A cultural approach to human development week 1-2 chapt 1-4 Flashcards
(280 cards)
1
Q
For most of history The human population was under?
A
10 Million
2
Q
With the development of agriculture and domestication of animals, the population began to increase around?
A
10,000 years ago.
3
Q
What is the projected population in 2090?
A
10 billion.
4
Q
Developed countries make up what % of the worlds population?
A
20%
5
Q
Nearly all the population growth in the decades to come will take place in the economically
developing countries. T or F
A
True
6
Q
Name given to countries that have lower levels of income and education than developed countries but are
experiencing rapid economic
growth
A
Developing countries
7
Q
Name given to world’s most economically developed and affluent
countries, with the highest
median levels of income and
education
A
Developing countries
8
Q
Current population of developing contries.
A
6 billion, about 82% of the world’s population
9
Q
Current population of developed countries.
A
1.3 billion, about 18% of the total world population
10
Q
With respect to income, what percentage of the world’s population live on less than $2 a day?
A
40%
11
Q
What percent of the world population live on a family income of less than $6000 per year?
A
80%
12
Q
What do you call the increasing connections between
different parts of the world in
trade, travel, migration and
communication
A
Globalization
13
Q
Definintion: within a country, the cultural
group that sets most of the
norms and standards and holds
most of the positions of political,
economic, intellectual and
media power
A
Majority culture
14
Q
Settings and circumstances that contribute to variations in pathways of human development are called?
A
Contexts.
15
Q
Between now and 2050, the increase in the population of the United States will be nearly entirely caused by what?
a increased life expectancy
b Higher majority fertility
c Higher minority fertility
d immigration
A
d immigration
16
Q
S. is a young girl who lives in a rural area of a developing country. Her family adheres strongly to
the historical traditions of their culture. S. lives in a(n) ______________ culture.
a conservative
b traditional
c archaic
d conventional
A
b traditional
17
Q
Definition: cultural values such as
independence and self
expression
A
Individualistic
18
Q
cultural values such as
obedience and group harmony
A
Collectivistic
19
Q
in developing countries, a rural
culture that adheres more
closely to cultural traditions than
people in urban areas do is called what?
A
Traditional culture
20
Q
A. and W. are brothers. A. owns a cleaning business, and W. helps when the jobs are too big for A. to do alone. These brothers most likely live in a(n)
______________ culture.
a collectivistic
b individualistic
c conventional
d caste
A
a collectivistic
21
Q
Dr Wu is conducting research and plans to measure the socioeconomic status (SeS) of his participants. His measure of SeS will most likely include which of
the following?
a income level, education level and occupational status
b income level, area of education or specialised training, and race
c income level and reputation
d income level and ethnicit
A
a income level, education level and occupational status
22
Q
Phoebe is very proud of her ability to speak Japanese, her parents’ native language, and she has taught herself a number of traditional Japanese
dances and songs. Phoebe is proud of her
______________.
a ethnicity
b majority culture
c socioeconomic status
d caste status
A
a ethnicity
23
Q
characteristic pattern of individual
development in a species
A
ontogenetic
24
Q
pertaining to the development of
a species
A
phylogenetic
25
evolutionary process in which
the offspring best adapted to
their environment survive to
produce offspring of their own
natural selection
26
According to evolutionary biologists, humans, chimpanzees and gorillas had a common primate ancestor until humans, chimpanzees and gorillas had a common primate ancestor until____ years ago
6-8 million
27
The evolutionary line that eventually led to humans is known as the
_____.
hominid line
28
how many years ago did the early hominid species evolved into our species, Homo sapiens
200,000yrs
29
evolutionary line that led to
modern humans
hominid
30
species of modern humans
Homo sapiens
31
social and economic system in
which economic life is based on
hunting (mostly by males) and
gathering edible plants (mostly
by females)
hunter–gatherer
32
period of human history from
40 000 to 10 000 years ago,
when distinct human cultures
first developed
Upper Palaeolithic period
33
era of human history from
10 000 to 5000 years ago, when
animals and plants were first
domesticated
Neolithic period
34
form of human social life,
beginning about 5000 years
ago, that includes cities, writing,
occupational specialisation and
states
civilisation
35
centralised political system that
is an essential feature of a
civilisation
state
36
branch of psychology that
examines how patterns of human
functioning and behaviour have
resulted from adaptations to
evolutionary conditions
evolutionary psychology
37
Unlike earlier hominids, Homo sapiens had
______________.
a much heavier and thicker bones
b smaller teeth and jaws
c a slightly smaller brain
d a narrower pelvis among females and a larger pelvis among males
b smaller teeth and jaws
38
Which of the following statements best describes the effects of natural selection?
