

A

Sarcoptes scabei

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68
Q

What is a specific reflex that is observed with sarcoptic mange?

A

Pinnal pedal reflex

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69
Q

Where are lesions caused by sarcoptic mange typically found?

A

hocks, elbows, pinnal margins

Predilection for sparsely haired areas

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70
Q

What is the treatment for sarcoptic mange?

A 
Topical dip (lime sulfur)
Topical spot-on or systemic
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71
Q

T/F: Demodex canis is a normal inhabitant of the skin

A

TRUE

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72
Q

What is the pathogenesis of demodex canis?

A

Cell mediated immunity impaired (TH1 response)

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73
Q

What is the difference of localized and generalized demodecosis?

A

Localized: young patients with 1-6 well cirucmscribed erythematous, scaly, non-pruritic areas (face/forelimbs)
Generalized: <18 months, over 12 lesions

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74
Q

What is the dx method used for demodex?

A

Deep skin scrape- look for cigar shaped organisms on the slide

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75
Q

What is the treatment for localized demodecosis?

A

Typically heals spontaneously- no tx needed unless owner demands one
DON’T USE AMITRAX- encourages resistance

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76
Q

What is teh treatment for generalized demodecosis?

A

Long-term treatment
If present for longer than 1 yr. definitely needs tx
Amitraz dip is most widely accepted tx (250 ppm every 14 days)

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77
Q

What drug should always be avoided when treating demodex patients?

A

Steroids

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78
Q

What shampoo can be used to miximize amitraz tx?

A

benzoyl peroxide shampoo with a 10 minute contact time

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79
Q

What is another tx option for demodex patients?

A

Ivermectin at high doses

Make sure your patient is free from the MDR-1/ABCB-1 gene

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80
Q

What is the name of the mite that lives on the hair?

A

Cheyletiellosis- walking dandruff

ZOONOTIC

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81
Q

What is a dx test for Cheyletiellosis?

A

3m/acetate tape test

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82
Q

What are your treatment options for Cheyletiellosis?

A

Shampoos- selenium sulphide, permetrhin, lime sulphur (weekly)
Selemectin, moxidectin (Q2wks)
Fipronil or amitraz dips

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83
Q

What derm lesion do hookworms cause?

A

Cutaneous larval migrans

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84
Q

What is the dx and tx for hookworms?

A

Dx: fecal floatation
Tx: deworm Q2wks (important because the PPP is 3 wks)

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85
Q

What seasons are chiggers commonly found?

A

Fall and spring

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86
Q

Where are chiggers commonly found on the animal?

A

Legs, head and abdomen

looks like paprika

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87
Q

What is the tx for chiggers?

A

Pyrethrin dips and topical anti-parasitic drugs

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88
Q

What is the difference of surface pyoderma, superficial pyoderma and deep pyoderma?

A

Surface: surface of skin- alopecia and red/inflammed skin
Superficial pyoderma: epidermal layer and/or hair follicles- papules, pustules, epidermal collarettes, crusts
Deep pyoderma: dermal layer of subcutis plus follicles

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89
Q

What are causes of surface pyoderma?

A

Pyotraumatic pyoderma (HOT SPOT)
intertrigo (fold rash)
Mucocutaneous pyoderma
bacterial overgrowth

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90
Q

What are some causes of superficial pyoderma?

A

Impetigo (puppy dermatitis)
Superficial bacterial folliculitis
Superficial spreading pyoderma

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91
Q

What are some causes of deep pyoderma?

A 
Folliculitis/furunculosis
Lick granuloma
Muzzle pyoderma
Pedal pyoderma
Cellulitis
Pyotraumatic syndrome folliculitis/furunculosis
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92
Q

What are three main CS of pyoderma?

A

Pustules, papules and crusts

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93
Q

What is the difference in tx options for surface, superficial and deep pyoderma?

A

Surface- topical medication
Superficial- systemic and topical
Deep- long term systemic and topical

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94
Q

When must cultures be performed in pyoderma dx and what is the best lesion to culture?

A

Deep pyoderma always has to have a culture

Culture pustules

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95
Q

What are two common topical tx for pyoderma?

A

Benzoyl peroxide- drying and follicular flushing activity

Chlorhexidine: less drying, no follicular flushing activity

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96
Q

What is the contact time for shampoos used for pyodermas?

A

10-15 minute contact time

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97
Q

What is mupirocin used for?

A

Highly effective topically against gram positive bacteria including MRSA
Bacteriostatic at LOW concentrations and bacteriocidal at HIGH concentrations

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98
Q

What is the first line of systemic treatment for pyoderma?

