Written Exam Question Bank Flashcards
(189 cards)
1
Q
What regulation governs the issue of ATC licences in the UK?
A
(EU)2015/340
2
Q
What details must appear on an ATC licence?
A
- State issuing the licence
- Title of the licence
- Serial no. of the licence given by the authority issuing the licence
- Name, DOB, address, nationality and signature of the holder
- Competent authority
- Certification of validity plus dates of first issue
- Signature of issuing officer and date
- Seal or stamp of competent authority
3
Q
For what reasons may action be taken against an ATCO’s licence?
A
- Deficiency in, or doubts about, competence to provide an ATC service
- Doubts about whether an individual is a fit person to hold a licence, in relation to their character or behaviour, including their integrity, reliability and self-control
- Inability to meet the appropriate medical standards
4
Q
What is the suspension of an ATC licence?
A
To place licences, ratings or endorsements in abeyance, with conditions set.
5
Q
What is the revocation of an ATC licence?
A
The act of withdrawing licences, ratings or endorsements
6
Q
WIthin what time period must an MOR be filed?
A
72 hours
7
Q
What must accompany an ATC licence?
A
Valid medical certificate, and language proficiency
8
Q
How many licences may a person hold?
A
One
9
Q
From what weight limit does an ACN/PCN apply?
A
Aircraft above 5700kgs
10
Q
TORA for runway 26 is 2271, LDA is 1970. What is the length of the displaced threshold?
A
301m
11
Q
TORA for runway 08 is 2271, LDA is 1838. What is the length of the displaced threshold?
A
433m
12
Q
What colour are runway markings?
A
White
13
Q
What colour are taxiway markings?
A
Yellow
14
Q
What is a “Just Culture”?
A
A culture in which “front-line operators or others are not punished for actions, omissions or decisions taken by them that are commensurate with their experience or training, but where gross negligence, wilful violations and destructive acts are not tolerated”
15
Q
What is the spacing between lights on tall buildings/obstructions? What colour are these lights?
A
45m, red lights
16
Q
What does aerodrome lighting provide the pilot with?
A
Location
Orientation
Alignment
Roll guidance
Limited distance to go
17
Q
List the lighting categories and their associated minima
A
18
Q
List the precision approach runway categories and associated minima
A
19
Q
A
20
Q
Define a non-precision instrument runway
A
An instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual aid providing at least directional guidance adequate for a straight in approach.
21
Q
Define a precision approach runway
A
An instrument runway intended for the operation of a/c using precision approach aids that meet the facility performance requirements defined in ICAO Annex 10 appropriate to the categories of ops
22
Q
When shall Aerodrome lighting be displayed?
A
By day: when vis <5km or cloud base <700ft
At night: Irrespective of weather conditions
When requested by parent ACC
When deemed necessary by the controller
As instructed in MATS part II
23
Q
Which transponder mode, A or C, gives altitude?
A
C
24
Q
Who is responsible for terrain clearance for VFR flights?
A
Pilot
25
Who is responsible for terrain clearance for IFR flights?
Approach Control except when A/C cleared for a visual approach or in class F & G airspace
26
What is the definition of a holding procedure?
A pre-determined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance.
27
Which direction is a standard holding pattern?
Right
28
At what rate are hold turns made?
Rate 1 (3 degrees/sec) or with 25 degrees of bank (whichever uses less bank)
29
What are the normal holding speeds you would expect to see below 14000ft?
CAT A & B 170KIAS
CAT C, D & E- 230 KIAS
30
How long usually is an outbound leg in a hold?
1 min (1.5 above 14000ft)
31
What is an EAT?
Expected Approach Time
The time at which ATC expects an arriving a/c, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for landing
32
When shall an EAT be issued?
When arriving a/c are subject to a delay of 10 mins or more (or as determined by authority)
33
When shall an EAT be revised?
When it differs from the original EAT by 5 min or more (or as determined by the authority)
34
List the types of precision approach
PAR
ILS
ILS/DME
MLS
RNP APCH (ICAO only)
35
List the types of non-precision approach
RNP
NDB
VOR
GNSS
SRA
ILS (LLZ only)
VDF
36
What is the definition of a precision approach?
