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ABES Oral Board Flashcards

(118 cards)

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1
Q

How will you become aware of a radio failure?

A

Pilot may squawk 7600

Loss of communication between a/c and ATCO with no response when called

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2
Q

What else might cause an apparent radio failure?

A

Electrical failure

It could be failure of the ATC radios

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3
Q

How can you contact a pilot below R/T cover?

A

Use another a/c as a relay

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4
Q

What other means of communication exist between a/c and ground?

A

Aldis lamps and flares

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5
Q

What is the RTF squawk?

A

7600

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6
Q

How can you determine if a receiver is still working?

A

Ask the a/c to squawk ident

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7
Q

What if a/c is not transponder equipped?

A

Ask the a/c to make a turn (if VFR remember to tell them to maintain VMC and keep terrain safe)

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8
Q

How do you mitigate against a pilot not being able to read items back to you?

A

By using words twice or repeating the clearance/instruction

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9
Q

What procedure should a pilot follow if RCF whilst following a SID that hasn’t been given any heading/level restrictions?

A

The procedure should be flown in accordance with the published lateral track and vertical profile, including any stepped climbs, until the last position, fix, or waypoint, published for the procedure, has been reached.

Then, for that part of the period of seven minutes that may remain, maintain the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher.

Following the period of seven minutes, adjust the speed and level in accordance with the current flight plan and continue the flight to the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome. Attempt to transmit position reports and altitude/flight level on the appropriate frequency when over routine reporting points.

If for operational necessity an a/c cannot continue with the AIP procedures then;

  1. Aircraft departing on a northbound SID route TAMAR at FL50 or last assigned level, then route direct to EVN and follow the
    standard inbound procedure
  2. Aircraft departing on a Shark SID Procced to EVN via BRN at FL50
    or last assigned level then follow the standard inbound procedure.

To ensure separation Medway will not release aircraft below
FL110 to guard against RTF climbing to lose fuel.

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10
Q

What is the IMC RCF procedure at Avon for inbound a/c?

A

a) Maintain for a period of 7 minutes, the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher. The period of 7 minutes begins when the
transponder is set to 7600 and this should be done as soon as the pilot has detected communications failure;

b) Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid (EVN or AVO) as closely as possible to the ETA last acknowledged by ATC taking account of en route terrain clearance requirements. If no such ETA has been acknowledged, the pilot should use an ETA derived from the last acknowledged
position report and the flight-planned times for the subsequent section of the flight;

c) On reaching the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome, begin further descent at the last acknowledged EAT. If no EAT has
been acknowledged, the descent should be started at the ETA calculated in b) above, or as close as possible to this time. If necessary, remain within the
holding pattern until the minimum holding level, published for the facility, has been reached. The rate of descent in holding patterns should not be less than 500 ft per minute.

d) Carry out the notified instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated navigational aid and, if possible, land within 30 minutes of the EAT or the calculated ETA. When practical, pilots should take account of visual
landing aids and keep watch for instructions that may be issued by means of visual signals from the ground;

e) When positive information is received that the radio failure aircraft has landed, normal operations shall be resumed.

f) If the position of the radio failure aircraft has not been determined within a period of 30 minutes after the time it should have begun the descent over the holding point, pertinent information about it shall be given to the Aircraft Operators and/or pilots of other aircraft. It is then their responsibility to determine whether they will resume normal operations or take some other action.

g) In the event of a missed approach – continue in accordance with the Missed Approach procedure or continue visually in aerodrome circuit pattern. If unable
to land within 30 minutes from the time at which the descent commenced at the EA, leave the AVON CTR on a track of 180 degrees from AVO at or below
FL80.

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11
Q

What is the IMC RCF procedure at Avon for outbound a/c?

A

a) Maintain for a period of 7 minutes, the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher. The period of 7 minutes begins when the
transponder is set to 7600 and this should be done as soon as the pilot has detected communications failure;

b) If the failure occurs when the aircraft is following a notified departure procedure (SID) and clearance to climb, or re-routeing instructions have not been given, the procedure should be flown in accordance with the published lateral track and vertical profile, including any stepped climbs, until the last position, fix, or waypoint, published for the procedure has been reached. Then for that part of
the 7 minutes that may remain, maintain current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher.

c) Thereafter, adjust the speed and level in accordance with the current flight plan and continue the flight to the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome. Attempt to transmit position reports and altitude/flight
level on the appropriate frequency when over routine reporting points.