a Species are eliminated, or ‘selected’, one-by-one over thousands of years, and no new species are developed.
b Species change little by little with each generation, and over a long period of time they can develop into new species.
c New species are naturally developed only every 2000 years, and all previously existing species die out.
d Species change over short periods of time, and this change occurs roughly every 1000 years.
b Species change little by little with each generation, and over a long period of time they can develop into new species.
39
The dramatic change in the development of the human
species that took place during the Upper Palaeolithic period was that, for the first time, ______________.
a brains got larger
b tools were created
c art appeared
d jaws got larger to eat a wider variety of plants
c art appeared
40
Dr Jenks is interested in how mate selection is shaped by our evolutionary history. She most likely considers herself a(n) ______________.
a biopsychologist
b developmental psychologist
c evolutionary psychologist
d social archaeologist
c evolutionary psychologist
41
Which of the following is TRUe?
a The development of larger brains allowed our species to be capable of altering our environment.
b Biologically, humans have changed drastically since the origin of Homo sapiens.
c There are fewer than 10 cultures around the world today.
d We are a species that originated in South Asia
a The development of larger brains allowed our species to be capable of altering our environment.
42
Earliest scientific theory of human development was devised by
Sigmund Freud (1856-1939)
43
fist method of Psychotherapy developed by freud.
Psychoanalysis
44
Purpose of psychoanalysis
To bring patients repressed memories from the unconscious into consciousness.
45
Human Development : A Cultural Approach, Australian and New Zealand Edition
psychosexual theory
46
Main feature of Frueds Infancy (oral) stage
Human Development : A Cultural Approach, Australian and New Zealand Edition
47
Childs desire to displace their same-sex parent and enjoy sexual access to the other-sex parent
Oedipus complex
48
Main feature of Frueds Toddler (anal) stage.
Sexual sensations centered around the anus; High interest in faeces; pleasure derived from elimination
49
Main feature of Frued's early childhood (phallic) stage
sexual sensations move to the genitals; sexual desire for other sex parent and fear of same sex parent.
50
Main features of the middle childhood (latency) stage
sexual desires repressed; focus on developing social and cognitive skills
51
Main feature of Adolescence (Genital) stage
Re-emergence of sexual desire, now directed outside the family.
52
Erikson’s theory that human development is driven by the need to become integrated into the social and cultural environment
Psychosocial theory
53
what were the two main differences in eriksons theory from freuds theory
First, it was a psychosocial theory, in which the driving force behind development was not sexuality but the need to become integrated into the social and cultural environment. Second, Erikson viewed development as continuing throughout the life span, not as determined solely by the early years as in Freud’s theory.
54
Erikson proposed how many stages of development
8
55
Eriksons stage 1
Infancy- Trust vs mistrust: Main developmental challange is to establish a bond with a trusted caregiver.
56
Erikson's stage 2
Toddlerhood - Autonomy vs shame and doubt: Main developmental challenge is to develop a healthy sense of self as distinct from others.
57
Eriksons stage 3
Early childhood- initiative vs guilt:
Main developmental challenge is to initiate activities in a purposeful way.
58
Eriksons stage 4
Middle childhood- Industry vs inferiority:
Main developmental challenge is to begin to learn knowledge and skills of one's culture.
59
Eriksons stage 5
Adolescence - Identity vs role confusion:
Main developmental challenge is to develop a secure and coherent identity
60
Erikson stage 6
Early adulthood- intimacy vs isolation:
Main developmental challenge is to establish a committed long-term love relationship
61
Erikson stage 7
Middle adulthood- generativity vs stagnation: Main developmental challenge is to care for others and contribute to the wellbeing of the young.
62
Eriksons stage 8
Late adulthood- Ego integrity vs despair:
Main developmental challenge is to evaluate one's lifetime and accept it as it is.
63
Bronfenbrenner’s theory that human development is shaped by five interrelated systems in the social environment
Ecological theory.
64
Bronfenbrenner's theory was intended to what?