A

Cephalosporins (cephalexin)
Amoxicillin
Clindamycin

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99
Q

What is the second line of systemic treatment for pyoderma?

A

Sulfas
Erythromycin
Lincomycin
Doxycycline

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100
Q

What is the 3rd line of systemic tx for pyoderma?

A

Fluoroquinolones

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101
Q

How long should you treat for superficial vs. deep pyodermas?

A

Superficial: 1 week beyond resolution
Deep: 2 w beyond resolution

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102
Q

What is another name for a hot spot?

A

Acute traumatic pyodermatitis

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103
Q

What is mucocutatneous pyoderma?

A

Mucocutaneous swelling, erythema, crusting found around the mouth
Symmetrical lesions on either commissure

104
Q

What is the treatment for mucocutaneous pyoderma?

A

topical antibiotic, silver sulfadiazine

105
Q

What are the clinical signs of acute traumatic dermatitis?

A

Red, moist, edudative, crusting-erosive and ulcerative

106
Q

What are the most common causes of acute traumatic dermatitis?

A

FBA
Impacted anal glands
Irritated ears

107
Q

What is the cause of impetigo?

A

AKA puppy pyoderma

Staphylococcus in young dogs due ot poor husbandry

108
Q

What are CS of impetigo?

A

Pustules, non-follicular pustules, ventral hairless areas affected

109
Q

What is the treatment for impetigo?

A

Local tx
Antibacterial shampoos
Topical antibiotics washes/creams

110
Q

What are the three most common causes of folliculitis in dogs?

A

Bacterial
Dermatopytes
Demodex

111
Q

What is the most important pathogen relating to deep pyoderma?

A

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

112
Q

What are the breed associated clinical signs for deep pyoderma?

A

GSD: rump and lateral thoracic wall regions

Bull terriers: hocks, elbows, ventral ab, pododdermatitis

113
Q

T/F: Steroids should be used in cases of pyoderma

A

FALSE- these will suppress the immune system

114
Q

What is a good tx choice for pseudintermedius?

A

Cephalexin

115
Q

What kind of bacteria is actinomyces?

A

Gram positive anaerobic organism

116
Q

When is actinomycosis seen?

A

Infections following trauma or penetrating wounds- common in hunting dogs

117
Q

What are CS of actinomyces?

A

Subcutaneous abscesses, draining tracts with sulfur granules

118
Q

What is the tx for actinomycosis?

A

Surgical debulking and long-term antibiotics (clindamycin)

119
Q

What type of organism is nocardia spp?

A

Gram positive, filamentous aerobe

120
Q

What can nocardia commonly result in?

A

Pyothorax

121
Q

What is the tx for nocardia?

A

Surgical debulking, drainage and long-term ab (TMS, ampicillin, erythro, monocycline)

122
Q

What is the tx for saprophytic mycobacterium?

A

WIDE surgical excision with long term antibiotics (clarithromycin, enroflox, doxy)

123
Q

What is intertrigo?

A

Skin fold pyoderma

124
Q

What is the most common treatment for intertrigo?

A

Topical management

125
Q

Where are yeasts commonly found?

A

Warm and moist environments

Ear, lip folds, ventral neck, axilla, interdigital and perianal region

126
Q

What breeds are commonly seen with yeast issues?

A

Westies

127
Q

What are CS of yeast infections?

A

Pruritis
Malodor
Erythema, greasy scaly plaques

128
Q

What is the cytologic characteristic of yeast?

A

Round to oval budding peanut shaped

129
Q

What are the topical anti-fungal treatments?

A

Ketoconazole, miconazole, selenium sulfide (anti-yeast shampoos)

130
Q

What are two systemic anti-fungal tx?

A

Ketoconazole, itraconazole

131
Q

What is the name of the organism that causes ringworm and what patients do you commonly see this in?

A

Dermatophytosis

Young and immunosuppressed animals- prefers actively growing hair

132
Q

What are three dx modalities that can be used for dermatophytosis?

A

Wood’s lamp
Microscopy of hair pluck
Fungal culture

133
Q

What are some topical therapies used for ringworm?

A

Ketoconazole shampoo or eniloconazole rinse

134
Q

What are some systemic anti-fungal drugs that are used for ringworm?

A

Ketoconazole or itraconazole (6-12 months)

135
Q

What is symmetrical alopecia in cats commonly caused by?