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12
Q

Action to be followed by pilot if given ‘delay not determined’

A

If ‘delay not determined’ has been given leave AVON CTR on a track of 185 degrees M from BRN at last assigned level.

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13
Q

What is the RCF procedure a pilot will follow when being vectored for an approach?

A

Remain at or above the MSA.

Takes one of three options;

  1. Continue visually
  2. Continue using an approved final approach aid
  3. Route to the IAF to conduct the approach from there.
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14
Q

What is the RCF procedure for VMC inside CAS?

A

Continue visually and join aerodrome cct

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15
Q

What is the RCF procedure for VMC outside CAS where the a/c has been cleared to enter a) VFR and b)SVFR?

A
  1. Squawk 7600
  2. Fly to an area in class G airspace where VMC can be maintained, and descend to
    an appropriate safe altitude/height.
  3. The aircraft will then proceed to a suitable aerodrome outside CAS and attract the attention of the aerodrome controller before landing.
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16
Q

What is the RCF procedure for a SVFR a/c that is inside CAS when RTF occurs a) inbound b) transitting?

A

a) continue visually and join the aerodrome cct

b) Leave CAS asap and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome

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17
Q

Describe the speechless code

A

When a/c is still able to transmit

Can get them to adopt C/S ‘Speechless x’

Ask closed questions and responses will be;

. = yes
.. = no
… = say again
-..- = further emergency
- (one long tx) = Manoeuvre completed

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18
Q

What are the three main questions if a further emergency is suspected?

A

Can you maintain height?

Can you make a normal descent?

Can you make a normal landing?

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19
Q

What does STORCALE stand for?

A

S - Separate
T - Transmit (levels, EATs, wx etc)
O - Other (inform other a/c or RCF)
R - Request assistance (from APP/DIR to attempt contact etc, other a/c to relay messages)
C - Continue to transmit info
A - Alternates (notify alternates)
L - Liaise (with operator, transmit blind info as requested)
E - Emergency (actions as considered appropriate, overdue action etc)

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20
Q

Why do a/c dump fuel?

A

Due to rough running engine

To lose weight

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21
Q

What are the implications of overweight landings?

A

Gear collapsing

Overrun of runway due to higher landing speeds

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22
Q

Where to dump fuel?

A

Over the sea if possible at or above 10,000ft (execeptionally at least 7000ft AGL in winter and 4,000ft in summer to allow evaporation)

On entry to the EVN Hold, climb in the EVN Hold to FL100 (or maintain assigned level if higher). Commence fuel jettisoning at a minimum level of F100. On
completion of fuel jettison descend in the EVN Hold to FL80. When level proceed as paragraph 15.3.1 a)

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23
Q

What is the fuel jettisoning procedure for RCF a/c at Avon?

A

Route direct BRN via TAM

Squawk 3617 on reaching the BRN hold and climb to FL100 (or maintain assigned level if higher).

Commence fuel jettisoning

On completing re-select 7600 and descend in BRN hold to FL80, when level route to EVN at FL80

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24
Q

Who makes final decision regarding dumping?

