UK APS Oral Question Bank Flashcards

(465 cards)

1
Q

Do you need to be visual with the aerodrome for a visual approach?

A

No, just need visual reference to the surface

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2
Q

Describe class A airspace

A

IFR only

Clearance required

ATC must be complied with

Everyone separated from everyone

Gliders may enter in VMC

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3
Q

Describe Class C airspace

A

VFR & IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR & VFR

VFR sep from IFR, given Tx info on other VFR

VMC

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4
Q

Describe Class D airspace

A

VFR and IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR and SVFR, given tx info on VFR

VFR given tx info on everyone

SVFR treated as IFR for all intents and purposes

VMC

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5
Q

Describe Class G airspace

A

ATCU’s provide FIS

Pilots responsible for all collision avoidance

Pilots still expected to comply with advice

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6
Q

Which aircraft are exempted from the VMC criteria in the UK?

A
  • Powerline
  • Pipeline
  • Police
  • Helimed
  • SAR
  • SAR training if LOA (letter of agreement) with ATC provider exists
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7
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft cruising at FL100 or above in the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km

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8
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft criusing between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or above 1,000ft above terrain in the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km

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9
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft criusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher, Class C, D or E airspace during the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km (Class A-E airspace)

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10
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft criusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher in uncontrolled airspace (F&G) in the day?

A

clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 5km

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11
Q

What are the daytime VMC minima for a fixed wing Aircraft cruising at or below 3,000ft in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?

A

Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m.

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12
Q

What are the daytime VMC minima for a Helicopter at or below 3,000ft in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?

A

Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m

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13
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or above FL100?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km

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14
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or 1,000ft above terrain?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km

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15
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight

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16
Q

Under what met conditions do ATC advise pilots that VMC no longer possible?

A

In Class D airspace when the reported met conditions are below

a Cloud ceiling of less than 1,500ft and/or a G.V of less than 5km in dya or night ATC shall;

  • Advise pilots of a/c intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and
  • Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.
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17
Q

What are the conditions for a VFR refusal?

A

ATC shall not issue any further VFR clearances to a/c wishing to operate under VFR,

  • to or from an aerodrome
  • or enter the ATZ
  • or traffic circuit

In Class D airspace when the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;

  • Cloud ceiling less than 1,500ft, and/or
  • Ground vis less than 5,000m
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18
Q

What are the daytime VMC for a helicopter at or below 3,000ft amsl in Class D airspace when flying 140kt IAS or less?

A

1500m flight vis COCSIS

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19
Q

What are the daytime VMC for a fixed wing aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl in Class D airspace when travelling 140kts IAS or less?

A

5km flight vis COCSIS

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20
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight

slides say that it is 5km COCSIS in Class G airspace but MATS 1 makes no reference to this!!

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21
Q

What are the conditions for a SVFR refusal?

A

ATC shall not issue any further VFR clearances to a/c wishing to operate under VFR,

  • to or from an aerodrome
  • or enter the ATZ
  • or traffic circuit

In Class D airspace when the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;

  • Cloud ceiling less than 600ft, and/or
  • Ground vis less than 1,500m (800m for helis)
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22
Q

Under what met conditions do ATC advise pilots that SVFR no longer possible for fixed wing a/c?

A

In Class D airspace when the reported met conditions are below

a Cloud ceiling of less than 600ft and/or a G.V of less than 1500m in day or night ATC shall;

  • Advise pilots of a/c intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and
  • Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.
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23
Q

Under what met conditions do ATC advise pilots that SVFR no longer possible for a helicopter?

A

In Class D airspace when the reported met conditions are below

a Cloud ceiling of less than 600ft and/or a G.V of less than 800m in day or night ATC shall;

  • Advise pilots of a/c intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and
  • Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.
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24
Q

What is a FRZ in regards to SUA’s?