Draw attention to the broader cultural environment that people experience as they develop, and to the ways the different levels of a persons environment interact
65
According to brofenbrenner, how many key levels or systems play a part in human development?
5
66
Bronfenbrenner’s term for the immediate environment, the settings where people experience There daily lives.
1. The microsystem.
67
c network of interconnections between the various microsystems.
2. The mesosystem
68
Bronfenbrenner’s term for the societal institutions that have indirect but potentially important influences on development.
3. The exosystem
69
Bronfenbrenner’s term for the broad system of cultural beliefs and values, and the economic and governmental systems that are built on those beliefs and values.
4. Macrosystem
70
Bronfenbrenner’s term for the changes that occur in developmental circumstances over time, both with respect to individual development and to historical changes.
5. The chronosystem
71
a model for understanding human development that includes three principles: (1) humans always develop within a culture; (2) it is necessary to study people in diverse cultures for a full understanding of human development; and (3) today, cultural identities are becoming more complex around the world
Cultural-developmental aproach.
72
new life stage in developed countries, lasting from the late teens through the 20s, in which people are gradually making their way towards taking on adult responsibilities in love and work
Emerging adulthood
73
nearly all cells in the human body contain how many chromosomes?
46 chromosomes in 23 pairs with one chromosome in each pair inherited from each parent.
74
Chromosomes are composed of complex molecules known as
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
75
DNA in the chromosomes is organised into segments called what?
Genes.
76
Basic units of hereditary information
Genes.
77
Genes contain paired sequenced of chemicals called?
Nucleotides.
78
approximately how many genes in our 46 chromosomes?
23,000
79
sausage-shaped structure in the nucleus of cells, containing genes, which are paired, except in
reproductive cells
chromosome
80
long strand of cell material that stores and transfers genetic information in all life forms
gene
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
81
segment of DNA containing coded instructions for the growth and functioning of the organism
gene
82
entire store of an organism’s hereditary information
genome
83
The totality of an individual’s genes is
the?
genotype
84
person’s actual characteristics are called the?
phenotype
85
In part, the difference
between genotype and phenotype is a consequence of?
the person’s environment.
86
organism’s unique genetic inheritance
genotype
87
organism’s actual characteristics, derived from its genotype
phenotype
88
Another aspect of genetic functioning that influences the relation between genotype and phenotype is?
dominant–recessive inheritance
89
pattern of inheritance in which a pair of chromosomes contains one dominant and one recessive
gene, but only the dominant gene is expressed in the phenotype?
dominant–recessive inheritance
90
on a pair of chromosomes, each of two forms of a gene
allele
91
form of dominant–recessive inheritance in which the phenotype is influenced primarily by thedominant gene but also to some extent by the recessive gene?
incomplete dominance
92
In a female the pair of sex chromosomes is called
XX
93
In a male the pair of sex chromosomes is called.
XY
94
Its the mother who determines what the sex of a child will be T or F
false
95
chromosomes that determine whether an organism is male (XY) or female (XX)
sex chromosomes
96
Males are at a greater risk of developing a wide variety of gentically based conditions, including learing and intellectual disabilities.
True
97
Identical or monozygotic twins have what % of their genes in common?
100%
98
fraternal or dizygotic twins and siblings have ____ of their genes in common.
40-60%
99
field in the study of human development that aims to identify the extent to which genes influence behaviour, primarily by comparing people who share different amounts of their genes
behaviour genetics
100
twins that result when two ova are released by a female instead of one, and both are fertilised by different sperm; also called fraternal twins
dizygotic (DZ) twins
101
degree of similarity in phenotype among pairs of family members, expressed as a percentage
concordance rate
102
statistical estimate of the extent to which genes are responsible for the differences among people within a specific population, with values ranging from 0 to 1.00
Heritability
103
in development, the continuous bidirectional interactions between genes and environment
epigenesis
104
range of possible developmental paths established by genes; environment determines where development takes place within that range
reaction range
105
What are the three forms of genotype -> environment effects?