An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation
37
What is the definition of a non-precision approach?
An instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance
38
When is an a/c deemed to be stabilised on the approach?
A/C on correct flight path
Small inputs required to maintain correct flight path
A/C in landing configuration
Sink rate no greater than 1000ft/min
All briefings and checks complete
39
What are the segements of the instrument approach?
1. Arrival
2. Initial (IAF IF)
3. Intermediate (IF to FAF/FAP)
4. Final (FAF/FAP to MAPt)
5. Missed Approach
40
What are the segements of the missed approach?
Initial – MAPt to Start of Climb
Intermediate – Start of climb to 150ft obstacle clearance
Final – 150ft obstacle clearance to point where new approach/hold/en-route phase begins
41
What can a missed approach point be?
Decision height/altitude
Nav facility
Fix
Specified distance from Final approach Fix
42
What is the ICAO definition of identification?
The situation which exists when the position indication of a particular a/c is seen on a situation display and is positively identified
43
What is the definition of the act of identification?
The act of correlating a particular position indication with a specific a/c target by means of laid down procedures.
44
What are the methods of PSR identification?
Turn method
Departing Aircraft Method
Position report method
Transfer of identification
45
By how many degrees must an a/c be instructed to turn for identification using the turn method?
30 degrees or more
46
What must you consider before instructing an a/c to turn for the purpose of identification?
Terrain
PSR coverage
Other surveillance returns
Rules of the Air
Proximity of airspace
47
Within what distance must an aircraft be identified using the departing a/c method?
1nm from the end of the runway in use
48
What must be considered when using the departure method?
Aircraft overflying the airfield
Aircraft making missed approach
Aircraft departed from an adjacent runway
Aircraft holding overhead the airfield
49
What ways can a position report be used for identification?
Using a report over an exact reporting point shown on the situation display
Reporting their DME distance and range from a facility displayed on the situation display
Reporting over a notified visual reporting point displayed on the situation display
50
What is an exact reporting point?
A point established;
Overhead a VOR or NDB
Notified fix defined by VOR radial or a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB
Position defined by VOR radial with a range from a co-located or associated DME
51
Within what distance from a DME can an a/c report be used for identification?
20nm
52
How can transfer of identification be effected?
Designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt
Notification of the aircrafts discrete SSR code or aircraft address
Notification that the a/c is Mode S / ADS-B equipped with an ident feature when coverage is available
Direct designation (pointing) of the Position Indication where two situation displays are adjacent or a conference type of display is used.
Designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility, together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the a/c is not known to both ATCO's
Not more than 30nm from the VOR/DME facility
Instructing an aircraft to change SSR code by the and accepting controller observes this
Issuing an instruction to squawk IDENT and accepting controller observes this
53
When shall an a/c be informed of their position?
Upon identification, except when identification is established:
Based on pilots report of aircraft position or within 1nm of the runway on departure
By use of ADS-B/Mode S ident or assigned discrete SSR code
By transfer of identification
When pilot requests this information
When pilots estimated position differs significantly from controllers estimate based on observed position
When pilot instructed to resume own navigation after vectoring If current instructions had deviated from assigned route
Immediately before termination of ATS surveillance service if a/c observed to deviate from intended route
54
How is position information passed to a/c?
Reference to a well-known geographical position
Magnetic track and distance to significant point, an en-route aid or approach aid
Direction (using compass point) and distance from known position
Distance to touchdown when on final approach
Distance & direction from centre line of ATS route
55
What actions should an ATCO take in the event of misidentification?
Tell pilot to resume own navigation
Climb aircraft to safe level
Provide vertical separation/pass ETI
Continue to search for aircraft
Cancel any descent clearance and advise pilot to climb to original level
56
If identification is lost what action must be taken?
Inform pilot that identification is lost
57
What is the definition of Radar Map
Information superimposed on a situation display to provide ready identification of selected features
58
What is the definition of video mapping?