A

Psychogenic alopecia (new baby, new dog, recent move)

136
Q

What areas are most commonly affected in cats with psychogenic alopecia?

A

Medial thighs, ventral abdomen, medial forelimbs

137
Q

Where on the cat does feline scabies affect?

A

Pinna, face, neck, forelimbs and anywhere where the cat can’t groom well

138
Q

T/F: If your cat has demodex gatoi, you should tx the same as you would in dogs with amitraz dip

A

FALSE- toxic to cats

139
Q

What is the most common cause of otitis in cats?

A

Otodectic cyanosis

140
Q

What is the name for the fur mite that commonly is referred to as “salt and pepper”?

A

Lynxacarus radovsky

Dx: acetate tape test

141
Q

What are the three presentations of eosinophilic granuloma complex?

A

Indolent ulcer (non-painful and non-pruritic)
Eosinophilic plaques
Collagenolytic granuloma

142
Q

What are the two endocrine diseases that can cause alopecia seen in cats?

A

Hyperthyroidism

Hyperadrenocorticism

143
Q

What is defined as a crusted papule with multifocal distribution of skin lesions in cats?

A

Miliary dermatitis

144
Q

What are some common causes of miliary dermatitis?

A

Flea allergy dermatitis

viral: herpes, FIV, FeLV

145
Q

Describe the indolent/rodent ulcer (form of eosinophilic granuloma complex)

A

Most common form
Proliferative inflammatory lesion with dish shaped ulcer centrally
Upper/lower lip- non-painful/non-pruritic

146
Q

Describe the eosinophilic plaque (form of eosinophilic granuloma complex)

A

Reddish-yellow, ulcerated, edematous, INTENSELY PRURITIC
Medial thigh, ventral abdomen
Raised and flat
DDx: calicivirus/neoplasia

147
Q

Describe the collagenolytic granuloma/eosinophilic granuloma (form of eosinophilic granuloma complex)

A

Rare form
Linear or raised nodule, firm, yellow-pink lesion
Caudal hind limbs or abdomen, around nails
Non-painful/pruritic

148
Q

What is atypical esoinophilic granuloma typically associated with?

A

Mosquitos- depigmentation of skin over bridge of nose and ear pinnae

149
Q

What is the tx for eosinophilic granuloma complex?

A

First put on strict parasite control!

Glucocorticoids and cyclosporine A can be used if needed

150
Q

What is known as idiopathic disorder of follicular keratinization?

A

Feline acne

151
Q

What are the CS of feline acne?

A

Comedones on chin and lower lip, papules, pustules

152
Q

What can be used for feline acne treatment?

A

Clip and clean area with benzoyl peroxide

Can use vitamin A if necessary

153
Q

What is the pathogenesis of feline leprosy?

A

Chronic bacterial infection

154
Q

What are the infectious vs. non-infectious causes of feline leprosy?

A

Non-infectious: panniculitis, collagenolytic granuloma, FB, neoplasia
Infectious: bacterial (nocardia, actinomyces, mycobacterium) or fungal (dermatomycoses)

155
Q

What are the CS of feline leprosy?

A

Nodules that open and drain

156
Q

What is the dx method for feline leprosy?

A

Skin biopsy

157
Q

What are the dx methods used for immune-mediated skin disorders?

A

Histopathology

Immunohistochemistry

158
Q

What is the difference of granulosum, spinosum and basale lesions?

A

Granulosum: erosion/scaling
Spinosum: erosion
Basale: epidermis comes off –> ulcer

159
Q

What are the treatment options for immune mediated skin disorders?

A

Immunosuppressive drugs- glucocorticoids and cyclosporine A

Cats= chlorambucil (they can’t clear azathioprine)

160
Q

What is a vesciulobullous to pustular disorder of the skin or MM characterized by acantholysis?

A

Pemphigus complex

161
Q

What is acantholysis?

A

Loss of intercellular connections resulting in loss of cohesions between keratinocytes
Prime example of immune-mediated dz affecting epidermis

162
Q

What is the benign form of pemphigus foliacious?

A

Pemphigus erythematosus

163
Q

What dog breeds are pre-disposed to pemphigus erythematosus and what locations?

A

Collies and GSD- NOSE

164
Q

What might aggregate pemphigus erythematosus lesions?

A

UV light

165
Q

What are the CS of pemphigus erythematosus?

A

Erythema, pustular dermatitis (face and ears)
Primary lesions: oozing, crusts, scale, alopecia, erosion bordered by epidermal collarettes
Nose commonly depigments

166
Q

What are the dx tests for pemphigus erythematosus?