Passive, evocative and active
106
in the theory of genotype -> environment effects, the type that results from the fact that in a biological family, parents provide both genes and environment to their children
passive genotype → environment effects
107
in the theory of genotype → environment effects, the type that results when a person’s inherited characteristics evoke responses from others in the environment
evocative genotype → environment effects
108
in the theory of genotype → environment effects, the type that results when people seek out environments that correspond to their genotypic characteristics
active genotype → environment effects
109
cells, distinctive to each sex, that are involved in reproduction (egg cells in the ovaries of the
female and sperm in the testes of the male)
gametes
110
mature egg that develops in ovaries, about every 28 days in human females
ovum
111
process by which gametes are generated, through separation and duplication of chromosome pairs, ending in four new gametes from the original cell, each with half the number of chromosomes of the original cell
meiosis
112
process of cell replication in which the chromosomes duplicate themselves and the cell divides into two cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell
mitosis
113
in an ovum, fluid that provides nutrients for the first 2 weeks of growth if the ovum is fertilised, until the fertilised ovum reaches the uterus and begins drawing nutrients from the mother
cytoplasm
114
at the outset of meiosis, the exchange of genetic material between paired chromosomes
crossing over
115
during the female reproductive cycle, the ovum plus other cells that surround the ovum and provide nutrients
follicle
116
Sperm can live up to _ days after entering the woman’s body, but most do
not last more than _ days
5,2
117
fertilisation is most likely to take place if intercourse occurs in the ____ leading up to and including the day of ovulation
6 days
118
It is only during the first ___after the ovum enters the fallopian tube that fertilisation can occur
24 hrs
119
When the sperm head reaches the nucleus of the ovum, the final phase of ____ is triggered in the ovum
meiosis
120
Ova and sperm are called ___, and each has 23 single chromosomes.
gametes
121
Which of the following is TRUE about ova?
1. Females are born with about 1 million ova.
2. Most women run out of ova some time in their 40s.
3. About 400 ova mature during adult child-bearing years.
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
122
The first cell division does not occur until ____ after conception, but after that, cell division takes place at a faster rate
30 hours
123
first 2 weeks after conception
germinal period
124
ball of about 100 cells formed by about 1 week following conception
blastocyst
125
in the blastocyst, the outer layer of cells, which will go on to form structures that provide protection and nourishment to the embryo
trophoblast
126
in the blastocyst, the inner layer of cells, which will go on to form the embryo
embryonic disk
127
fluid-filled membrane that surrounds and protects the developing organism in the womb
amnion
128
in the womb, gatekeeper between mother and fetus, protecting the fetus from bacteria and wastesin the mother’s blood, and producing hormones that maintain the blood in the uterine lining and cause the mother’s breasts to produce milk
placenta
129
structure connecting the placenta to the mother’s uterus
umbilical cord
130
weeks 3–8 of prenatal development
embryonic period
131
in prenatal development, elapsed time since conception
gestation
132
in the embryonic period, the outer layer of cells, which will eventually become the skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system (brain and spinal cord)
ectoderm
133
in the embryonic period, the middle of the three cell layers, which will become the muscles, bones, reproductive system and circulatory system
mesoderm
134
in the embryonic period, the inner layer of cells, which will become the digestive system and the respiratory system
endoderm
135
in the embryonic period, the part of the ectoderm that will become the spinal cord and brain
neural tube
136
cell of the nervous system
neuron
137
in prenatal development, the period from week 9 until birth
fetal period
138
one of the three 3-month periods of prenatal development
trimester
139
at birth, babies are covered with this oily, cheesy substance, which protects their skin fromchapping in the womb
vernix
140
behaviour, environment or bodily condition that can have damaging influence on prenatal
development
teratogen
141
involving a combination of genetic and environmental factors
multifactorial
142
a permanent alteration of a DNA sequence that makes up a gene
genetic mutation
143
machine that uses sound waves to produce images of the fetus during pregnancy
ultrasound
144
prenatal technique for diagnosing genetic problems, involving taking a sample of cells at 5–10 weeks gestation by inserting a tube into the uterus
chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
145
Maternal mortality has decreased in developing countries over the last 30 years due to ?
improvements in nutrition and acess to health care.
146
While Australia has one of the lowest rates of maternal mortality (6.6 per 100,000), mortality for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples is more
than ____
double (14 per 100,000)
147
Infant mortality is 1.8 times higher for ____ newborns
Indigenous
148
A newborn baby may be covered with fine, fuzzy hair called
_____
lanugo
149
Newborn skin may also be coated all over with an oily, cheesy substance called ____ which protected the skin from chapping while in the womb.
vernix
150
soft spots on the skull between loosely joined pieces of the skull that shift during the birth process to assist passage through the birth canal
fontanels
151
How long will it take for a newborns scull to firmly join?
about 18 months
152
by birth the newborn
baby has ___ cells!