The electronic superimposing of a. map or plan on a situation display
59
Is it possible to achieve identification and validation simultaneously?
Yes
60
What is verification?
A check that the a/c's mode C readout is within agreed parameters
61
What is validation?
Checking that the correct code has been selected by the pilot and is showing on the situation display
62
An Approach control surveillance (APS) rating entitles the holder to act as an ATC in the provision of an approach control service...
... with the use of surveillance equipment
63
The approach control surveillance rating has...
...associated SRA, PRA and TCL endoresments
64
A surveillance radar approach rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide...
...non-precision radar approaches with the use of surveillance radar equipment
65
What is meant by an Approach Procedure with Vertical Guidance (APV)?
An instrument approach utilitsing barometric vertical guidance as well as lateral guidance but which does not meet the full requirements established for precision approach and landing ops
66
What is GNSS?
A generic term for all satellite nav systems
67
The minimum decision height for Localiser Performance Approaches with vertical guidance (LPVs) is...
200ft
68
"A method of navigation which permits a/c operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space based nav aids or within the limits of the capability of on board self-contained systems, or a combination of these" is the definition of:
RNAV
69
What action should a controller take when a pilot reports "TCAS RA"?
Acknowledge by saying "C/S roger"
70
After a pilot has reported "TCAS RA" when can a controller next issue instructions to a/c?
When the pilot reports "clear of conflict"
71
What action should a controller take when a pilot announces climbing due to a TAWS alert?
Pass appropriate pressure setting
72
Following an RA when does ATC resume responsbility for separation for that a/c and any others affected by the manoeuvre?
When the pilot reports clear of conflict and current clearance resumed
73
A radar handover may be effected provided that...
...satisifactory two-way comms is available between them
74
Prior to transfer of responsibility, the accepting controller is to be informed of...
any level or vectoring instructions
75
If the SSR is not available, a controller may transfer identity of an a/c to another controller by;
Any of the above methods
76
When the identity of an a/c is transferred from one controller to another by stating the bearing and distance of the a/c from a geographical position what is the max distance between a/c and ref point permitted by ICAO?
No limit specified by ICAO but national regulatory authorities may specify limits for use in their own countries
77
A mode C readout associated with a conspicuity squawy is considered...
...unverified
78
A/C may be instructed to squawk 0000...
when either Mode A or Mode C is corrupt
79
The minimum mode C accuracy tolerance which ICAO permits national regulatory authorities to specify for use within their own countries is;
+/- 200ft
80
According to ICAO procedures when can an a/c be said to have vacated a level once it has acknowledged a climb or descent instruction?
Mode C indicates more than 300ft away from the level
81
How long is a standard 5-bar approach lighting system?
900m
82
On a runway with a displace threshold with no reduction in TORA the...
landing distance available will be less than take-off run available
83
A pilot slightly below the correct glide path will see the PAPIs displaying
1 white and 3 red lights
84
Aerodrome elevation is;
The elevation of the highest point of the landing area
85
When both SSR and PSR are available, the "identification on departure" method may be used...
...by observing the PSR return
86
When employing the turn method of identification, what size of tuen is required under ICAO procedures?
30 degrees or more
87
According to ICAO procedures, the departing a/c method of identification must be completed before the a/c passes a point how far from the end of the runway?
1nm
88
According to ICAO procedures, a position report should be passed to a pilot after identification
all of the above
89
A step-down fix is provided, if necessary;
to ensure obstacle clearance during the final appraoch segment of an instrument approach procedure
90
The VM(C) OCA is designed for use by...
A/c conducting a visual cct to a runway after making an instrument approach to a different runway
91
On reaching his decision altitude a pilot must commence a missed approach unless...
...They have established visual reference
92
The principle whereby airspace is not designated as purely civil or military but is considered one single continuum within which the requirements of all airspace users should be accomodated to the maximum extent is called?
Flexible use of airspace
93
According to the principle of FUA any segregation of airspace should be;
Short-term
94
The body responsible for day-to-day management of airspace within the FUA concept is known as the;
Airspace management cell
95
A cross border area is...