A

The captain

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25
To what should a/c be kept close if possible, and why?
The airport, just in case of further emergency
26
What separation should be applied between fuel dumping and other a/c?
1000ft
27
What is the lost a/c sqauwk?
0030
28
What separation do you provide against unknown a/c inside CAS?
5nm or 5000ft, do not let the blips merge
29
How do you identify lost a/c on radar?
They will be squawking code 0030 or may do triangle procedure (for those with RCF total/partial failure- left hand turns for complete)
30
What information should you give to a pilot when identified?
Give them their position and any corrective action required
31
What cautions should be exercised when vectoring lost VFR a/c?
The a/c's ability to maintain VMC and terrain clearance
32
What if no radar contact?
Contact other radar equipped units to provide assistance.
33
D and D VHF and UHF frequencies?
VHF- 121.500 UHF- 243.000
34
Autotriangulation?
Service provided by D and D which can instantaneously provide an a/c's position
35
Monitoring squawk codes?
Monitoring unit who uses that code Allows you to contact a/c if required however it does not imply that any type of service is being provided Data is to be considered unvalidated and unverified
36
Use of mode S
Can help you get a/c reg, aerodrome of dep etc.
37
What is the Hijack squawk and ATC response?
7500 ATC will respond with 'confirm squawking assigned code?'
38
What are your subsequent actions regarding hijack/ unlawful interference?
a) Transmit, and continue to transit, information pertinent to the safe conduct of the flight, w/o expecting a reply from the a/c b) Monitor and plot the progress of theflight with the means available, and co-ordinate transfer of control with adjacent ATS units without requiring transmissions or other responses from the a/c, unless comms with the a/c remains normal c) Pass information to relevant ATSU's d) Provide normal clearances and information unless otherwise directed e) Government may withhold clearance to enter national airspace or land at any national airfield f) Try to provide separation if a/c ignores lack of clearance
39
Who should you inform of an a/c undergoing Hijack/Unlawful interference?
Watch supervisor at parent ACC Information on unlawful interference in European airspace to be reported to other states Reporting action listed in national procedures
40
Relay of messages to a/c subject to Hijack/Unlawful interference
Pass messages verbatim to a/c for example 'c/s, i am instructed by His Majesty's Gov to refuse entry into UK airspace. What are your intentions?' 'c/s, i am instructed by His Majesty's Gov to inform you that landing clearan/ce has been refused for any airfield within the UK' 'c/s, I am instructed by His Majesty's Gov that you are to hold at (e.g. location on the aerodrome, ERP, or Lat/Long) at (level). Acknowledge'
41
What are the categories of bomb warnings?
Red Amber Green
42
What is a red category for a bomb warning?
Specific warning where threat is of a nature which identifies a specific target or where the caller has been positively identified or the organisation involved has been identified and is judged credible.
43
What is a amber category for a bomb warning?
Warning that can be related to one or more targets, but where there is doubt about its credibility or existing counter-measures.
44
What is a green category for a bomb warning?
Warning which may not identify a target or specific group of targets or which otherwise lacks credibility.
45
Which are considered emergencies and who has final decision?
Only those assessed by bomb threat assessors as RED or AMBER are treated as emergency The captain of the a/c has final decision
46
Who determines a bomb threat category?
Bomb threat assessors from MoD, DfT, Airport Operators, and Airline Operators
47
What vectoring considerations are there for a/c experiencing a bomb threat?
Avoid vectoring them over densely populated areas
48
What is the effect on subsequent inbounds from an a/c with a bomb warning?
Advise them of situation, expect delay and take them to the hold. Find out further actions from Airport Authority
49
Effect on RFFS authority for bomb warning?
Check with SAFO as to what happens to RFFS cat, depends on the situation.
50
What effect does an engine fire on departure have on radius of turn and rate of climb?
Increased radius of turn as pilot may not bank as sharply as usually. Rate of climb decreases with loss of power
51
What effect would an engine fire on dep have on an a/c's ability to follow a SID?
The increased turn radius and loss of climbing power may mean an a/c is unable to follow a SID profile correctly.
52
If an a/c needs to return immediately following an engine failure what considerations are there re vectoring and level instructions?
Give a/c plenty of room as turns may take longer A/c may only be able to make turns in one direction Level instructions should be given with plenty of time to arrange descent profile Try not to offer intermediate level-offs
