STDs, mental health, and drugs Flashcards

1
Q

3 diseases that cause chancre

A

chalmydia - painful soft weepy
chancroid - painful soft bloody
syphilis - painless hard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

asymptomatic male

A

trichomonas (tricky dick)

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

asymptomatic female

A

chlamydia
gonnorhea
HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

copious and clear discharge

A

gonnorhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

frothy, foul, itchy discharge

A

trichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

curdy and itchy discharge

A

candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

watery discharge

A

herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

yellow and odorless discharge

A

chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are 3 diseases associated with chlamydia

A

lymphogranuloma venereum
PID
reiters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the MC STD in US

A

chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gonnorhea MC causes arthritis where

A

knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gonnorhea is gram ___

A

neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what has painful vesicles that is contagious

A

herpes 1 and 2

1 - lips
2 - dicks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

trichomonas is a __

A

protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what causes a soft bloody chancroid

A

haemophilus ducrey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what condition is associated with buboes

A

painful ulcers

haemophilus ducrey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what causes thrush

A

candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is treatment for herpes

A

valtrex
lysine
acyclivor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is treatment for candida

A

acidophilus a

lactobacilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what causes syphilis

A

treponema pallidum spirochete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the different types of syphilis

A

1 - primary - painless indurated (hard) lesion

2 - secondary - rash, lymphadenopathy, condylamata lata (warts/papules), alopecia

3 - tertiary - gumma (granuloma lesion), dementia, argyll robertson pupil, tabes dorsalis, rombergs test, Charcot joints

4 - congenital - Hutchinson’s triad - saddle nose, keratoses, and peg teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what STD can cross placenta

A

trepenoma pallidum spirochete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what causes lymphogranuloma venereum

symptoms

A

chlamydia

enlarged inguinal lymph nodes, elephantiasis, and rectal strictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what causes a bright beefy red lesions on the SKIN

A
granuloma inguinale 
(donovania granulomatous)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

condylomata lata is associated with what

A

secondary syphyilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

condylomata acuminata is associated with what

A

genital warts due to HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are tests for syphilis

A

FTA and ABS - specific

VDRL, RPR, washerman, dark field microscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are tests for donovanian granulomatous / granuloma inguinale

A

giemsa or wright stain

contains Donovan bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what causes genital warts

A

HPV 16 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what STD is associated wit cervical cancer

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the screen and specific test for HPV

A

screen- speculum

specific test - PAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

HPV warts are described as

A

small itchy clusters or cauliflower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what STD contains multiple skin tags that exfoliate and contain waxy papule

A

molluscum contagiosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the most common bulla lesion

A

pemphigoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

pemphigoid is an __ condition

A

autoimmune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a hereditary form of bullous lesions that occur with vesicles and papule on genitals and extensors

the patient also may have a gluten sensitivity

A

dermatitis herpetiformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

location of brain of voluntary movement

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

location of brain of personality and problem solving

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

location of brain of somatosensory

A

parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

location of brain of of vision

A

occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

location of brain of auditory and smell

A

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

location of brain of speech motor

A

frontal - brocas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

location of brain of speech sensory

A

wernickes

conjunction of parietal, temporal, and occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

location of brain of biological drive

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

location of brain of emotions

A

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

location of brain of visual and spatial

A

right parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

location of brain of understand

A

left parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what’s involved in left hemisphere

A

speech
movement of right side
sensation of right side
vision in the right half of visual field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what’s involved in right hemisphere

A

music and art
movement of left side
sensation of left side
vision in the left half of visual field

50
Q

what is reversible confusion

A

delirium

51
Q

what is non reversible confusion

A

dementia

52
Q

mania and mood swings are characteristic of what

A

bipolar disorder

53
Q

what is used to treat bipolar disorders

A

lithium

54
Q

hopelessness and suicidal thoughts are characteristic of what

A

unipolar disorder

aka depression

55
Q

similar to depression but has occurred for over 2 years

A

dysthymia

56
Q

what is the treatment for dysthymia

A

B6, magnesium, vit D,

57
Q

what are affect disorders

A

bipolar
unipolar
dysthymia
seasonal affect disorder

58
Q

what are psychotic disorders

A

schizophrenia
psychopath
sociopath/antisocial
dissociative

59
Q

altered reality, episodic, and hallucinations is characteristics of what

A

schizophrenia

60
Q

no regard for self or others and lack of empathy is characteristic of what

A

psychopath

61
Q

believes they are superior, lacks remorse, and are typically violent are characteristic of what

A

sociopath/antisocial

62
Q

multiple personalities and associated with childhood trauma is characteristic of what