...A TRA or TSA which straddles one or more international boundaries
96
What is the definition of Transition Altitude?
The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an a/c is normally controlled by reference to altitude
97
Complete the definition; the transition level is the lowest flight level available for use above the (...........................)
Transition altitude
98
Complete the definition; the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level is called the (...................................)
Transition layer
99
What is the QFE if QNH is 1021hPa and airfield elevation is 180ft?
1015hPa
100
According to ICAO, a/c being vectored inside CAS should be kept a minimum of how far away from the CAS boundary?
Half of the separation distance required within that area of CAS or 2.5nm whichever is greater
101
Why do pilots normally use a gyro direction indicator, rather than a magnetic compass to steer by?
The compass is inherently inaccuratev during turns
102
What is the minimum distance from touchdown an a/c should intercept the localiser during a radar vectored ILS approach?
5nm
103
What is the standard protected range of an ILS glide path?
10 miles and 8 degrees either side of the centreline
104
Which of the following are permitted to be used as a holding fix?
Overhead a VOR
Overhead a VOR with a co-located DME
Overhead an NDB
An intersection of VOR radials
An intersection of a VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME
105
What determines the ICAO approach category of an a/c?
The a/c's Vat in landing configuration at its maximum certificated landing weight
106
What is the purpose of a limiting DME?
To limit the length of the outbound leg
107
How long does a standard holding pattern take at or below 14,000ft?
4 minutes
108
Assuming a rate one turn how long will an a/c take to complete one orbit?
2 minutes
109
When may speed control not be applied by ATC?
Inside 4nm from touchdown
110
To what speed limit are most civil a/c restricted to below FL100 in classes E, F and G airspace?
250kt IAS
111
What is meant by an a/c's minimum clean speed?
The minimum speed the a/c can fly without deploying high-lift devices
112
When a/c are holding for weather improvement what should the first a/cs hold be advised about the delay?
No traffic delay expected
113
What is meant by RVR?
Runway Visual Range
A more localised assessment of the vis in relation to a particular runway when the general met vis is less than 1500m
114
Complete the sentence
One a 4F runway capable of Cat II/III ops there will be three IRVR sensing locations situated adjacent to the (...................),(....................) & (......................) of the runway
touchdown zone, midpoint and stopend
115
In what increments are RVR values in excess of 800m reported?
100m
116
What system enables use of control surfaces and high lift devices, as well as undercarriage retraction, nose wheel steering etc on most large a/c?
Hydraulics
117
One undesirable effect of a late change of runway or type or approach is;
An unstabilised approach
118
Complete the sentence, an a/c which is unable to lower its flpas will touchdown at a (....................) speed than normal and have a (.....................) than normal landing roll.
higher longer
119
Extension of high lift devices has which of the following effects on an a/c?
Increases lift, increases drag, increases fuel consumption, allows the a/c to fly at a lower speed
120
What class of airspace are ATZs?
The same class as the airspace in which they are situated
121
What is the definition of a Control Zone?
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
122
What is the definition of a Terminal Control Area?
A control are normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes
123
What is the minimum level that the lower limit of a CTA can be?
700ft AGL
124
In which classes of airspace is separation provided between all flights?
Classes A and B only
125
In which classes of airspace may VFR flights operate?
Classes B to G only
126
In which classes of airspace may VFR flights operate without an ATC clearance?
Class E, F and G only
127
In what classes of airspace are VFR flights separated from IFR flights?
B and C only
128
What communication equipment must be carried by all a/c except gliders and self-launching motor gliders wishing to operate within CAS in Europe below FL195?
VHF RTF capable of maintaining direct two-way comms with the appropriate ATC units on the intended route using the frequencies notified or otherwise designated by the competent authority for that purpose
129
The term used to describe the coverage of an RTF station is;
Designated operational coverage
130
What are the two levels of Mode S?
Elementary and Enhanced
131
What does transponder code 7500 indicate?