A

Histopath and immunofluorescence

167
Q

What is the tx for pemphigus erythematosus?

A

Sun avoidance

Topical glucocorticoids or Cyclosporine

168
Q

What is the most common immune-mediated condition in dogs?

A

Pemphigus folliaceus

169
Q

What is the major antigen involved with pemphigus folliaceus?

A

Desmoglein 1

170
Q

What is the common age for pemphigus folliaceus?

A

< 5y

171
Q

What are the CS for pemphigus folliaceus?

A

Pustular dermatitis- more crusting and scaling compared to phemphigus erythematosus
Face and ears- hyperkeratotic foot pads (similar to distemper)
See scales, alopecia and erosions bordered by epidermal collarettes
Nasal depigmentation is common

172
Q

What is the dx choice for pemphigus folliaceus?

A

Histopath and immunofuorescence

173
Q

What layers is pemphigus folliaceus found between?

A

Stratum corneum and granulosum

174
Q

What is the management for pemphigus folliaceus?

A

Topical corticosteroids or cyclosporine (prednisolone may be required in extensive cases)
Cats- chlorambucil
Dogs: azathioprine

175
Q

What is the second most rarest pemphigus complex dz in which cats cannot contract?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

176
Q

What do antibodies react with in pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Desmoglein 3

177
Q

What are CS of pemphigus vulgaris?

A 
Vesiculobullous dz
Affects oral cavity, mucocutaneous junctions, skin or any combo
Halitosis/excessive salivation
cutaneous lesions in axilla and groin
ucerative paronchyia (nail bed lesions)
178
Q

What is the tx for pemphigus vulgaris?

A

High doses of prednisolone and azathioprine (chlorambucil in cats)

179
Q

Sulphonamides, penicillins and furosemide predispose patients to this form of pemphigus

A

Bullous pemphigoid

180
Q

What are the CS of bullous pemphigoid?

A

Cutaneous lesions in groin, axilla, nail bed and oral cavity

Vesicle/bulla

181
Q

What is the difference between discoid lupus erythematosus and systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

Discoid: cutaneous lupus affecting T-HELPER cells
Systemic: affects whole system- T-SUPPRESSOR cells

182
Q

What are t-helper cells activated by in discoid lupus?

A

Damaged keratinocytes

183
Q

What are the predisposed breeds in discoid lupus?

A

Collies, GSD, shelties, huskies, brittany spaniels, pointers

184
Q

B-cells are often increased in discoid lupus producing what?

A

IgM

185
Q

What are the CS of discoid lupus?

A

Depigmentation, erythema and scaling of the nose

PE, DLE, and PF all look the SAME

186
Q

What is the method of dx for discoid lupus?

A

Histopath- thickening of BM zone due to T-cell infiltration

Anti-nuclear antibody titer and LE cell test

187
Q

What is the treatment for discoid lupus?

A

Avoid sunlight and apply topical sunscreen

Corticosteroids, vitamin E, immunomodulatory and immunosuppressive

188
Q

What are the CS seen in systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

Dogs: fever, polyarthritis, proteinuria and skin disease

Skin lesions: alopecia, erythema, vesiculobullous to ulcerative disorder

189
Q

What are the two most common drugs causing cutaneous lesions?

A

penicillin and cephalosporin

190
Q

What is the difference of predictable vs. unpredictable drug reactions?

A

Predictible: specific drug, dose-dependent
Unpredictible: dose-independent and related to host immunity

191
Q

What are the cutaneous effects of drug reactions?

A

alopecia, purpura, poor wound healing, hyperpigmentation, pruritus

192
Q

What are the CS of erythema multiforme?

A

Hydropic degeneration

Erythematous macules- elevated papules that spread peripherally and clear centrally

193
Q

Where are majority of the erythema multiforme lesions found?

A

Ventrum, axillae and groin

194
Q

What is the dx test of choice for erythema multiforme?

A

Histopath- hydropic degeneration

195
Q

This condition contains painful vesiculobullous and ulcerative lesions where the entire epidermis dies and no inflammation is on histopath

A

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

196
Q

What are the CS of Toxic epidermal necrolysis

A

Pyrexia, anorexia, lethargy and depression

Multifocal/generalized vesiculobullous dz

197
Q

What is the dx test of choice for toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

Histopath- notice full thickness epidermal necrolysis with minimal inflammation

198
Q

What are the two methods of tx toxic epidermal necrolysis?