A
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25
Define a Basic Service
An ATS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight. This may include; 1) Weather information 2) Changes of serviceability of facilities 3) Conditions at aerodromes 4) General airspace activity information 5) Any other info likely to affect safety
26
Define a Traffic Service
A surveillance based service where in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service the ATCO provides specific surveillance derived traffic information to assist the pilot in avoiding other traffic. ATCOs may provide headings and/or levels for the purposes of positioning and/or sequencing, however the ATCO is not required to achieve deconfliction minima and the pilot remains responsible for collision avoidance
27
Define a Deconfliction Service
A surveillance based service where in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service the ATCO provides specific surveillance derived traffic information and headings and/or levels aimed at achieving defined deconfliction minima or for the purposes of positioning and/or sequencing, however the avoidance of other traffic is ultimately the pilot's responsibility
28
Define a procedural service
An ATS where, in addition to the provisions of a basic service, the ATCO provides restrictions, instructions and approach clearances, which, if complied with, shall achieve deconfliction minima against other a/c participating in the procedural service. Neither traffic info nor deconfliction advice can be passed with respect to unknown traffic
29
Which a/c can be provided with a DS?
IFR only
30
Which a/c can be provided with a PS?
IFR only
31
If the weather is 3000m to the N and 1000m to the S can an A/C depart SVFR?
No as the lowest visibility is the one used to determine the flight rules permitted.
32
Which visibility is used to determine whether SVFR or VFR flights can operate to/from an aerodrome?
Ground visibility
33
If the ground vis is <1000m but the flight vis is 2000m can an SVFR a/c operate?
Not to/from the aerodrome or in the ATZ but they could transit the zone
34
35
When shall Aerodrome lighting be displayed?
By day: when vis <5km or cloud base <700ft At night: Irrespective of weather conditions When requested by parent ACC When deemed necessary by the controller As instructed in MATS part II
36
List the types of precision approach
PAR ILS ILS/DME MLS RNP APCH (ICAO only)
37
List the types of non-precision approach
RNP NDB VOR GNSS SRA ILS (LLZ only) VDF
38
How long is a standard 5 bar approach lighting system?
900m
39
When should unofficial reports from pilots, or unofficial observations from the tower be passed on?
When they are worse than those being officially reported
40
At what rate are hold turns made?
Rate 1 (3 degrees/sec) or with 25 degrees of bank (whichever uses less bank)
41
What is an EAT?
Expected Approach Time The time at which ATC expects an arriving a/c, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for landing
42
When shall an EAT be issued?
When arriving a/c are subject to a delay of 20 mins or more (or as determined by authority)
43
What are the hilding speeds for a/c up to an including 14000ft?
Normal; CAT A & B- 170kt CAT C, D & E- 230kt Turbulent CAT A & B- 170kt CAT C, D & E- 280kt
44
What are the holding speeds for a/c above 14000ft up to and including 20000ft?
Normal- 240kt Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80
45
What are the holding speeds above 20000ft up to and including 34000ft
Normal- 265kt Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80
46
What is the normal length of the legs for a hold?
1 min, 1 and 1/2 above 14000ft
47
Describe the standard holding procedure
48
Describe the Parallel Entry to the hold
49
Describe the Offset Entry procedure
50
Describe the Direct Entry Procedure
51
How long does a complete holding pattern take a) up to, and b) above this level?
4 mins up to and inc. 14000ft 5 mins above this
52
What is the Vat of a Cat A A/C?
<91kts IAS
53
What is the Vat of a Cat B A/C?
91kts-120kts IAS
54
What is the Vat of a Cat C A/C?
121kts- 140kts IAS
55
What is the Vat of a Cat D A/C?
141kts- 165kts IAS
56
What is the Vat of a Cat E A/C?
166kts-210kts IAS
57
Which of the following are permitted to be used as a holding fix?
Overhead a VOR Overhead a VOR with a co-located DME Overhead an NDB An intersection of VOR radials An intersection of a VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME
58
What determines the ICAO approach category of an a/c?
The a/c's Vat in landing configuration at its maximum certificated landing weight
59
What is the strip marking for delay not determined?
Z
60
What is the strip marking for delay for no delay expected?
^
61
What action should a controller take when a pilot reports "TCAS RA"?
Acknowledge by saying "C/S roger"
62
After a pilot has reported "TCAS RA" when can a controller next issue instructions to a/c?
When the pilot reports "clear of conflict"
63
What action should a controller take when a pilot announces climbing due to a TAWS alert?
Pass appropriate pressure setting
64
Following an RA when does ATC resume responsbility for separation for that a/c and any others affected by the manoeuvre?
When the pilot reports clear of conflict and current clearance resumed
65
What is the difference between a TCAS TA and a TCAS RA?
TA=Traffic Advisory- Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action RA= Resolution Advisory and Pilots will take action in response to these
66
In which direction or plane are RAs given?
Vertical
67
What reporting action is required following a RA?
MOR to be filed, must also file an AIRPROX if necessary
68
What must the conflicting a/c have in order to trigger TCAS alert?
A transponder with A & C or S
69
Below what levels are a) increase descent RA's, b) Descend RA's and c) All RAs inhibited?
a) 1450ft AGL b) 1100ft AGL c) 1000ft AGL
70
List four methods of giving a radar handover
1. Designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt 2. Notification of the a/c's discrete SSR code or a/c address 3. Notification that the a/c is SSR Mode S/ ADS-B equipped with an a/c ident feature. 4. Direct designation (pointing at it) of the position indication when two screens are adjacent or a conference type of display is used 5. Designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the a/c is not known 6. Instructing an a/c to change SSR codes by the transferring controller and the accepting controller seeing the change 7. Issuance of an instruction to the a/c by the transferring controller to 'squawk ident' and observation of this response by the accepting controller
71
List four methods of indentification using PSR
The turn method Departing a/c method Position report method Transfer of identification
72
If both PSR and SSR available, which radar return has to be observed for the departing a/c method of identification to be used?
Primary return
73
Within how many miles from the end of the runway does the departing a/c method of identification have to be completed?
1nm
74
Describe the techniques that can be used for the turn method of identification?
A/c heading is ascertained and then a position indication is correlated with; 1) The acknowledged execution of an instruction to alter heading by at least 30 degrees 2) One or more changes of heading of at least 30 degrees as instructed by another controller 3) One or more changes of heading of at least 30 degrees as reported by the pilot
75
What is the minimum turn permitted for identification to be achieved using the turn method?
30 degrees
76
Following identification by the turn method, what two things must the pilot be informed of?
That he has been identified and his position
77
List 4 things to consider before a turn for identification canbe issued
Terrain PSR coverage Other surveillance returns Rules of the Air Proximity of airspace
78
List 5 positions which can be used as position reports to identify an a/c by the position report method?
1) Over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; which are; 2) Position defined by VOR radial with a range from a co-located or associated DME (no more than 30nm) 3) Over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.
79
A/C may be instructed to squawk 0000...
when either Mode A or Mode C is corrupt
80
What is the prime consideration when turning a VFR flight for identification?
Terrain as they will be taking their own terrain sep.
81
When should an a/c be told it is identified?
Outside CAS- for all methods of ident Inside CAS- only required when using the turn method
82
When should a pilot be informed of his/her position after identification?
Following the turn method of ident
83
List three methods of identification using SSR
(1) Observing the pilot’s compliance with the instruction to select a discrete four digit code; (2) Recognising a validated four-digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign. When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish and maintain identity; (3) Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested.
84
What 2 actions should be undertaken following allocation of a discrete squawk?
Validation and verification
85
What is the definition of a precision approach?
An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation
86
What is the definition of a non-precision approach?
An instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance
87
What are the segements of the instrument approach?
1. Arrival 2. Initial (IAF IF) 3. Intermediate (IF to FAF/FAP) 4. Final (FAF/FAP to MAPt) 5. Missed Approach
88
What is a VM (C) Approach?
A/c conducting a visual cct to a runway after making an instrument approach to a different runway
89
List the categories of ILS approaches
CAT I CAT II CAT IIIA CAT IIIB CAT IIIC
90
What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT I ILS?
DH no less than 200ft
91
What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT II ILS?
Ops with DH lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft
92
What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT III ILS?
Ops either; 1. DH <100ft, or, no DH and RVR not less than 175m 2. DH <50ft, or, no DH and RVR less than 175m but greater than 50m 3. No DH and no RVR limitations
93
Where does the STAR end and the initial approach segement commence?
IAF- Initial Approach Fix
94
What is the difference between a FAF and a FAP?
FAF= Final Approach Fix (only on non-precision approaches) FAP= Final Approach Point (only on precision approaches)
95
What are, a) a base turn, and b) a procedure turn?
Both a form of reversal procedure which are to be used when no IAF or IF are available to construct a straight in approach. a) Base turn flys an outsbound leg from the holding point for a time and then makes a continous turn onto approach c) Procedure turn flys up the final approach (for a time/distance) initially before making a turn outbound to begin a turn back onto final approach
96
What does RNP mean?
Required Navigational Performance
97
What actions should ATC take if the altitude readout is out of tolerance?
Ask pilot to check pressure setting and report level again Ask pilot to stop squawking mode alt due wrong indication Inform the pilot of the discrepancy and coordinate with adjacent ATC
98
When is it determined that an a/c is occupying a specific level?
RVSM airspace: +/-200ft Non-RVSM airspace: +/-300ft
99