Unlawful intereference
132
What should ATC do, provided if an a/cs transponder fails whilst it is flying in transponder mandatory airspace?
Endeavour to provide for the continuation of the flight to the aerodrome of first intended landing in accordance with the flight plan
133
What should ATC allow an a/c to do if its transponder fails before it gets airborne on a flight for which the operation of a transponder is manadatory?
Prevent the a.c from departing unless it is impractical for repairs to be effected at the aerodrome, in which case flight by the most direct route possible to the nearest aerodrome where repairs can be effected should be facilitated.
134
Complete the following statement;
After a complete radar failure, if standard vertical sep cannot be establisehd immediately, emergency vertical sep of (........) that standard separation may be used temporarily
half
135
If the ILS localiser fails...
...the ILS cannot be used.
136
How can an a/c be identified by SSR means?
Observing compliance with the instruction to set a discrete four-digit code
Recognising a previously validated four-digit code- Code/callsign conversion procedures may also be used
Observing an IDENT feature when requested and observing the code numbers associated with the SSR response
137
What must be considered when using squawk ident?
Possibility of misidentification from simultaneous requests to ident
Ident cannot be used on conspicuity or special purpose codes
138
How can validation take place?
(1) Instructing the aircraft to squawk the assigned code and observing that the
correct numbers appear on the situation display;
(2) Instructing the aircraft to “squawk IDENT” and simultaneously checking the
code numbers associated with the SSR response;
(3) Matching an already identified Position Indication with the assigned code for
the flight.
139
If observed Mode A readout does not correlate with assigned code, what should your actions be?
Instruct aircraft to reset the code
Instruct aircraft to squawk A0000 if problem persists or turn transponder off
140
When may an SSR code be deemed validated?
When the code set can be recognised by the assignment plan to have been assigned by a unit capable of validating the code providing the code is not notified as corrupt
141
When should verification be carried out?
On initial contact or as soon as possible thereafter
142
What action should you take in the event of a discrepancy between the Mode C and pilot report?
Ask pilot to check pressure setting and report level again
Ask pilot to stop squawking mode alt due wrong indication
Inform the pilot of the discrepancy and coordinate with adjacent ATC
143
When is it determined that an a/c is occupying a specific level?
RVSM airspace: +/-200ft
Non-RVSM airspace: +/-300ft
144
When is an a/c considered to have reached a level to which it has been cleared?
When 3 display updates/15 seconds whichever the greater indicate the a/c is maintaining a level
145
When is an a/c considered to have vacated a level?
When mode C indicates a change of more than 300ft in the anticipated direction from previous level
146
When is it permitted to vector outside CAS?
In an emergency
To avoid severe weather
When requested by the pilot
147
What action should be taken when a flight is observed to be on a conflicting path with an unknown a/c?
Inform the aircraft of the unknown aircraft and if requested or deemed necessary, give avoiding action
Notify pilot when conflict no longer exists
148
What discrepancy may lead you to believe an a/c's compass/gyro is erroneous?
>10 degrees between track observed and expected
149
If an ATCO is vectoring an a/c with no compass/no gyro what must the pilot be instructed?
To make all turns rate 1
150
What is the ILS protected range (LLZ)?
10 degrees either side of FAT to 25nm
35 degrees either side of FAT to 17nm
151
Speed control cannot be applied after what point?
4 DME
152
Speed control is applied in multiples of how many kts?
10kts
153
What are the minimum speeds that may be applied to departing a/c?
Jets- 230kts
Non-jet- 150kts
Helis- 60kts
154
What is a SRA?
Surveillance Radar Approach
A non-precision approach using information derived from a situation display to guide a/c along the final approach track
155
What is the MAPt for an SRA?
Usually at 2nm, where the Radar Approach terminates, can be at 1nm when operationally advantageous
156
When shall an a/c on an SRA be instructed to carry out a missed approach
On instruction from ADC/APC
When landing clearance is not obtained by 2nm (or other distance agreed with ADC)
When the aircraft appears dangerously positioned on final approach
157
When is an a/c advised to carry out a missed approach when on an SRA?