10 trillion
153
The typical newborn child, or
neonate , is about _____ long and weighs about___ kilograms.
50 centimetres, 3.4
154
yellowish pallor common in the first few days of life due to immaturity of the liver
neonatal jaundice
155
deprivation of oxygen during the birth process and soon after that can result in serious neurological damage within minutes
anoxia
156
Who is the apgar scale named after?
VirginiaApgar (1953).
157
The letters APGAR also correspond to the five subtests that comprise the scale:
Appearance (colour), Pulse (heart rate),
Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone) and Respiration (breathing)
158
neonatal assessment scale with five subtests: Appearance (colour), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone) and Respiration (breathing)
Apgar scale
159
In addition to their usefulness
immediately after birth, Apgar scores predict the neonate’s what?
risk of death in the first month of life
160
over ___% of Australian and American babies receive a score of 7-10 on the apgar
98%
161
Neonates are considered to have
low birth weight than ____
2500 grams
162
Small-for-date neonates are especially
at risk, with an infant death rate ___ times higher than that of preterm infants
four
163
babies born at 37 weeks gestation or less
preterm
164
term applied to neonates who weigh less than 90% of other neonates who were born at the same gestational age
small for date
165
Asia and Africa have the highest rates, and Europe the lowest.
low birth weight neonates
166
In developed countries, the primary risks for low birth weight are
mother’s older age, smoking or
having twins or multiples
167
low birth weight is the second most common cause of death in infancy, next
to genetic birth defects T or false
true
168
term for neonates who weigh 1,000–1,500 grams at birth
very low birth weight
169
term for neonates who weigh less than 1,000 grams at birth
extremely low birth weight
170
substance in lungs that promotes breathing and keeps the air sacs in the lungs from collapsing
surfactant
171
recommended care for preterm and low-birth-weight neonates, in which mothers or fathers are
advised to place the baby skin-to-skin on their chests for 2–3 hours a day for the early weeks of life
kangaroo care
172
In childhood, low birth weight predicts physical problems such as
asthma and cognitive problems that include language delays and poor school performance
173
In adolescence, low birth weight predicts relatively low
intelligence-test scores and greater likelihood of repeating a grade
relatively low intelligence-test scores and greater likelihood of repeating a grade
174
In adulthood, low
birth weight predicts brain abnormalities, attention deficits and low educational attainment, as well as
obesity and diabetes
brain abnormalities, attention deficits and low educational attainment, as well as obesity and diabetes
175
The average for neonates is___hours of sleep a day
16-17
176
Another way that neonates’ sleep is distinctive is that they spend an especially high proportion of their
sleep in _____ sleep
rapid eye movement (REM)
177
A total of _ reflexes are present at birth or shortly after
27
178
reflex that causes the neonate to turn its head and open its mouth when it is touched on the cheek or the side of the mouth; helps the neonate find the breast
rooting reflex
179
reflex in response to a sensation of falling backwards or to a loud sound in which the neonate arches its back, flings out its arms and then brings its arms quickly together in an embrace
Moro reflex
180
What is the earliest sense to develp
touch
181
like touch, what senses are well developed even in the womb.
Taste and hearing.