Define, a) Transition Altitude, b) Transition Level, c) Transition Layer
a) The level at or below which an a/c's vertical position is controlled with reference to altitude b) The lowest Flight Level available for use above the Transition Altitude c) The airspace between the Transition Altitude and the Transition Level
100
What is the minimum thickness of the Transition Layer?
1000ft
101
How far above the base of CAS should a/c be kept?
500ft
102
In what class of airspace is an a/c flying at exactly the base of CAS deemed to be?
Class G, they would be deemed to be outside CAS
103
How far inside CAS should a/c be kept?
2nm
104
What is the minimum distance from touchdown an a/c can be vectored to intercept the localiser?
5nm we aim for for 6.5nm at least to give 2nm of level flying before intercepting that distance at 1500ft (which is 5nm)
105
What is the maximum angle allowed between closing heading and approach track?
45 degrees
106
Draw or describe the standard DOC for a localiser and a glide path?
Localiser- 10 degrees either side to 25nm, 35 degrees either side to 17nm Glide-path- 8 degress either side to 10nm
107
How many degrees per second in a rate one turn?
3 degrees per second
108
How long does it take to complete an orbit at rate one?
2 minutes
109
What is the latest time speed control can be applied by ATC?
4nm
110
What is meant by "minimum clean speed"?
The minimum speed an a/c can achieve before having to deploy lift devices such as flaps and slats
111
List the standard speeds which ATC can apply to jet a/c in an inbound sequence, along with the distances from touchdown at which these may be applied
250kts above FL60 220kts on descent from FL60 180kts when late downwind or base leg 160kts to 4 DME
112
Which of the classes of airspace are CAS?
A B C D E
113
What is Class F airspace?
Advisory airspace
114
In which class of airspace are VFR flights not allowed?
Class A
115
In which classes of airspace may VFR flights operate without an ATC clearance?
E, F and G
116
In which classes of airspace may all flights operate without an ATC clearance?
F and G
117
What rules apply to the separation of IFR and VFR flights in Class D airspace (including the caveat)?
IFR separated from other IFR and SVFR and vice versa. IFR given traffic information on VFR and vice versa with avoidance advice given if requested
118
What is the generic speed limit (and below what level it does it apply?)
250kts IAS below FL100
119
What is the minimum level of a CTA?
700ft AGL
120
In what classes of airspace does the speed limit not apply?
Class A and B
121
What are CTRs?
a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to a specified upper limit
122
What are CTAs?
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth
123
What are TMAs?
A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes
124
What class of airspace are ATZs?
The same airspace as that within which they reside
125
What is an FRZ?
Flight Restriction Zone
126
To which flights does the speed limit not apply in Class C airspace?
IFR flights
127
Under what circumstances can ATC cancel the speed limit in Class D airspace?
for exempted flights in Class D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS Part 2;
128
Define RVR
A more localised assessment of visual range in relation to a particular runway when the general met vis is less than 1500m
129
What does RVR indicate to a pilot?
The range over which the pilot of an a/c on the runway centreline can expect to see the runway surface markings, the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centreline
130
State two methods of obtaining RVR?
IRVR and the human observer method
131
State the three locations where IRVR values are measured
Touchdown Mid-point Stop-end
132
Which RVR reading is always to be reported?
Touchdown
133
In what increments are RVRs to be reported?
Up to 400m= 25m 400-800m= 50m Above 800m= 100m
134
What are the maximum and minimum RVR value which can be reported?
Max= 2000m Min= 50m
135
What happens to flight levels as pressure, a) rises, and b) falls?
a) Raises the FL as an altitude b) Lowers the FL as an altitude
136
What is windshear?
A sustained change in wind velocity along an a/c's flight path which occurs significantly faster than an a/c can accelerate and decelerate
137
When is windshear likely to occur?
Frontal systems Thunderstorms Temperature inversions Surface obstructions
138
What should the first a/c holding for weather improvement be told regarding delays?
"no traffic delay expected"
139
What should subsequent a/c be told regarding delays if holding for weather improvement?
"Delay not determined, (x) a/c holding for weather improvement"
140
What is meant by DOC?
Designated Operational Coverage Term defining the coverage boundary of the station
141
What are the two levels of Mode-S?
Elementary and Enhanced
142
List 5 Downlinked Aircraft Parameters provided by enhanced Mode-S
Speed Heading Present level Cleared /Level Rate of Climb/Rate of Descent
143
What is the IFR conspicuity code in Europe?
2000
144
What is the VFR conspicuity code in Europe?
7000
145
What should ATC do, provided if an a/cs transponder fails whilst it is flying in transponder mandatory airspace?
Endeavour to provide for the continuation of the flight to the aerodrome of first intended landing in accordance with the flight plan
146
What should ATC allow an a/c to do if its transponder fails before it gets airborne on a flight for which the operation of a transponder is manadatory?
Prevent the a.c from departing unless it is impractical for repairs to be effected at the aerodrome, in which case flight by the most direct route possible to the nearest aerodrome where repairs can be effected should be facilitated.
147
Complete the following statement; After a complete radar failure, if standard vertical sep cannot be establisehd immediately, emergency vertical sep of (........) that standard separation may be used temporarily
half
148
What is the definition of Essential Traffic Information?
Is that controlled traffic to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not, or will not be, separated from other controlled traffic by the appropriate separation minimum
149
If the glide path fails, can the LOC and DME still be used, and if so, what type of approaches can be made?
Yes but only non-precision approaches are permitted
150
What alternative method can be used to determine the length of outbound legs of an instrument approach procedure if the DME fails?
Timed legs
151
What part of an ILS can still be used for approaches if the localiser fails?
None, there are no GP only approaches
152
What service is provided to IFR and VFR flights in Class E airspace?
IFR- Radar Control VFR (participating) UK FIS
153
What info is provided under any FIS?
SIGMET/AIRMET info Information on Volcanic Activity Information on release of radioactive materials or toxic chemicals Info on the changes of availabilty of radio nav aids Info on changes in conditions of aerodromes and facilities Info on unmanned free balloons Info on space weather Any other info likely to affect safety
154
To whom can a deconfliction service be provided?
IFR only
155
To whom can a traffic servie be provided?
IFR or VFR
156
Who decides what service is provided to a/c outside CAS?
The pilot
157
When may a surveillance service be reduced by an ATCO outside CAS?
When ATCO's cannot continue to provide info (and minima for DS) due to; surveillance coverage times of high workload Areas of high traffic density Degraded surveillance performance Where PSR is unavailable and SSR alone is used to provide an ATS
158
What information shall Approach Control provide to Aerodrome Control?
1) Pertinent data on all relevant flights including the type of flight, ie IFR or VFR, level of arriving A/C and ETA; 2) The anticipated order in which control of A/C is to be transferred; 3) The anticipated delay to departing IFR flights together with the reason for the delay.
159
What information shall Approach Control provide to Area Control?
1) Lowest level at the holding facility available for use by Area Control 2) The average time interval between successive approaches 3) Revision of EATs issued by Area Control when Approach Control calculations show a variation of 5 mins or more; 4) Arrival times over the holding point if these vary from the estimate by 3 minutes or more 5) Missed Approaches when re-routing is entailed, in order that the subsequent action may be co-ordinated; 6) Departure times of A/C 7) All available information pertaining to overdue A/C
160
What shall Approach Control co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control?
1) A/C approaching to land, if necessary requesting clearance to land. 2) Arriving A/C which are to be cleared to Visual Holding Points 3) A/C routing through the traffic cct
161
What shall Aerodrome Control co-ordinate with Approach Control?
1) Departing IFR flights 2) Arriving A/C which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control)
162
What shall Area Control co-ordinate with Approach Control?
Arriving A/C which is to be cleared to an aerodrome holding facility or a Visual Holding point, instead of the normal holding facility
163
When may transfer of A/C to Aerodrome Control take place?
IFR flights operating with visual ref to the surface may be transferred in the following circumstances; 1) When an A/C carrying out an Instrument Approach has become no. 1 and for following A/C when they are established on final apprach and have been provided with the appropriate separation from preceding A/C; 2) A/C operating in the Tx Cct 3) A/C approaching visually below all cloud when the reported aerodrome visibility is 10KM or more. When the reported visibility of two values, the lower of the two values shall be used when determining whether transfer of control may take place. nb; in the case of 2 and 3 the volume of tx and Aerodrome workload must be such as to allow the use of one of the reduced in the vicinity of the aerodrome. In order to clear other A/C to descend through the cloud formation it will be necessary for the A/C approaching underneath to be kept more than 1,000ft below all clod, or for horizontal separation to be provided.
164
What consideration must be made for the transfer of VFR A/C to Aerodrome Control?
Must be transferred in sufficient time for Aerodrome Control to pass additional information in respect of local tx.
165
Can A/C be held over VRP's?
Outside CAS- Should not be done Inside CAS- Yes
166
When shall Approach Controllers refuse VFR clearances for VFR A/C operating to/from an Aerodrome in Class D Airspace?
When the ground vis is below 5000m and/or the C.C. below 1500ft. Pilot should be asked to specify type of clearance required.
167
What type of A/C can continue VFR when other A/C would be required to continue SVFR?
Police Helimed Rescue Electricity Grid Powerline Pipeline SAR training flights (in accordance with MATS 2) Rail track inspection flights
168
Are ATCOs responsible for determining and enforcing a pilot's Aerodrome Operating Minima?
No however they should report any occurence which they consider has endangered an A/C or person
169
What information must an Approach Controller pass to A/C is there is no ATIS system?