A

Systemic glucocorticoids

Plasma- needed for proteins because they are often hypoproteinemic from losing protein from severe ulceration

199
Q

What is characterized by purapura, wheals, edema, papules, plaques, nodules, alopecia, scarring and necrosis and ulceration often involving the extremities/periphery?

A

Vasculitis

200
Q

What is the most common cause of vasculitits in dogs?

A

Rickettsial autoimmune diseases- Jack russels and dachshunds are predisposed

201
Q

What are the choices of tx for vasculitis?

A

Pentoxifylline

Immunosuppressive drugs

202
Q

What are some examples of primary keratinization disorders?

A 
Zn responsive dermatosis
Feline acne
Sebaceous adenitis
Primary idiopathic seborrhea
Schnauzer comedo syndrome
Ear margin dermatosis
203
Q

What is classified as having dry skin, white to grey flakes and scales?

A

Seborrhea sicca

Caused by parasites, fleas, allergies due to inflammation

204
Q

What is classified as having oily skin, greasy feel to hair coat, rancid odor, brown sticky, yellow scales

A

Seborrhea oleosa

Most commonly caused by malassezia

205
Q

If pruritus is present with cutaneous crusting dermatoses disorders think of….

A

Allergies(fleas, atopy and food)
Parasites (sarcoptes and cheyletiella)
Infections (pyoderma, malassezia)

206
Q

If pruritus is not present with cutaneous crusting dermatoses disorders think of….

A

Pyoderma or malassezia, demodicosis, dermatophytosis

Endocrine diseases if the signs fit

207
Q

What are the two syndromes of zn responsive dermatosis?

A

Syndrome 1: decrease capacity to absorb zinc from intestines

Syndrome 2: dietary deficiency

208
Q

What breeds are predisposed to syndrome 1 zn responsive dermatosis?

A

Siberian husky, alaskan malamute

Signs start at 1-3 years

209
Q

What is a common sign seen with zn-responsive dermatosis?

A

Hyperkeratosis around eyes and footpads

210
Q

What is the tx for zn-responsive dermatosis?

A

Oral Zn for LIFE

211
Q

What are suspected causes of sebaceous adenitis?

A

Sebaceous gland destruction/inherited defect
Cell-mediated immunological reaction
Defect in keratinization/obstruction of sebaceous ducts
Abnormal lipid metabolism

212
Q

What dog breeds are pre-disposed to sebaceous adenitis?

A

Poodles, akitas, vizslas, samoyeds, and belgium shepherds

213
Q

What are clinical signs of sebaceous adenitis?

A

Bilaterally symmetrical lesions (follicular casts and alopecia)Head, face, pinnae and trunk- non-pruritic
Ceruminous otitis externa (common)
Cats: multifocal annular lesions of scale, crust, broken hairs and alopecia

214
Q

What is the dx method for sebaceous adentitis?

A

Histopath- inflammation around sebaceous gland

215
Q

What is the tx for sebaceous adenitis?

A

Keratinolytic shampoos- retinoid or cyclosporine

Omega 3/6 FA

216
Q

What is another name for vitamin A responsive dermatosis?

A

Primary idiopathic seborrhea

217
Q

What is the MOA of primary idiopathic seborrhea?

A

Excessive epidermal turnover- cells not dying off like they should

218
Q

What breeds are commonly seen with primary idiopathic seborrhea?

A

Cockers, westies, bassets, irsih setters, persians

219
Q

What are the CS of primary idiopathic seborrhea?

A 
Severe flakiness all over skin
Weeks to months after birth- mild scaling worsening with age
Follicular casts
Ceruminous otitis common
Secondary infections common
220
Q

What is the tx for primary idiopathic seborrhea?

A

Oral vitamin A- inhibits sebum production and decreases keratin proliferation
may take 6 wks. to see response
Dry skin/hair: chlorhex, allergroom, epi-soothe, humilac, hydra-pearls
Oily skin/Hair coat: degreaser- sebolux or selsun blue

221
Q

What is the inherited dysplasia of hair follicle resulting in comedones on. back in schnauzers?

A

Schnauzer Comedo Syndrome- Schnauzer Bumps

222
Q

What are clinical signs of schnauzer bumps?

A

Follicular casts causing secondary folliculitis and furunculosis

223
Q

T/F: There is a cure for schnauzer bumps

A

FALSE- no cure- can only be controlled

224
Q

What is a condition that looks similar to vasculitis causing scaly condition of ear margins in breeds with pendulous ears- particularly dachshunds

A

Ear margin dermatosis

225
Q

What are the CS of ear margin dermatosis?