182
which sense is the lease developed of the neonates
sight
183
Neonates can distinguish between ___and white but not between white and other colours,
red
184
By _ months gestation, the breasts are ready to produce milk
4
185
in females, the glands that produce milk to nourish babies
mammary glands
186
in females, a reflex that causes milk to be released to the tip of the nipples in response to the sound of an infant’s cry, seeing its open mouth or even thinking about breastfeeding
let-down reflex
187
this is a kind of warm-up cry, when babies are mildly distressed. If no response comes soon, it develops into full-blown crying. It is fairly soft in volume, an unsteady whimper
punctuated by pauses and long intakes of breath
fussing
188
a cry that expels a large volume of air through the vocal cords
anger cry
189
sudden onset, with no fussing to herald it. Baby takes a large intake of breath and holds it, then lets loose
Pain cry
190
Crying peaks around age 2 months and then declines
peak pattern
191
infant crying pattern in which the crying goes on for more than 3 hours a day over more than 3 days at a time for more than 3 weeks
colic
192
Babies grow at a faster rate in their first __ than at any later time of life
year
193
principle of biological
development that growth tends to
begin at the top, with the head,
and then proceeds downwards to
the rest of the body
cephalocaudal principle
194
principle of biological
development that growth
proceeds from the middle of the
body outwards
proximodistal principle
195
during the second trimester of prenatal development neurons are produced at the astonishing rate of 250 000 per ___
minute
196
At birth, the brain is ____the size of the adult brain
one-third
197
The brain growth that occurs in the first 2 years of life involves production of more and more neurons. t or f
False
198
chemical that enables neurons
to communicate across synapses
neurotransmitter
199
part of a neuron that transmits
electrical impulses and releases
neurotransmitters
axon
200
part of the neuron that receives
neurotransmitters
dendrite
201
burst in the production of dendritic
connections between neurons
overproduction/exuberance
202
process of the growth of the
myelin sheath around the axon
of a neuron
myelination
203
process in brain development in
which dendritic connections that
are used become stronger and
faster and those that are unused
whither away
synaptic pruning
204
the brain is divided into what three major regions?
the hindbrain, the
midbrain and the forebrain.
205
The____ (part of the hindbrain) coordinates muscles and movement,
and is the fastest growing part of the brain after birth, doubling its size in the infant’s first
90 days
cerebellum
206
The ____ and ____ mature earliest and perform the basic biological
functions necessary to life.
hindbrain/ midbrain
207
The forebrain is divided into two main parts, the ___ system and the ___ cortex.
limbic/ cerebral
208
The structures of the____system include the hypothalamus, the thalamus and the hippocampus
limbic
209
The _____ is small, about the size of a peanut, but plays a key role in monitoring and regulating our basic animal functions, including hunger, thirst, body temperature, sexual
desire and hormonal levels.
hypothalamus
210
The ____ acts as a receiving and transfer centre for sensory information from the body to the rest of the brain.
thalamus
211
The ___ is crucial in memory,
especially the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory
hippocampus
212
what is the part of
the brain with the slowest growth initially, increasing only 47% in the first 90 days of life
hippocampus
213
outer portion of the brain,
containing four regions with
distinct functions
cerebral cortex
214
what accounts for 85% of the brain’s total weight
cerebral cortex
215
The____ is the basis of our distinctively human abilities, including the ability to speak and understand language, to solve complex problems and to think in terms of concepts, ideas and symbols.
cerebral cortex
216
In general, the _____ hemisphere is specialised for language
and for processing information in a sequential, step-by-step way
left
217
The ___ hemisphere is specialised for spatial reasoning and for processing information in a holistic, integrative way
right
218
specialisation of functions in the
two hemispheres of the brain
lateralisation
219
part of the brain responsible highest processes, including planning
for the future,making decisions
Frontal lobe
220
part of the brain that processes bodily
sensations
parietal lobe
221
part of the brain that processes visual
information
Occipital lobe
222
part of the brain that processes auditory information, including language
Temporal lobe
223
degree to which development
can be influenced by
environmental circumstances
plasticity
224
What age is the highest risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
2–4 months
225
____ is the leading cause of death for infants 1–12 months of age in developed
countries
SIDS
226
Indigenous Australian infants are at much greater risk of SIDS, with rates _ times higher than for non-Indigenous
infants
five
227
disease in which the body wastes
away from lack of nutrients
marasmus
228
Overall, the number-one cause of infant mortality beyond the first month but within the first year is ___
diarrhoea
229
development of motor abilities
including balance and posture as well as whole-body movements such as crawling
gross motor development
230
development of motor abilities
involving finely tuned movements
of the hands such as grasping
and manipulating objects
fine motor development
231
ability to discern the relative
distance of objects in the
environment
depth perception
232
ability to combine the images of
the two eyes into one image
binocular vision
233
The key to depth perception is ___
binocular vision,
234
classic experiment by Eleanor Gibson and James Walk
The visual cliff experiment
235
integration and coordination of
information from the various
senses
intermodal perception
236
in Piaget’s theory of cognitive
development, the cognitive systems that organise thinking into coherent patterns so that all thinking takes place on the same level of cognitive functioning
mental structure
237
focus on how cognitive abilities
change with age in stage sequence of development, pioneered by Piaget and since taken up by other researchers
cognitive-developmental
approach
238
Unquestionably, the most influential theory of cognitive development from infancy through adolescence is the one developed by the Swiss psychologist ____
Jean Piaget
239
_____ was another psychologist Piaget collaborated with to
conduct research that was important to the development of this theory
Barbel Inhelder
240
According to Piaget, the driving force behind development from one stage to the next is ___,
maturation
241
concept that an innate, biologically based program is the driving force behind development
maturation
242
cognitive structures for
processing, organising and
interpreting information.