1) Runway in use 2) Current Met info; a) Surface wind direction b) Vis c) Present wx d) Cloud e) Pressure setting f) Relevant info reported by other pilots g) Significant met info eg thunderstorms, hail etc h) Warnings of marked temp inversions i) Any other relevant info j) RVR 3) Current runway surface conditions 4) Any changes in the operational stataus of visual and non-visual aids essential for approach and landing 5) LVPs in operation
170
What information updates must be passed to pilots?
1) Significatnt changes in the met conditions and runway conditions 2) Further reports from other pilots 3) Further changes in the operational status of approach and landing aids 4) Implementation and cancellation of LVPs
171
When may an A/C conduct a visual approach?
Pilot reports that they are visual with the surface and; 1) The reported C.C is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segement; or 2) The pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished. Controllers SHALL not clear an A/C for a visual approach when the RVR (TD) is less than 800m. If a pilot requests one in this circumstance than the pilot is to be informed that a visual approach is unavailable and what their intentions are.
172
What separation must be applied between A/C making a visual approach and other IFR A/C?
The standard separations as A/C making a Visual Approach still count as IFR and as making an Instrument Approach
173
May A/C be cleared to conduct a visual approach when outside CAS and what are the considerations if so?
Yes Responsbility for the provision of deconfliction advice and tx info continues in accordance with the service being issued and is subject to the following; 1) Procedural Service- no requirement for controllers to change the level of service provided 2) DS- when flights carrying out visual approaches descen below the unit's terrain safe level, controllers shall no provide a DS and should instead provide a TS 3) TS- subject to maintenance of surveillance identity, there is no requirement to change the level of service. 4) BS- no requirement to change the level of service provided.
174
What information is to be passed to a pilot conducting an instrument approach when they report they are not familiar with the procedures?
1) on initial contact; a) "This is the approach procedure for (aid) for Category (cat) A/C. Final approach track (degrees)" b) Arrival level (if necessary) c) Type of reversal manoeuvre including outbound track, length in time or distance, level instructions and direction of procedure turn where applicable. 2) When A/C commences final reversal; a) Intermediate and final approach track b) Intermediate and final approach fixes together with level instructions c) stepdown fixes and OCH 3) Missed approach point and missed approach procedure (when required) n.b. items 1 b and 1 c may be ommitted for straight in approaches the whole procedure may be passed at once if the pilot is copying down the information
175
Can a pilot request to change to a visual approach prior to the completion of an instrument approach?
Yes, standard sep against other IFR A/C is to be maintained unless the pilot cancels their IFR flight plan
176
When shall Approach Controllers explicitly instruct A/C to hold and what info must be passed?
When airborne holding is required, ifm the expected delay is to be less than that required to issue EATS then an estimate of the delay is to be passed.
177
Within what time shall EATs be passed?
With sufficient time for the pilots to arrange their flight paths accordingly.
178
When may an A/C in the hold be permitted to descend to the next level?
When the A/C below has reported vacating that level, however if severe turbulence exists than the instructions shall be withheld until the first A/C has reported at least 1000ft below the vacated level
179
When shall Approach Controllers issue EATs?
When the A/C is likely to be delayed before commencing an intermediate approach.
180
Under what other circumstances may an A/C wish to hold other than for tx reasons?
To await wx improvement
181
What phrase will be passed to A/C in the hold when they are holding for wx improvement?
"no tx delay expected" subesquent A/C will be advised that the "delay not determined (number) A/C holding for wx improvement"
182
What is an RSYD?
Release Subject Your Discretion Where an Approach Controller accepts responsibility for the provision of separation between an outbound A/C and the conflicting inbound or overflying A/C. Used in situations where the Approach Control procedures offer a more expeditious resolution to the confliction.
183
What shall Approach Control say to an A/C inbound from outside CAS that cannot be cleared to join or enter CAS yet?
They will be instructed to Remain Outside Controlled Airspace, told when to expect clearance and a time check.
184
When shall an APS controller pass the position of an a/c?
When the type of identification requires and; at least once during each leg of the cct (this can be a distance from touchdown), for a/c making a straight in approach it is to be passed at least once before it commences the final descent
185
What information is to be passed to a pilot whilst being vectored to final approach?
The type of approach and the runway in use
186
What additional information must be passed to a/c conducting a SRA?
The angle of the nominal descent gradient The termination range The applicable obstacle clearance altitude/ height The procedure to be followed in the event of comms failure if this is not published.
187
What is the minimum range an a/c will be vectored onto the final approach?
a) 2NM before the FAF for an ILS, MLS, VOR, NDB approach or SRA; or b) The IF for an RNP approach
188
What is the maximum closing heading permitted for an ILS approach?
45 degrees
189
When can you instruct a/c to establish on the loc?
Within the DOC of the loc
190
How can you instruct a/c to descend on the glidepath?
a) Clear them for the approach if they have been given descent to the procedure alt/hgt published on the charts or b) Issue a conditional clearance to descend on the ILS glidepath once established on the localiser (eg on reaching 10DME descend on the glidepath) c) When it is necessary to ensure that an a/c joining the ILS does not commence descent until specifically cleared, solely instruct the pilot to report established on/ the localiser and to maintain the previously assigned level- subsequently clearing them for the approach or to descend on the GP
191
What do you need to consider when giving a VFR or SVFR a/c a vector?
Whether they can accept that vector and remain VMC
192
Within what time should a clearance to land be received from twr for an SRA?
4NM
193
What distance must a landing clearance be received for a SRA a/c?
2nm
194
When will you pass IRVR values to pilots?
At the beginning of each approach for a landing and then whenever there is a significant change in the RVR until the a/c have landed.
195
What regulation governs the issue of ATC licences in the UK?
(EU)2015/340
196
What details must appear on an ATC licence?
1. State issuing the licence 2. Title of the licence 3. Serial no. of the licence given by the authority issuing the licence 4. Name, DOB, address, nationality and signature of the holder 5. Competent authority 6. Certification of validity plus dates of first issue 7. Signature of issuing officer and date 8. Seal or stamp of competent authority
197
For what reasons may action be taken against an ATCO's licence?
1. Deficiency in, or doubts about, competence to provide an ATC service 2. Doubts about whether an individual is a fit person to hold a licence, in relation to their character or behaviour, including their integrity, reliability and self-control 3. Inability to meet the appropriate medical standards
198
WIthin what time period must an MOR be filed?
72 hours
199
When can a Radar Handover be effected?
The transfer of responsibility for an aircraft from one controller to another may be effected provided that: (1) satisfactory two-way speech communication is available between them; (2) the identity has been transferred to, or has been established by, the accepting controller; and (3) the accepting controller is informed of any level, speed or vectoring instructions applicable to the aircraft at the stage of transfer. If the route of the aircraft is not known the offering controller is to pass the observed track or reported aircraft heading to the accepting controller.
200
How does a Radar Release work?
Control of arriving aircraft may be transferred to Approach Radar Control, when other aircraft would otherwise delay the released aircraft’s progress, in accordance with the following conditions: (1) The transfer of control message is prefixed “radar release”; (2) Details of all conflicting aircraft are passed to the approach radar controller; (3) Conflicting aircraft are either transferred to Approach Radar Control or identified according to the accepting controller’s decision; and (4) Neither the track nor the level of the conflicting aircraft is altered without co-ordination.
201
202
What does an APS rating entitle the holder to provide?
To act as an ATC in the provision of an approach control service with the use of surveillance equipment
203
What endorsements are associated with the APS rating?
SRA, PRA and TCL endoresments
204
A Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide...
...non-precision radar approaches with the use of surveillance radar equipment
205
A Precision Approach Radar (PAR) rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide...
...ground-controlled precision approaches with the use of precision approach radar equipment to aircraft on the final approach to the runway;
206
207
What is the lowest level available at EVN?
3000ft
208
What is the lowest level available at WVN?
3000ft
209
What is the lowest level available at TAM?
3000ft
210
What is the lowest level available at TYN?
FL50ft
211
What is the lowest level available at BRN?
FL60
212
How do you identify aircraft using the position report method?
By correlating a particular Position Indication with a report from the pilot that the aircraft is: (1) over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; or (2) at a particular distance not exceeding 30 miles on a particular radial from a co- located VOR/DME or TACAN (DME). The source facility must be displayed on the situation display; or (3) over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that (the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.) UK The identification must follow a period of track observation sufficient to enable the controller to compare the movement of the Position Indication with the pilot’s reported route. The reported position and level of the aircraft must indicate that it is within known PSR cover. This method must be reinforced by an alternative method if there is any doubt about the identification because of: (1) the close proximity of other returns; or (2) inaccurate reporting from aircraft at high level or some distance from navigational facilities.
213
How can transfer of identification be effected?
Designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt Notification of the aircrafts discrete SSR code or aircraft address Notification that the a/c is Mode S / ADS-B equipped with an ident feature when coverage is available Direct designation (pointing) of the Position Indication where two situation displays are adjacent or a conference type of display is used. Designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility, together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the a/c is not known to both ATCO's Not more than 30nm from the VOR/DME facility Instructing an aircraft to change SSR code by the and accepting controller observes this Issuing an instruction to squawk IDENT and accepting controller observes this