A

dissociative disorder

63
Q

convinced of body flaws are characteristic of what

A

dysmorphia

64
Q

what are somatoform disorders

A
dysmorphia 
food disorder 
conversion disorder 
hypochondriac 
somatizaiton 
somatoform pain disorder
morgellons disease 
munchausens syndrome
65
Q

what are different food disorders

A

anorexia nervosa
bulimia
pica

66
Q

psychic conflict that causes physical symptoms are characteristic of what

A

conversion disorder

67
Q

preoccupation with personal health and contracting illnesses are characteristic of what

A

hypochondriac

68
Q

delusional parastiosis which believes insects or parasites are invading them are characteristic of what

A

moregellons disease

69
Q

individual exaggerates personal complaints are characteristic of what

A

munchausens syndrome

70
Q

what are anxiety disorders

A
general 
panic attacks 
phobias 
OCD 
PTSD
neurosis
71
Q

constant excessive fear and hypervigilants are characteristic of what

A

GAD

72
Q

repetitive thoughts and actions are characteristic of what

A

OCD

73
Q

fear and anxiety following emotional event are characteristic of what

A

PTSD

74
Q

what are sexual disorders

A

masochist - likes abuse
sadist - inflicts abuse
voyeur - enjoys watching
exhibitionist - enjoys showing

75
Q

language issues is a characteristic of what

A

autism

76
Q

impulsive pattern and dyslexia with sleep and reading issues are characteristic of what

A

ADD

77
Q

what is it called when you transfer one drive to opposite expression

A

reaction formation

78
Q

what is it called when you act out emotion on someone else

A

displacement

79
Q

what is it called when you have no feelings

A

denial

80
Q

what is it called when you ignore feelings

A

repression

81
Q

what is it called when you act younger

A

regression

82
Q

what is it called when you replace socially unacceptable behavior with a more acceptable but similar behavior

A

sublimation

83
Q

what personality disorder is characterized by self love

A

narcissism

84
Q

what personality disorder is characterized feeling inadequate

A

avoidant

85
Q

what personality disorder is characterized by being over dramatic and acting like a victim

A

histrionic

86
Q

what personality disorder is characterized lacks primary thinking process and manipulates facts

A

borderline personality disorder

87
Q

what is milieu therapy

A

life style changes, vacation, in patient

88
Q

what is ECT therapy

A

electroconvulsive therapy for severe depression

89
Q

what is freud therapy

A

dream analysis and hypnotherapy

90
Q

what are IQ tests

A

standford binet

WISC test

91
Q

what are personality tests

A

MMPI

92
Q

what are anxiolytic drugs

A

zines, mines, pines

pams, rams, lams

HALDOL

tranquilizers

93
Q

what drugs cause falls in elderly

A

tranquilizers

94
Q

what are blood thinners

A

In’s thin the blood

vitamin C and E

DICUMAROL

avoid vitamin K

95
Q

what are sedative and hypnotic drugs

A

barbiturates

96
Q

what poisons block cholinesterase

A

organophosphates

insecticides

97
Q

what causes dry eyes, nose, and mouth

A

atropine

98
Q

metallic taste and black stools is caused by what

A

acute lead poisoning

99
Q

blue gum lines are caused by

A

chronic lead poisoning

100
Q

poison found in crayons, toys, and paints

A

mercury

101
Q

what is the most common gas poison

A

CO - motors, cigs, cars

102
Q

what are depression drugs

A
MAO inhibitors 
Elavil/tricyclic 
prozac 
SSRI
lithium carbonate
103
Q

what are analgesic drugs

A

NSAIDS

salicyclates

104
Q

what is Reyes syndrome

what is it caused by

what is it similar to

A

caused by salicylates (aspirin)

post viral influenza in children
acute encephalopathy
HEADACHE, vomit, amnesia, rash, seizures

similar to Guillian barre (no headache)

105
Q

chronic use of salicylate/aspirin causes

A

tinnitus

GI bleeding

106
Q

what antibiotic can cause hearing problems

A

streptomycin

107
Q

what antibiotic is given for anaphylactic shock and rash

A

penicillin

108
Q

what antibiotic causes yellow teeth and binds to calcium

avoid dairy and sun

A

tetracycline

109
Q

what antibiotic stunts GI neurotransmitters and causes autism

A

amoxicillin

110
Q

what antibiotic can cause tendon tears and ruptures

A

levaquin

111
Q

allopurinol is used for what

A

chronic gout

112
Q

cochinine is used for what

A

acute gout

113
Q

what is given for NSAID overdose

A

N acetylcysteine antidote

114
Q

what’s Antabuse used for

A

alcohol

115
Q

what is dilantin used for

A

seizure

116
Q

what is digitalis used for

A

strengthen heart contractions

117
Q

what are propranolol use for

A

migraines

heart arrythmias

118
Q

what is Ritalin used for

A

ADD

119
Q

what is a poisons mushroom

A

muscarine

120
Q

what is a hallucinogenic mushroom

A

psilocybin