schemes
243
cognitive process of altering new
information to fit an existing
scheme
assimilation
244
cognitive process of changing a
scheme to adapt to new
information
accommodation
245
in Piaget’s theory, the first 2 years
of cognitive development, which
involves learning how to coordinate the activities of the senses with motor activities
sensorimotor stage
246
According to Piaget, the sensorimotor stage can be divided into _ substages
6
247
STAGES OF COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT IN PIAGET’S THEORY
sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations.
248
sensory motor substage 1?
Simple reflexes (0–1 month)
249
sensory motor Substage 2?
First habits and primary circular reactions (1–4 months)
250
sensory motor Substage 3
Secondary circular reactions (4–8 months)
251
sensory motor stage 4?
Coordination of secondary schemes (8–12 months)
252
awareness that objects (including
people) continue to exist even
when we are not in direct sensory
or motor contact with them
object permanence
253
approach to understanding cognitive functioning that focuses
on cognitive processes that exist at all ages, rather than on viewing cognitive development in
terms of discontinuous stages
information-processing
approach
254
gradual decrease in attention to
a stimulus after repeated
presentations
habituation
255
following habituation, the revival of attention when a new stimulus is presented
dishabituation
256
Speed of habituation predicts ___ ability on other tasks in infancy, as well as later performance on intelligence tests
memory
257
Researchers have proposed that the immaturity of
the ______________ at birth is why humans show
infantile amnesia.
hippocampus
258
in assessments of infant
development, the overall score indicating developmental progress
developmental quotient (DQ)
259
widely used assessment of infant development from age 3 months to 3½ years
Bayley Scales of Infant
Development
260
what are the three main scales on the Bayley-III?
cognitive, language, motor.
261
This Bayley-III scale measures: mental abilities such as attention and exploration.
cognitive scale.
262
this Bayley-III scale measures use and understanding of language
language scale.
263
this Bayley-III scale measures fine and gross motor abilities, such as sitting alone for 30
seconds
motor scale.
264
Bayley scales predict later IQ or school performance well. t or f
False.
265
Longitudinal studies have found that short-lookers in infancy tend to have higher IQ scores later
in development than long-lookers do t or f
true
266
By their first birthday, although infants can speak only a word or two, they understand about __words
50
267
special form of speech that adults in many cultures direct towards infants, in which the pitch of the voice becomes higher than in normal speech, the intonation is exaggerated and words and phrases are repeated
infant-directed (ID) speech
268
innate responses to the physical and social environment, including
qualities of activity level,
irritability, soothability, emotional reactivity and sociability
temperament
269
what are the 7 dimensions of temperatment?
Activity level
Attention span
Emotionality
Soothability
Sociability
Adaptability
quality of mood
270
theoretical principle that children develop best if there is a good fit
between the temperament of the
child and environmental demands
goodness-of-fit
271
most basic emotions, such as anger, sadness, fear, disgust, surprise and happiness
primary emotions
272
emotions that require social learning, such as
embarrassment, shame and guilt; also called sociomoral emotions
secondary emotions
273
Secondary emotions are also called ____ emotions
sociomoral
274
which Three primary emotions are evident in the early weeks of life:
distress, interest and pleasure
275
in infants, crying in response to hearing another infant cry, evident
beginning at just a few days old
emotional contagion
276
term for process of becoming more adept at observing others’ emotional responses to
ambiguous and uncertain
situations, and using that
information to shape one’s own emotional responses
social referencing
277
in Erikson’s psychosocial theory, the first stage of development, during infancy, in which the
central crisis is the need to establish a stable attachment to a loving and nurturing caregiver
trust versus mistrust
278
Bowlby’s theory of emotional and social development, focusing on the crucial importance of the infant’s relationship with the primary caregiver
attachment theory
279
The two most influential theories of infants’ social development are by ____and
Erik Erikson, John Bowlby
280