214
When shall an a/c be informed of their position?
Upon identification, except when identification is established: Based on pilots report of aircraft position or within 1nm of the runway on departure By use of ADS-B/Mode S ident or assigned discrete SSR code By transfer of identification When pilot requests this information When pilots estimated position differs significantly from controllers estimate based on observed position When pilot instructed to resume own navigation after vectoring If current instructions had deviated from assigned route Immediately before termination of ATS surveillance service if a/c observed to deviate from intended route
215
How is position information passed to a/c?
Reference to a well-known geographical position Magnetic track and distance to significant point, an en-route aid or approach aid Direction (using compass point) and distance from known position Distance to touchdown when on final approach Distance & direction from centre line of ATS route
216
How may a squawk be validated?
Instruct a/c to squawk assigned code and observe that the correct numbers appear on the situation display Instructing the a/c to squawk ident and simultaneously checking that the code numbers are associated with the radar return Matching a previously identified radar return with the assigned code for the flight
217
What are your actions if the observed Mode A readout does not correlate to that expected?
Instruct pilot to reset assigned code If error persists instruct pilot to select A0000 If it still persists instruct pilot to switch off transponder- a corrupt code may be retained for identification and tracking purposes if the Mode C is verified but adjacent ATSUs must be informed
218
When may a Mode A code be deemed validated?
When the code set can be recognised by the code assignment plan to have been assigned by a unit deemed capable of validating the code, providing the code has not been notified as corrupt.
219
How is Mode C verified?
By simultaneous comparison of the displayed data with the information received from the a/c via R/T. Reading to be +/- 200ft in RVSM airspace
220
What are your actions if the Mode C data is not within assigned tolerances?
Pilot should be advised and requested to check the pressure setting and confirm the a/c's level
221
What are the ATCO's actions if Mode C data is still inaccurate after confirming the pressure setting?
Request the pilot to switch off Mode C provided this does not interrupt the operation of Mode A and notify the next ATSUs of the action taken Inform the pilot of the discrepancy and request Mode C operation continue in order to prevent loss of position and identity information on the a/c, notify the next ATSUs
222
When is an a/c considered to be at an assigned level?
When 3 consecutive sweeps (or 15 seconds whichever is greater) show that the Mode C is +/- 200ft of the assigned level
223
When is an a/c considered to have passed a level (uk)?
When the Mode C indicates 400ft or more through that level and continuing in the anticipated direction
224
When is an a/c considered to have vacated a level (uk)?
When the Mode C indicates 400ft or more from that level and continuing in the anticipated direction
225
What is the definition of a radar handover?
Transfer of responsibility for the control of an a/c between two controllers using radar, following identification by both controllers.
226
What conditions are there before issuing a radar handover?
1. Satisfactory two-way comms is available between controllers 2. The identity has been transferred to the accepting controller, or has been established by him; and 3. The accepting controller is informed of any level, speed or vectoring instructions applicable to the a/c at the stage of transfer
227
Define the Transition altitude
The level at or below which an a/c's vertical position will be controlled with reference to Altitude
228
Define the Transition Level
The lowest usable flight level above the transition altitude, must be at least 1000ft above the TA
229
Define the transition layer
The band of airspace between the TA and the TL
230
When may an a/c be instructed to climb VMC?
When requested and agreed by the pilots of both a/c In Class D and E airspace Pilots maintain their own sep Below 10000ft During the day In VMC
231
What is Essential Traffic Information?
Information passed between a/c that are not separated by the appropriate minima
232
What shall Essential Traffic Information contain?
Direction of flight Type and W/T Cat of a/c Cruising level of a/c concerned and; a) Estimated time over the reporting point closest to where the level will be crossed, or; b) Relative bearing of the a/c concerned in terms of the 12-hour clock as well as distance from conflicting traffic, or; c) Actual or estimated position of the a/c concerned
233
Give an example of Essential Traffic Info
"Bigjet 347, essential traffic information, a westbound B737 maintaining FL80 estimating KTN at 50"
234
How will Royal Flights be protected outside CAS?
By the establishment of CAS-T
235
What class of airspace is CAS-T?
D
236
What are the dimensions of CAS-T?
Vertical and horizontal dimensions defined as required
237
For how long will CAS-T be active?
15 mins before to 30 mins after an ETD or ETA
238
What are the dimensions of RLLCs?
Royal Low Level Corridors 5nm either side of the a/c's track from the surface to 1000ft above the a/c's max operating level
239
To whom do we provide a Radar Control Service?
To IFR a/c in Class A-E Airspace To VFR a/c in Class C-D Airspace To SVFR a/c
240
Surveillance services should be reduced when?
a) A/C operating close to; the edge of situation display, radar overhead, weather clutter or PEs b) A/c is operating in area of high traffic density c) Operating close to limits of solid radar cover d) Services is provided by using SSR only (when approved) e) A/c is operating in known areas of poor surveillance performance/PEs/weather clutter f) ATCO suspects the ATS surveillance system is degraded
241
What are your actions when the radar fails?
1) Notify a/c under your control 2) Establish a procedural sep 3) Reduced vertical sep of (500ft) may be used temporarily 4) Pass ETI if necessary
242
What are your actions when the radar comes back into service?
1) Re-identify all a/c 2) Inform pilots when identified 3) Validate and verify SSR data if not already achieved
243
What is QDM?
Magnetic heading to a station
244
What is QDR?
Magnetic bearing from a station
245
What is QUJ?
True track to a station
246
What is QTE?
True bearing from a station
247
How can position information be passed to an a/c?
1) Well known geographical position 2) Bearing (using points of the compass) and distance from a known position 3) Magnetic track and distance to a reporting point, en-route nav aid or approach aid on the situation display 4) Lat and long 5) Distance from touchdown if the a/c is on final approach
248
How can you transfer identity of an a/c using PSR in the UK?
Direct designation Designation by direction and distance from a common reference point Designation by electronic means
249
What considerations are there regarding the direct designation method of transferring identity?
The situation displays must be adjacent or a conference type Ensure position returns correlate
250
What considerations are there regarding the method of transferring identity using direction and distance from a common ref point?
May be a nav facility or a geographical position Must be situated on both displays Position indication must be within 3nm of the position stated Distance between a/c and ref point must not exceed 30nm (using mag tracks, radials and bearings) or 15nm (when using cardinal directions)
251
What considerations are there regarding the SSR methods of transferring identity?
Both units must have SSR Only to be conducted in accordance with MATS part 2 and local agreements
252
What a/c may be offered a visual approach?
IFR only
253
Do VFR a/c conduct visual approaches?
no
254
When may an a/c conduct a visual approach?
Pilot reports he can maintain visual ref to the surface and; 1) The reported C.C is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment, or; 2) The pilot reports at any time after commencing an approach procedure that the vis will permit a visual approach and landing and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.
255
When can visual approaches not be approved?
When the RVR is less than 800m, in this instance pilot will be informed that this approach is not available and asked for their intentions
256
Are we required to provide Deconfliction Minima against a/c inside CAS?
No unless surveillance info indicates that a/c is leaving CAS
257
What are the deconfliction minima against known a/c?
3nm or 1000ft
258
What are the deconfliction minima against unknown a/c?
5nm or 3000ft, surveillance returns should also not merge unless Mode A data indicates that the Mode C is verified
259
What are your actions if a pilot under a DS asks to descend below the terrain safe level?
They will be reminded that they are responsible for terrain sep and service downgraded to a TS
260
When is traffic considered to be relevant?
When the flight profile indicates it will pass within 3nm or 3000ft of the a/c receiving the service. Info should be passed prior to the a/c being with 5nm
261
Who is responsible for terrain sep below the terrain safe level on a TS?
The pilot
262
When can ATCOs issue headings to a/c under a TS?
Only above the terrain safe level
263
What are our actions when an unknown a/c enters Class C airspace?
IFR flights shall be given avoidance advice and traffic info passed VFR flights shall be given traffic info and (if requested by the pilot) avoidance advice
264
What are our actions when an unknown a/c enters Class D airspace?
IFR flights shall be given avoidance advice and traffic info passed SVFR and VFR flights shall be given traffic info and (if requested by the pilot) avoidance advice
265
When using mode C, when is an aircraft considered to be at an assigned level?
An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C readout indicates 200ft or less from that level.
266
Using Mode C, when is an aircraft considered to have left a level?
An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400ft or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction.
267
Using Mode C, when is an aircraft considered to have passed a level?
An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have passed a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400ft throug that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction.
268
When can you clear an a/c to a level that has just been vacated by another a/c?
If vertical separation already exists then you can do this as soon as the other one has reported or is observed to have vacated the level. Otherwise must wait until the vacating a/c has reached or passed through a level that is vertically separated from the one you want to climb/descend the other a/c to.
269
What is LARS?