53
What type of approach would you give a/c if they had an engine fire on dep?
One with precaution, ensure the approach is as stable as possible with early turns
54
What direction of turn would you expect from an a/c with a full or partial engine failure?
Depends on the type of a/c, some may have to turn into the engine others away. Pilot should inform you
55
What runway would the a/c use in emergency?
Whichever one the pilot needs
56
What considerations are there for an a/c landing with engine failure re runway length?
They may no longer be able to thrust reverse so may need a longer Landing Distance
57
After landing what might happen to an aircraft with an engine failure?
The runway may have to be closed if the aircraft cannot vacate the runway
58
For what reasons may an a/c not be able to maintain height?
Engine failure Depressurisation Loss of power Icing Fire Bird strike
59
What priority is afforded to a/c declaring minimum fuel?
None
60
What is the APS ATCO's response to an a/c declaring minimum fuel?
ATCO's respond to a 'Minimum fuel' declaration by confirming estimated delay in minutes (or no delay) if in the Hold or en-route or by passing track mileage if a/c is being vectored .
61
If fuel shortage becomes critical what phraseology should be used?
Mayday, Mayday, Mayday, Fuel
62
What priority is afforded to a/c that have declared Mayday Fuel?
Cat A
63
Who runs UK SAR helicopters?
Coastguard
64
What agency is responsible for scrambling such helicopters and co-ordinating SAR efforts?
JRCC
65
Callsign or helicopters engaged in SAR ops?
SRG- Rescue xx
66
What priority category are helicopters engaged in SAR ops?
Cat A- where safety of life is involved Cat B- on SAR or HEMS flights where priority is required
67
What is the APS ATCO's point of contact when SAR required?
ACC supp or D and D
68
What is the police callsign and flight priorities?
UKP A- When involved in a police emergency B- Under normal operational priority Z- Training
69
What is the HEMS callsign and what flight priorites are associated with them?
Helimed HLE A- Safety of life involved E- Repositioning Z- Training
70
Which helicopters are exempt from SVFR minima?
Police Helimed SAR (inc training) Powerline Pipeline Rail track inspection
71
Squawk for police air support?
0032
72
What is the sqauwk for a/c conducting powerline/pipeline inspections?
0036
73
What is the Helimed squawk?
0020
74
What is the SAR scene of search frequency?
123.1MHz
75
Reasons for total engine failure in multi engine a/c?
Fuel issues Bird strike High angle of attack on a jet a/c
76
Information to give to pilot?
Nearby aerodromes Nearby farmstrips or abandoned aerodromes Distance and range to both Wind QNH Runways available
77
Who to inform if a/c can't reach airfield?
D and D ACC Other a/c in the vicinity if they are required to orbit over a potential crash site to make locating it
78
What factors would affect an a/c's ability to reach an airfield when losing height?
Wind Elevation of airfield Speed Height
79
What action to take when using Radar?
Follow the path of the a/c closely Offer bearings and distances to suitable aerodromes, or other potential landing areas if required. If a/c disappears from Radar get lat/long of the last position to pass on
80
Who else can help locate downed a/c?
Other a/c Persons on the ground if they call in
81
What happens to rate of descent as a/c gets lower?
It decreases as the air thickens
82
What effect do turns have on rate of descent?
Increases it
83
No compass, no gyro
Instruct a/c to conduct turns at a specified rate, normally rate 1 You will have to guide turns, by saying start left/right turn now, stop turn now. 30 seconds for a 90 degree turn 1 minutes for a 180 2 minutes for a 360
84
Hydraulic Problems
No flaps-faster approaches No slats-faster approaches No speed brakes- faster landings No gear No thrust reversers
85
Electrical problems
Loss of instruments Loss of comms Loss of lights Engine failure
86
Ballistic recovery systems
SR22 Caps
87
Define Distress
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
88
Define urgency
A condition concerning the safety of an a/c or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance
89
What is the RT phraseology for distress messages?
Mayday, Mayday, Mayday
90
What is the phraseology for an urgency message?
Pan-Pan, Pan-Pan, Pan-Pan
91
List the 3 phases of emergency
INCERFA- Uncertainity ALERFA- Alert DETRESFA- Distress
92
Describe the INCERFA phase of emergency
Uncertainity- A situation where uncertainity exists as to the safety of an a/c and its occupants RTF fail- when no comms received within 30 mins of expected time Overdue- Fails to arrive within 30 mins of the ETA or fails to land within 5 minutes of the expected landing time after being cleared for approach Exceptions- No doubt exists as to the safety of the a/c and its occupants Duration- max of 30 mins Action- Inform JRCC
93
Describe the ALERFA phase of emergency