If it reaches a position from which it appears a successful approach cannot be completed
If the a/c is not visible on the situation display for any significant interval during the last 2nm of approach
If the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach
158
Can you carry out an SRA with only SSR?
No an approved PSR and procedure must be in place
159
What must approved equipment show for SRAs?
Final approach track and ranges from touchdown
160
Can a ATCO provide an SRA terminating at less than 2nm from touchdown while controlling other a/c?
No, the SRA should be their only one
161
What increment of heading change is used for an SRA, terminating at 2nm and less than 2nm?
5 degrees for 2nm
2 or 3 degrees for <2nm
162
What is the definition of a Radar Approach?
An approach, executed by an a/c , under the direction of a ATCO using Radar
163
What is the definition of a step-down fix?
A defined point on the FAT indicating that a critical obstacle has been safely overflown and descent to the next specified level may be commenced
164
What is the minimum range an a/c can be established on an approach?
5nm
165
What actions should be taken in the event of an a/c transponder failure?
If after departure:
Endeavour to enable aircraft to continue to aerodrome of first intended landing
If continuation not possible, a/c may be required to return to ADEP or land at nearest suitable AD
If prior to departure:
If not practicable to repair transponder aircraft permitted to proceed to nearest suitable aerodrome where it can be repaired.
Consider expected and existing traffic situation before allowing
166
What is attenuation?
A reduction of strength or amplitude of a radio wave with time or range
167
Does TCAS five avoidance in the horizonal plane?
No- vertical only
168
Can TCAS respond to an a/c w/o a transponder?
no
169
What action may a pilot take in the event of a TA?
Not take any avoiding action, but may request traffic information
170
What action will a pilot take in the event of an RA?
Pilot will respond immediately (within 5s) but will restrict maneuvers to the min necessary to resolve the RA
171
When is an enhanced RA inhibited
below 1450ft AGL
172
When is a descent RA inhibited?
below 1100ft AGL
173
When is an RA inhibited?
Below 1000ft
174
When are spoken messages inhibited?
below 500ft AGL, and in the event of TAWS and W/S warnings
175
When does a controller resume responsibility for separation following a TCAS RA?
When the pilot reports clear of conflict and resuming previous clearance or,
When the pilot reports clear of conflict and resuming previous clearance and an alternative instruction has been passed and acknowledged by the crew
176
What is the accuracy of P-RNAV?
+/- 1nm
177
What is the accuracy of an RNP Approach?
+/- 1nm in the initial, intermediate and missed approach segments, +/-0.3nm in the final approach segment
178
What is the accuracy of an RNP AR approach?
+/-0.1nm
179
What is the definition of the transition level?
The lowest Flight Level available for use above the transition altitude
180
If the pressure is low, will the transition layer by lower or higher?
Higher
181
What info should be passed to an a/c at the commencement of final approach?
Significant changes to wind direction and speed
Latest information on any wind shear/turbulence on final approach
Current visibility in direction of landing or RVR values and trend when available
182
During the final approach, what information should be passed to an a/c?
Significant changes in RVR values/visibility
Sudden occurrence of hazards
Significant changes in runway surface conditions
Significant variations to the surface wind
Changes to the operational status of required visual/non-visual aids
183
What is airspace management?
A planning function with the objective of maximizing the utilisation of available airspace by dynamic time-sharing and segregation of airspace.
184
How many levels of airspace management are there?
3
185
What is the definition of traffic information?
Information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to other known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision
186
What is the definition of Essential Traffic Information?
Is that controlled traffic to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not, or will not be, separated from other controlled traffic by the appropriate separation minimum
187
What shall ETI contain?
Direction of flight
Type and wake cat if relevant
Level
Estimate for point where level will be crossed, or
Relative bearing/distance, or
Actual or estimated position
188
What shall traffic information contain?
Relative bearing of conflicting traffic (with optional left/right) or cardinal direction if in a turn
Distance from conflicting traffic
Relative movement of conflicting traffic
Level, if known
Speed of conflicting traffic
Type of conflicting traffic
189