Lower Airspace Radar Service (LARS) units provide UK Flight Information Services (UK FIS) to aircraft outside controlled airspace up to and including FL100. Hours of operation will vary and service is always subject to ATC capacity.
270
Describe the semi-circular rule
A/c travelling east will do so at an odd level, west at an even level. VFR at 500ft. For IFR outside CAS below FL195 this is not required; 1) At or below 3000ft AMSL 2) Above 3000ft AMSL; a)In conformity with leveles allocated by an appropriate ATSU; or b) in accordance with instrument approach procedures notified by the CAA in relation to an aerodrome VFR not required to follow
271
What is a TMZ?
Transponder Mandatory Zone Airspace of defined dimensions within which the carriage and operation of a pressure altitude reporting transponder is mandatory
272
What is an RMZ?
Radio Mandatory Zone Airspace of defined dimensions within which the carriage and operation of suitable radio equipment is mandatory
273
What are, a) Temporary Segregated Areas, b) Temporary Reserved Areas, and c) Cross-Border Areas?
a) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit. b) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance c) is an airspace reservation (TSA pr TRA) established for specific operational requirements over international boundaries
274
What is a danger area
Airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.
275
What is the IFR minimum cruising level?
Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except when specifically authorized by the appropriate authority, an IFR flight shall be flown at a level which is at least 1000 FT (300 M) above the highest obstacle located within 8 KM of the estimated position of the aircraft.
276
What is the RPS?
Regional Pressure Setting Lowest forecast QNH in the region
277
What is an ASR?
Altimeter Setting Region
278
279
Define the VM (C) Area
Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area Area in which obstacle clearance has been considered for a/c manoeuvring visually before landing. Determined by drawing arcs centred on each runway threshold and joining these arcs with tangent lines
280
What is provided by elementary Mode S?
Callsign and Level
281
What is provided by enhanced Mode S?
As elementary + Speed, Heading, Present Level, Cleared Level, and ROC/ROD
282
What is MSAW?
Minimum Safe Altitude Warning Collerates Mode C readouts with minimum safe altitude and alerts to any a/c that are below or are predicted to be so shortly
283
What is STCA?
A Short Term Conflict Alert (STCA) is a system to warn the ATCO of any situation where user defined minimum separation distances between any pair of surveillance tracks is, or is predicted to be violated within a short look ahead time (usually 2 minutes). This is achieved via a visual alert on the radar display, though some systems also provide an audible alert.
284
RYR calls TCAS RA what would you say?
Roger
285
What are your actions in the event of a GPWS warning or unplanned go-around?
ATCOs not to dissuade pilot from climbing. Appropriate pressure setting to be passed when able. GPWS warnings to climb will temporarily suppress TCAS RAs for the a/c suffering the GPWS warning, all other a/c will have their TCAS operate as normal. Essential tx info and/or avoiding action shall be passed first to the a/c in conflict with the one receiving the GPWS warning. Essential tx info and/or avoidance advice to be passed to GPWS a/c once Mode C or S indicates it is above the appropriate SMAC level. TI may be passed earlier but only if deemed necessary to avoid collision.
286
What a/c are required to carry TCAS?
Any with a MTOW in excess of 5700kg or capable of carrying more than 19 pax
287
What transponder modes are required for TCAS RA's?
Mode A and Mode C or S
288
How long before an assumed collision is a TCAS TA given?
Typically 45 seconds
289
How long before an assumed collision is an RA given?
30 Seconds
290
What is a pilots reaction on the receipt of a TA?
Nothing, they just need to scan for traffic and may request updated traffic info
291
What are the pilots reactions to an RA?
Pilot will react to RA given immediately.
292
After a pilot has reported "TCAS RA" when can a controller next issue instructions to a/c?
When the pilot reports "clear of conflict"
293
What action should a controller take when a pilot announces climbing due to a TAWS alert?
Pass appropriate pressure setting
294
Following an RA when does ATC resume responsbility for separation for that a/c and any others affected by the manoeuvre?
When the pilot reports clear of conflict and current clearance resumed
295
In which direction or plane are RAs given?
Vertical
296
What is meant by co-ordinated/complimentary RAs?
Transponders of both a/c will communicate with one another and agree on a course of action.
297
Below what levels are a) increase descent RA's, b) Descend RA's and c) All RAs inhibited?
a) 1450ft AGL b) 1100ft AGL c) 1000ft AGL
298
What is TAWS?
Terrain Awareness Warning System Generic term that captures all equipment that assists a pilot to avoid a CFIT
299
What a/c are required to carry TAWS?
All turbine engined a/c with a MTWO of greater than 5700kgs or capable of carrying more than 9 pax
300
How much of a warning of a CFIT will a TAWS system give you?
Typically 20 seconds
301
What are the wake turbulence separation requirements for a/c in the intermediate approach phase?
1) 5nm between a HEAVY (excluding a SUPER) and a MEDIUM (UPPER and LOWER) or SMALL a/c following or crossing behind at the same level or less than 1000ft below 2) 6nm between a HEAVY (excluding a SUPER) and LIGHT a/c following or crossing behind at the same level or less than 1000ft below 3) As per Final Approach minima for a/c following or crossing behind a super at the same level or less than 1000ft below?
302
What are the wake turbulence minima for a/c on the final approach phase?
303
304
Name the types of flights that are afforded Cat A flight priority status.
Aircraft in emergency Aircraft which have declared a police emergency Ambulance/medical aircraft where the safety of life is involved.
305
Name the types of flights afforded Cat B flight priority status.
Police flights under normal operational priority Aircraft engaged in search and rescue ops Other flights approved by the CAA including open skies observation flights
306
Name the types of flights afforded Cat C flight priority status
Royal flights and flights carrying visiting heads of states which have been notified by NOTAM/temp supplement
307
Name the types of flights afforded Class D flight priority status.
Flights carrying the; 1) Prime Minister 2) Chancellor of the Exchequer 3) Home secretary 4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs Flights carrying visiting Heads of Gov. notified by the CAA
308
Name the types of flights afforded Class E flight priority status.
Flight check engaged in or en route to time or weather critical tasks HEMS/SAR flights positioning for the purposes of their duties Other flights authorised by the CAA
309
Name the types of flights afforded Normal flight priority status.
Flight planned aircraft following the standard routing procedures Initial instrument flight tests
310
What flight category are training and non standard flights?
Class Z
311
What are the different flight categories relevant to police flights?
Cat A- Police emergency, call sign will be suffixed with A Cat B- Normal operational priority Cat Z- Authorised for training tests etc
312
What is a HEMS flight and what flight category can it operate under?
Helicopter Emergency Medical Services flight, these operate to incidents where the safety of life is involved. They can operate as; Cat A flights when on emergency operational tasks Cat E when positioning for its duties Cat Z when training, testing etc.
313
What is the definition of windshear?
A sustained change in wind velocity along an aircraft’s flight path which occurs significantly faster than an aircraft can accelerate or deccelerate.
314
Give an example of the phraseology that will be used to pass on reports of windshear
“G-CD, at 0745 a departing B757 reported windshear at 800 feet. Airspeed loss 20 knots, strong right drift” When wind shear is forecast or is reported by aircraft, ATC will warn other aircraft until such time as aircraft report the phenomenon no longer exists.
315
How will Royal Flights be protected outside CAS?
By the establishment of CAS-T
316
What class of airspace is CAS-T?
D
317
What are the dimensions of CAS-T?
Vertical and horizontal dimensions defined as required
318
For how long will CAS-T be active?
15 mins before to 30 mins after an ETD or ETA
319
What are the dimensions of RLLCs?
Royal Low Level Corridors 5nm either side of the a/c's track from the surface to 1000ft above the a/c's max operating level
320
With regards to PSR what is an MTI?
Moving Target Indicator The part of the system that filters out returns which aren't moving in an attempt to filter out permanent echoes or objects unlikely to be an a/c
321
What are the advantages of PSR?
Does not require the a/c to carry any equipment and can therefore discover an a/c with transponder failure Cheaper
322
What are the advantages of SSR?
Requires much less power to achieve the desired range, because pulse does not need to travel to the target and back More information provided to the ATCO, including additional data based on the transponder mode Targets are easier to distinguish due to different SSR codes SSR is immune to clutter as it uses different frequencies for interrogation and reply
323
What is anaprop?
When stable atmospheric conditions/temp inversion cause false radar echoes due to ducting
324
What is clutter
Radar clutter is unwanted reflections from terrain, buildings, weather, flocks of birds etc that mix with a/c echoes and hinder target detection
325
What is selected flight level?
The flight level manually selected by the flight crew in the a/c FMS
326
What is the phraseology if the selected flight level is incorrect?
" check selected level. Cleared level is "
327
What is BPS?
Barometric Pressure Setting
328
How does ADS-B work?
By broadcasting information about an a/c's GNSS location, altitude, ground speed and other data to ground stations and other a/c, once per second. ATCOs and properly equipped a/c can immediately receive this info and have it displated to them.
329
How does MLAT work?
Multilateration employs a number of strategically placed ground stations, which listen for the replies to interrogations from local SSR/MLAT stations. Using the Time Difference of Arrival (TDOA) of each reply at each different station an a/c's position to be precisely triangulated.
330
What is the heading of an a/c?
The direction it is pointing
331
What is the track of an a/c?
The direction an a/c is travelling in
332
What is drift?
The angular difference between heading and track
333
What is true airspeed?
Speed a/c is travelling through the air
334
What is ground speed?
The speed the a/c is travelling over the ground, under the influence of wind velocity
335
What is indicated airspeed?
The speed shown to the pilots on the ASI
336
What is the effect of headwind on radius of turn?
Reduces the radius of turn
337
What is the effect of headwind on angle of climb?
Increases angle of climb. Same ft/min but increased ft/nm
338
What is the effect of headwind on angle of descent?
Increase angle of descent. Same ft/min but increased ft/nm
339
In theory what happens to wind as you ascend vertically?
