Principles of immunization Flashcards

1
Q

What are the types of vaccines

A

Attenuated infectious agents, Inactivated/detoxified agents

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2
Q

T/F: Attenuated maintain their immunogenicity but their virulence is gone

A

True

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3
Q

What is a benefit of attenuated vaccines

A

generally considered to conger lifelong immunity in those who respond to antigen production increases

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4
Q

What is attenuated vaccine that doesn’t last for life

A

MMR

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5
Q

Which vaccine gives a stronger immune response

A

Attenuated

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6
Q

Why do inactivated vaccines have higher doses

A

The amount of antigen does not increase once in the patient

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7
Q

T/F: Inactivated vaccines usually only need one shot and last for life

A

False: Inactivated vaccines are usually needed multiple times and only last years

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8
Q

What determines the immunogenicity of a vaccine

A

chemical and physical states of the antigen, characteristics of the individual, how the antigen is presented

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9
Q

What are the characteristics of an individual that affect immunogenicity

A

genetics, physical condition

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10
Q

What parts of antigen presentation affect immunogenicity

A

route of administration, dose, timing of dose, adjuvants

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11
Q

What are benefits of T-lymphocyte-dependent immune response

A

induces immunologic memory, boosts effects with repeat administration, provides immunogenicity to all age group

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12
Q

What age groups of patients do not benefit from T-lymphocyte-independent response, do repeated injections help

A

infants, young children and elderly/ no

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13
Q

T/F: T-lymphocyte-independent response cannot be overcome

A

False: T-lymphocyte independent response can be overcome through a T-lymphocyte dependent immune response through linkage to a carrier protein

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14
Q

What route gives systemic IgG

A

IM and SC

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15
Q

What route gives local IgA and some systemic IgG

A

Oral or nasal

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16
Q

How long does it take for a full immune response

A

2 weeks

17
Q

How long does it take to for antibodies to circulate, what is the order

A

7-10 days/ low affinty IgM antibodies first followed by high affinity IgG

18
Q

How fast is the 2nd response to the same antigen

A

4 to 5 days

19
Q

T/F: Once approved, vaccines do not need to repeat the process of development even if the components change

A

True

20
Q

When does the patent life on vaccines end

A

They do not

21
Q

What is the success rate for vaccines

A

mostly 80%

22
Q

What must be considered before a vaccine is used

A

risk of disease, risk of vaccine, benefit of vaccine

23
Q

How are is the inactivated influenza vaccine manufactured

A

manufactured in eggs

24
Q

What does the trivalent vaccine contain, quadrivalent

A

A viruses H1N1 and H3N2 and one B strain, quadrivalent vaccine contains two B strains

25
Q

Why must the vaccine be changed yearly

A

Antigen drift require annual changes in vaccine components to reflect strains in circulation

26
Q

How is the inactivated influenza vaccine admnistered

A

IM

27
Q

Who should get the flu shot

A

Should be given annually to everyone greater than 6 months old

28
Q

What does the inactivated influeza vaccine prevent and at what percentage

A

50% of hospitalizations, 60% pneumonias, 80% deaths

29
Q

Who can take the live attenuated influenza vaccine, who is not recommonded for

A

ages 2 to 49/ pregnant, egg allergy, immunocompromised adults

30
Q

T/F: The live attenuated influenza vaccine is quadrivalent

A

True

31
Q

T/F: The pneuococcal capsular polysaccharide is covalently linked to protein carrier

A

True

32
Q

T/F: The pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) is great at preventing pneumonia

A

False: 97% efficacy for preventing invasive disease while being 32% effective at preventing pneumonia and otitis media

33
Q

What is the series for PCV

A

4 doses at 2,4,6 months of age, booster at 12-15 months

34
Q

What patient age groups are recommended for the vaccine with what conditions

A

adults 50 years or older with renal failur, asplenia, CSF leak or cochlear implants, immunocompromised

35
Q

What patients should recieve PCV13

A

All adults over 65, 50 years old with risk factors