A

Follicular casts/partial alopecia

226
Q

What is the tx for ear margin dermatosis?

A

Moisturizing agents for mild cases

Complicated cases- pentoxifylline

227
Q

What is a disease of the liver that causes cutaneous lesions?

A

Superficial necrolytic dermatitis- hepacutaneous syndrome

228
Q

What are the CS of hepacutaneous syndrome?

A

Onset of skin disease occurring BEFORE signs of hepatic/pancreatic disease
FOOTPADS- hyperkeratosis

229
Q

What is the dx method used for superficial necrolytic dermatitis?

A

Hemogram and CBC- increased liver enzymes
US- honey comb pattern in liver
Biopsy lesions

230
Q

What is a self-induced trauma of skin through excessive licking and chewing?

A

Acral lick granuloma- behavioral dermatoses

231
Q

What is the treatment for acral lick granuloma?

A

Tx underlying cause and secondary infection

If needed- put on tricyclic antidepressants, serotonin re-uptake inhibitors

232
Q

What is a lupus like disease resulting in nail loss?

A

Idiopathic lupoid onychodystrophy

233
Q

What is the most common nail disorder in cats?

A

Idiopathic onychodystrophy

234
Q

What is the treatment for idiopathic lupoid onychodystrophy?

A

Essential FA, vitamin E

235
Q

What are the two dx approaches to nodular dermatoses?

A

Cytology: FNA, impression smear, culture

Bx

236
Q

What is an example of infectious nodular dermatoses in dogs?

A

Papillomatosis- caused by papilloma virus or idiopathic

237
Q

What are the CS of papillomatosis?

A

young/immunosuppressed

Cutaneous lesions

238
Q

What is the dx for papillomatosis?

A

FNA, excisional bx and histo

239
Q

What are the tx options for papillomatosis?

A

Azithromycin or topical imiquimod

240
Q

What are the four types of non-infectious nodular dermatoses?

A

Nodular panniculitis/sterile pyogranuloma
Histiocytic proliferative diseases
Nodular dermatofibrosis
Juvenile cellulitis (puppy strangles)

241
Q

What is panniculitis and steatitis?

A

Panniculitis: inflammation of SC adipose tissue
Steatitis: inflammation of fatty tissues (yellow fat)

242
Q

What are the tx options for nodular panniculitis?

A

Corticosteroids, tetracycline + niacinamide, azathioprine, cyclosporine A

243
Q

What are the histiocytic proliferative diseases?

A

Histiocytoma
Cutaneous histiocytosis
Histiocytic sarcoma

244
Q

Where are histiocytomas usually found?

A

< 4yr. patients on cranial half of body

6m dogs commonly on nose or ears

245
Q

What are the CS of histiocytoma?

A

Small, round, alopecic, red NODULE

246
Q

What is the dx method for histiocytoma?

A

Aspiration cyto- see round cells and you know they are histiocytes because of eccentric nucleus

247
Q

T/F: histiocytomas typically spontaneously regress by 4 months

A

TRUE

248
Q

What is the hystiocytic disease in cats that commonly has a poor prognosis?

A

Feline proliferative histiocytosis

249
Q

Common presentation of this disease is a GSD coming in with scar tissue forming on legs and ventral abdomen

A

ALWAYS think kidney problem first

Nodular dermatofibrosis- associated with bilateral renal cysts, cystadenomas & cystadenocarcinomas

250
Q

What breeds are predisposed to juvenile cellulitis?

A

AKA puppy strangles

Goldens, dachshunds, gordon setter

251
Q

What are the CS of juvenile cellulitis?

A

Resembles pyoderma

Facial and submandibular swelling, painful and fever

252
Q

What is a cyst?

A

Epithelial lined cavity with either solid or fluid material

253
Q

T/F: you can manually express keratin inclusion cysts?

A

FALSE- can cause subsequent furunculosis

254
Q

What is another name for Cobylobia anthrophage?

A

Mango/Tumbu fly

Attracted to urine/fecal soiled sites

255
Q

Where are the predilection sites for biting flies and tumbu flies?

A

Biting flies: tips of ears

Tumbu flies: tail base, ventral abdomen

256
Q

How should mild skin infections be treated?

A

TOPICAL meds

Shampoos- benzoyl peroxide, chlorhex

257
Q

How should severe skin infections be treated?

A

Systemic therapy

Cephalexin

RUSVM SAM II (15 decks)

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