Wind veers and increases in speed as you ascend vertically
340
What type of turbulence do strong winds near the ground cause, and where is this most likely to be encountered?
Mechanical Turbulence. Occurs near especially irregular terrain and man-made obstacles such as hangars
341
What is a discreet squawk?
Assigned by ATC to a specific a/c, used in a way that ensures the same code is not assigned to two a/c in the same airspace at the same time, to allow for identification
342
What is a conspicuity squawk?
Non-specific codes used either at pilot's discretion (eg emergency) or when no discrete squawk has been assigned?
343
If a discrete squawk is allocated what else must be done?
It must be validated by checking asap that the data displayed corresponds with the code which has been assigned.
344
What are frequency monitoring codes?
In order to prevent and mitigate the conseuqnces of airspace infringements, pilots operating close to the peripheries of certain CAS may select local SSR conspicuity codes and monitor the promulagated frequency. Selection of such codes does not imply the provision of any ATS
345
What is the squawk for flight cals?
0024
346
What is the paradropping squawk?
0033
347
What is the selected helicopter flights squawk?
0035
348
What is the powerline/pipeline squawk?
0036
349
What is the royal helicopters squawk?
0037
350
What is the IFR conspicuity squawk?
2000
351
What ils the VFR conspicuity squawk?
7000
352
What is the mil low level fixed wing conspicuity and climb out?
7001
353
What is the red barrows squawk?
7003
354
What is the aerobatics and display squawk?
7004
355
What is the high energy manoeuvres squawk?
7005
356
What is the cct squawk?
7010
357
What separation is required horizontally if PSR fails?
5nm
358
What separation is required horizontally if SSR fails?
5nm
359
How far should a/c be kept inside CAS, horizontally and vertically
horizontally- 2nm or half the standard minima vertically- 500ft
360
What distance is the minimum permitted length of an ILS Final Approach?
2nm from the FAF (5nm at Avon)
361
What distance of level flight is required on LOC before GP is intercepted?
2NM
362
What is a CDA?
Continous Descent Approach. An a/c operating techinique in which an arriving a/c continously descends from height avoiding level flight, thereby using minimum thrust reducing noise, fuel burn and emissions.
363
Describe the standard LOC and GP areas.
364
What is a SMAC?
Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart
365
State the amount of terrain clearance the SMAC ensures on initial approach and within the FAVA
Initial Approach 1000ft (same as initial approach segment) FAVA 500ft (same as intermediate approach segment)
366
What conditions must be met before using the FAVA level?
The a/c must either be established on the final approach track or on an intercept of 40 degrees or less
367
List the exceptions to the generic speed limit rule
Flights in Class A and B Airspace IFR flights in Class C airspace For exempted VFR flights in Class C airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS pt 2 For exempted flights in Class D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS pt 2 Test flights in accordance with specified conditions A/c taking part in flying displays when authorised by the CAA A/c subject to written permission granted by the CAA State a/c such as mil
368
When should traffic information be provided under a BS?
Info indicates that there is aerial activity in a particular location that may affect a flight A definite risk of collision exists
369
What is the minimu level for DS?
The ATC units terrain safe level
370
Under what circumstances can vectors be given to an a/c under TS below the terrain safe level?
If a pilot receiving a TS requests a heading from the ATCO whilst operating below the ATC terrain safe level, this may be provided as long as the ATCO reminds the pilot that they remain responsible for terrain clearance. For example "G-CD taking your own terrain clearance, suggest right heading 120 degrees"
371
What happens if a/c under DS requests to descend below the terrain safe level?
If a pilot requests descent below ATC unit terrain safe levels, ATCOs shall no longer provide a DS but should instead, subject to surveillance and RTF coverage, apply a TS.
372
What is meant by ground visibility?
The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer
373
What is meant by flight visibility?
The forward visibility as seen from the cockpit of an a/c in flight
374
Who decides if Class G is VMC and what type of visibility is used for this?
A/c commander and flight visibility
375
Which classes of airspace are controlled airspace?
A C D E
376
What is the standard size of an ATZ?
Height 2000ft AGL 2NM or 2.5NM (if runway 1850m or longer) radius from centrepoint of longest runway
377
Describe the standard dimensions of a MATZ
378
What is the maximum holding delay before accurate EATS have to be issued?
20 minutes
379
What are the ICAO recommended stabilised approach points in IMC and VMC?
IMC= 1000ft VMC= 500ft
380
What is the OCA?
Obstacle Clearance Altitude The lowest altitude above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the aerodrome elevation as applicable, used in establishing compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
381
What is the Decision Altitude?
the altitude/height in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue that approach has not been established.
382
What is the Minimum Descent Altitude/Height?
the altitude/height in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be made without the required visual reference.
383
What is the MSA?
Minimum Sector Altitude The lowest safe altitude for instrument flight within sectors of an aid, facility or aerodrome which is published in the appropriate approach chart.
384
What is the MAPt?
Missed Approach Point The point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.
385
What is the minimum level that can be given to an a/c within the final approach area?
The minimum levels as specified in the procedure approved by the CAA.
386
What is the minimum level that can be assigned to an a/c in the SMAA?
The minimum level as published on the SMAC.
387
What is the SMAA?
Defined area in the vicinity of an aerodrome, depicted on a Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart (SMAC), in which the minimum safe levels allocated by a controller vectoring IFR flights with Primary and/or Secondary Radar equipment have been predetermined.
388
What is the minimum altitude that can be given to an a/c outside of the SMAA and the final approach area within CAS?
Within 30nm of the radar antenna; 1000ft above any fixed obstacle within: a) 5 nm of the Aircraft and b) 15 nm ahead and 20deg either side of track. Aircraft within 15nm of antenna and provided a SMAC or approved procedure notified, 5 and 15 nm are reduced to 3 and 10nm respectivly Outside 30nm; 1000ft above any fixed obstacle; a) within 15nm of the centreline of the ATS route; or b) within 30nm of the a/c
389
What is a VM(c) Approach?
When an aircraft intends to land on a runway for which no instrument approach procedure exists, it may descend on the instrument approach to another runway and, provided the required visual references are established at the VM(C) Minimum Descent Altitude/Height, it may manoeuvre in a circling pattern visually for landing on the desired runway.
390
What is meant by delay not determined?
If, for reasons other than weather (for example an obstruction on the runway), the extent of the delay is not known, aircraft are to be advised “delay not determined”.
391
What do you say to following a/c when the first is holding for weather improvement?
Subsequent aircraft are to be passed “delay not determined (number) aircraft holding for weather improvement”.
392
What do you say to the first a/c when holding for weather improvement?
"no traffic delay expected"
393
What is an RNP Approach and what accuracy is required?
An RNP approach utilises GNSS augmented by either ABAS (e.g. RAIM) or SBAS to provide lateral only, or lateral and vertical guidance. The accuracy required is 0.3 NM unless it is a hazardous approach, requiring RNP (AR) in which case its 0.1 NM.
394
What information should be given to a pilot when they establish on the final approach track of a non-precision approach?
The aircraft is to be provided with a descent profile to enable a crossing of the FAF at the published procedure altitude/height.
395
What is safeguarding?
The act of protecting the runway in anticipation of Low Vis Operations. For LVOs there must be Low Visibility Procedures. When the vis or cloud falls below a prescribed minima and is forecast to worsen the ADC shall initiate safeguarding
396
Who is responsible for initiating LVPs?
The aerodrome controller
397
What do you need to say to a/c is LVPs are in force?
"Low Visibility Procedures are in Force"
398
What spacing do we provide at Avon during LVPs?
10nm normally 15nm fot facilitate a departure
399
Under what conditions must RVR be passed?
1. When the RVR reading is equal to or less than the maximum reportable for the RVR system in use 2. When Shallow fog is present and for the period for which it is forecast 3. Whenever the aerodrome met report shows the vis to be less than 1,500m
400
What does an SRA endorsement allow you to provide?
Non-precision approach conducted using surveillance radar equipment
401
Where can SRAs be carried out?
Only where the ATS surveillance system and the procedure have been approved by the CAA for use at a particular aerodrome
402
What must be passed during an SRA that terminates at 2nm?
1. Advisory heights through which the aircraft should be passing to maintain the nominal glidepath, together with ranges from touchdown, shall be passed at each nautical mile 2. The pilot shall be instructed to check their minimum descent height/altitude one mile before advisory heights/altitudes are discontinued 3. Advisory heights shall be discontinued at the one above the highest OCH
403
What will be provided during an SRA that terminates at less than 2nm from touchdown?
(1) Advisory heights through which the aircraft should be passing to maintain the nominal glidepath, together with ranges from touchdown, shall be passed at each half mile; (2) Transmissions shall not be interrupted for intervals of more than 5 seconds from a range of 4 NM until the approach is terminated; (3) The pilot shall be instructed to check their minimum descent height at a range of 2 NM; (4) Advisory heights shall be discontinued at the one above the highest OCH or at 1 NM, whichever is the sooner; (5) The controller shall not be responsible for any duties other than those strictly connected with the SRA.
404
405
What are the pilots responsibilities in regards to weather avoidance?
In CAS- obtain a clearance for any proposed detour if required to leave CAS- Following vectors the pilot is required to obtain a joining clearance to re-enter CAS
406
What is QDM?
Magnetic heading to a station
407
What is QDR?
Magnetic bearing from a station
408
What is QUJ?
True track to a station
409
What is QTE?
True bearing from a station
410
When can visual approaches not be approved?
When the RVR is less than 800m, in this instance pilot will be informed that this approach is not available and asked for their intentions
411
Are we required to separate a/c on a visual approach?