Alert- A situation where apprehension exists as to the safety of an a/c and its occupants RTF fail- Attemps to establish comms during uncertainity phase have failed Overdue- Enquiries to relevant sources during the uncertainity phase have failed to reveal any news, or, has been cleared to land and fails to land within 5 minutes of the estimated landing time Impaired operating efficiency- Not to the extent that a forced landing is likely Exceptions- Evidence exists that would allay apprehension as to the safety of the a/c Max of one hour
94
Describe the DETRESFA phase of emergency
Distress- A situation where there is reasonable certainity that an a/c and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and require immediate assistance RTF- Further attempt to establish comms during the ALERT phase have failed Overdue- More widespread enquiries during the alert phase have failed to reveal any news, or, the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted or insufficient to enable to a/c to reach safety Operating efficiency- Likelihood of a forced landing Is known to have crashed or force landed Exceptions- Reasonable certainity that a/c and occupants are not thereatened by grave and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance. Duration- Until a/c is found and the survivors are rescued or it is clear that there is no longer any chance of doing so.
95
What is the definition of a full emergency?
When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.
96
What is the definition of an Aircraft Accident/ Aircraft Accident Imminent?
Aircraft accidents, which have occurred or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome.
97
What is the definition of a weather standby?
When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe
98
What is an Aircraft Ground Incident?
When an aircraft on the ground is known to have an emergency situation other than an accident, which requires the attendance of the emergency services.
99
What is a local standby?
When it is known that an aircraft has, or is suspected to have, developed some defect but the trouble would not normally involve any serious difficulty in effecting a safe landing.
100
What are Unlawful Acts?
Acts or attempted acts such as to jeopardise the safety of civil aviation and air transport
101
What are the time limits for overdue action?
Maximum of 30 minutes from ETA for preliminary action 1 hour has elapsed with no sign full overdue action initiated 5 mins if a/c has not appeared within the estimated time of landing once already cleared to.
102
What are ATC actions for Overdue action?
Inform D and D and ACC sup
103
What does NITS mean?
Pilots actions Nature of emergency Intentions of flight crew Time available Special handling requirements
104
What does DODAR mean?
Diagnose problem Options- which are available? Decide which option is best take Action to bring that option about Review situation and actions taken
105
What does ASSISTS mean?
Controller actions Acknowledge Separate Silence Inform Support Time Squawk
106
What is ANC?
Pilot priorites Aviate Navigate Communicate
107
How would an a/c experiencing RTF let us know they were experiencing a further emergency?
Squawk 7700
108
When can normal ops resume during an RTF?
* When it is determined that alternative action can be taken, or resuming normal ops would not impair safety * If communication is re-established (in which case inform unit where RT fail was initiated) * When positive information received that aircraft has landed (and inform unit where RT fail was initiated)
109
What needs to be co-ordinated with ATC regarding fuel dumping?
Route to be flown Level to be used Estimated duration of fuel dump Frequency to be monitored while fuel dumping
110
What is the definition of a strayed a/c?
An a/c which has deviated significantly from its intended track, or which reports it is lost
111
What is the definition of an unidentified a/c?
An a/c which has been observed/reported to be operating in a given area but whose identity hasn't been established
112
What document gives advice on dealing with emergencies?
CAP745
113
Who should you inform regarding an a/c that has crashed outside of the radius of action of the aerodrome RFFS?
ACC sup
114
If a military a/c with an emergency declares they are carrying dangerous goods/explosives who is to be informed?
D and D
115
To whom is an alerting service provided?
* Aircraft provided with an air traffic service * Aircraft having filed a flightplan or otherwise known to an ATSU * Aircraft subject to unlawful interference
116
When an a/c is in need of SAR aid who shall you inform?|
ACC sup
117
What is the phraseology used to warn other a/c that an a/c in distress is making an emergency descent?
"Attention all a/c in the vicinity of Avon, emergency descent in progress from FLxxx passing FLxxx, standby for instructions."
118
If an inbound from Shark requires to become number 1 due to a medical emergency on board, how can you facilitate this?
VMC descent Route via Shark for RNAV to be level on leaving

UK APS (17 decks)

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