Yes they are still IFR
412
What are the deconfliction minima against known a/c?
3nm or 1000ft
413
What are the deconfliction minima against unknown a/c?
5nm or 3000ft, surveillance returns should also not merge unless Mode A data indicates that the Mode C is verified
414
What are your actions if a pilot under a DS asks to descend below the terrain safe level?
They will be reminded that they are responsible for terrain sep and service downgraded to a TS
415
When is traffic considered to be relevant?
When the flight profile indicates it will pass within 3nm or 3000ft of the a/c receiving the service. Info should be passed prior to the a/c being with 5nm
416
What are the segements of an Instrument Approach?
1. Arrival 2. Initial 3. Intermediate 4. Final 5. Missed
417
Describe the Arrival segment of a instrument approach
From the en-route phase to the approach phase, ends at the IAF
418
Describe the Initial segment of an Instrument Approach
Begins at IAF and ends at the IF takes a/c to the intermediate segment
419
Describe the Intermediate segment of an Instrument Approach
From IF to the FAF/FAP Speed and configuration adjusted to prepare for final approach Obstacle clearance reduces from 1000ft to 500ft
420
Describe the Final Segment of the Instrument Approach
From FAP/FAF to the MAPt Alignment and descent for landing are made. May be to a runway for a straight in landing or to an aerodrome for a visual manoeuvre
421
Describe the Missed segment of the Instrument Approach
Takes pilot from the MAPt up above obstacles (150ft above) and back to another attempt at the approach.
422
What may a MAPt be?
Glide Path DA/DH Nav facility Fix Specified distance from FAF
423
What is a DA or DH?
Decision Altitude/Height Apply only to precision approaches
424
What is a MDA/MDH?
Minimum Descent Altitude/Height For non precision approaches
425
Define a step-down fix
Provided in the final approach segment of instrument approach procedures to ensure obstacle clearance if there are significant obstacles under the final approach
426
At what ranges do SRAs terminate?
2nm, 1nm, or 0.5nm
427
In which order will ops report the runway condition codes to ATC?
Starting from the lowest runway denominator
428
In which order must ATC report them to pilots?
In the order starting from the threshold of the runway in use
429
A runway whose surface shows a change of colour due to moisture will be reported as what?
Wet
430
What is the maximum depth of water that can exist on a runway if it is to be reported as wet?
up to and including 3mm
431
What does the number 6 indicate?
Dry runway
432
What number will be assigned to a wet runway?
5
433
What is meant by the term slippery wet?
A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics of a significant part of the runway have been determined to be degraded
434
What descriptor is used to describe a runway with more than 3mm of water on its surface?
Standing Water
435
List the 8 descriptors which constitute a contaminated runway?
Compacted Snow Dry Snow Frost Ice Slush Standing Water Wet Ice Wet Snow
436
What percentage of each runway third has to be covered for the contamination to be considered significant to a/c performance?
exceeds 25%
437
List the descriptions of braking action which can be contained in pilots' braking action reports
Good Medium Medium to poor Poor Less than poor
438
When is braking action to be described as normal?
When the Condition Code is 5 or 6
439
When should unofficial reports from pilots, or unofficial observations from the tower be passed on?
When they are worse than those being officially reported
440
In addition to runway surface conditions, what else should be reported to pilots when runways are contiminated with snow and ice?
Runway de-icing activity that has taken place, such as chemical treatment or sanding Snowbanks on the runway giving the distance left/right from the runway center line Frozen ruts and ridges
441
What is the minimum altitude outside the SMAA and to what distance?
2,500ft up to 40nm
442
What type of service is provided in Class F airspace?
Air Traffic Advisory Service
443
From when until when do Approach Control provide ATC services to A/C within CAS?
1) Arriving A/C are released by Area Control until transferred to Aerodrome Control 2) A/C approaching from outside CAS place themselves under the control of Approach Control until transferred to Aerodrome Control 3) Departing A/C are taken over from Aerodrome Control until; a) they are transferred to Area Control; or b) they are clear of CAS 4) Overflying A/C are within the relevant CAS
444
Outside CAS from when and until when shall Approach Control provide services to A/C?
1) Arriving A/C place themselves under the contol of Approach Control until control is transferred to Aerodrome Control 2) Departing A/C are taken over from Aerodrome Control until they no longer wish a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the Aerodrome whichever is sooner. 3) Overflying A/C place themselves under the control of Approach Control until they are clear of the Approach pattern and either no longer wish to receive a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the aerodrome, whichever is the sooner.
445
What information shall Approach Control provide to Aerodrome Control?
1) Pertinent data on all relevant flights including the type of flight, ie IFR or VFR, level of arriving A/C and ETA; 2) The anticipated order in which control of A/C is to be transferred; 3) The anticipated delay to departing IFR flights together with the reason for the delay.
446
What information shall Approach Control provide to Area Control?
1) Lowest level at the holding facility available for use by Area Control 2) The average time interval between successive approaches 3) Revision of EATs issued by Area Control when Approach Control calculations show a variation of 5 mins or more; 4) Arrival times over the holding point if these vary from the estimate by 3 minutes or more 5) Missed Approaches when re-routing is entailed, in order that the subsequent action may be co-ordinated; 6) Departure times of A/C 7) All available information pertaining to overdue A/C
447
What shall Approach Control co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control?
1) A/C approaching to land, if necessary requesting clearance to land. 2) Arriving A/C which are to be cleared to Visual Holding Points 3) A/C routing through the traffic cct
448
What shall Aerodrome Control co-ordinate with Approach Control?
1) Departing IFR flights 2) Arriving A/C which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control)
449
What shall Area Control co-ordinate with Approach Control?
Arriving A/C which is to be cleared to an aerodrome holding facility or a Visual Holding point, instead of the normal holding facility
450
When may transfer of A/C to Aerodrome Control take place?
IFR flights operating with visual ref to the surface may be transferred in the following circumstances; 1) When an A/C carrying out an Instrument Approach has become no. 1 and for following A/C when they are established on final apprach and have been provided with the appropriate separation from preceding A/C; 2) A/C operating in the Tx Cct 3) A/C approaching visually below all cloud when the reported aerodrome visibility is 10KM or more. When the reported visibility of two values, the lower of the two values shall be used when determining whether transfer of control may take place. nb; in the case of 2 and 3 the volume of tx and Aerodrome workload must be such as to allow the use of one of the reduced in the vicinity of the aerodrome. In order to clear other A/C to descend through the cloud formation it will be necessary for the A/C approaching underneath to be kept more than 1,000ft below all cloud, or for horizontal separation to be provided.
451
When may transfer of communication from Approach Control to Aerodrome Control take place?
IFR flights when the A/C has become no.1 to approach, and for following A/C, when they are established on final approach and have been provided with appropriate separation. Until such A/C are visual with the surface the responsibility for separation remains with Approach Control. Aerodrome Control shall not issue any instructions or advice that would reduce the separation established by Approach Control.
452
Until when shall Approach Control retain contol of arriving VFR flights?
Until appropriate tx info on IFR and other VFR flights has been issued and co-ordination effected with Aerodrome Control. Should keep a particular eye on VFR flights arriving from directions in which other A/C will be letting down on an Instrument Approach, e.g joining straight in under the final approach when an Instrument Approach is active.
453
Can A/C be held over VRP's?
Outside CAS- Should not be done Inside CAS- Yes
454
When can separation be increased?
1) Pilot requests it 2) Controller deems it necessary 3) CAA demands it
455
When does transfer of control normally take place?
1) At an agreed reporting point 2) On an estimate for an FIR boundary 3) At or passing an agreed level 4) While an a/c is climbing to an agreed level providing separation will exist for the rest of the climb
456
When shall an a/c be informed of the change of service?
1) OCAS 2) Entering CAS 3) Changing from IFR to VFR or vice versa within class E airspace 4) VFR entering class B-D airspace from class E or vice versa 5) Leaving CAS unless pilots are provided with advanced notice (5-10nm or 3000ft-6000ft prior)
457
What is the Handover Acronym and what does it stand for?
PRAWNSS Pressure Runway (in use, surface conditions) Aids/Aerodrome Status (nav aid serviceability, etc) Weather (upper winds, unusual methods) Non-standard (flights, NOTAMS etc) Strips Set up of Radar
458
When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan in the UK?
* Flying over the sea more than 10nm from the UK coast * Over sparsely populated areas where SAR may be difficult * Into an area where SAR ops are in progress
459
What are AIC's?
Aeronautical information circulars ## Footnote Information that doesn't qualify for inclusion in the AIP or a NOTAM. **NOT A NOTIFIED DOCUMENT.**
460
What are the AIC colours?
White- Admin Yellow- Operations/ATS Pink- Safety Mauve- UK restriction charts Green- Maps/Charts
461
When may a pilot file a flight plan?
For any flight
462
When is a pilot required to file a flight plan?
1. For any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an Air traffic control service 2. Any flight within advisory airspace 3. Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services 4. Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate co-ordination with the appropriate military units or air traffic service units of an adjacent state to prevent the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification as prescribed by the state concerned. 5. Any flight across international boundaries 6. Any flight planned to leave the vicinity of the aerodrome at night
463
Do you need to identify an a/c on a basic service?
No Not unlessv you want him to fly a specific level or heading
464
When would you give an a/c receiving a Basic Service traffic info?
When there is a clear and present risk of collision with another a/c
465
When can you clear an A/C for the ILS approach?
When the a/c is inside the Localiser DOC and will intercept the Glidepath inside the Glidepath DOC