Alternate Question Bank Flashcards
(301 cards)
1
Q
What regulation governs the issue of ATC licences in the UK?
A
(EU)2015/340
2
Q
List 5 items that must appear on an ATCO’s licence
A
- State issuing the licence
- Title of the licence
- Serial no. of the licence given by the authority issuing the licence
- Name, DOB, address, nationality and signature of the holder
- Competent authority
- Certification of validity plus dates of first issue
- Signature of issuing officer and date
- Seal or stamp of competent authority
3
Q
Within what time period must an MOR be filed?
A
72 hours
4
Q
What does an APS rating entitle the holder to provide?
A
To act as an ATC in the provision of an approach control service with the use of surveillance equipment
5
Q
What endorsements are associated with the APS rating?
A
SRA, PRA and TCL endoresments
6
Q
A Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide…
A
…non-precision radar approaches with the use of surveillance radar equipment
7
Q
A Precision Approach Radar (PAR) rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide…
A
…ground-controlled precision approaches with the use of precision approach radar equipment to aircraft on the
final approach to the runway;
8
Q
For what reasons may action be taken against an ATCO’s licence?
A
- Deficiency in, or doubts about, competence to provide an ATC service
- Doubts about whether an individual is a fit person to hold a licence, in relation to their character or behaviour, including their integrity, reliability and self-control
- Inability to meet the appropriate medical standards
9
Q
State the two mechanisms available to the licencing authority if licencing action is required?
A
Suspension and Revocation
Suspension- To place licences, ratings or endorsements in abeyance, with conditions set.
Revocation- The act of withdrawing licences, ratings or endorsements
10
Q
Which item are holder responsible for adding to the licence themselves?
A
Their signature
11
Q
When will the APS rating be issued?
A
When the applicant has completed the relevant rating course
12
Q
Which two additional items are required for a licence to be valid?
A
Medical certificate and a language proficiency endoresement if required
13
Q
For how long is a medical certificate valid?
A
2 years under the age of 40
1 year at and over the age of 40
14
Q
What is the purpose of investigations by the Safety Investigation Branch?
A
To improve aviation safety by determining the causes of air accidents and serious incidents and making safety recommendations intended to prevent recurrence
15
Q
What does the SIB not do?
A
Apportion blame or liability
16
Q
Define a non-precision instrument runway
A
An instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual aid providing at least directional guidance adequate for a straight in approach.
17
Q
Define a precision approach runway
A
An instrument runway intended for the operation of a/c using precision approach aids that meet the facility performance requirements defined in ICAO Annex 10 appropriate to the categories of ops
18
Q
When shall Aerodrome lighting be displayed?
A
By day: when vis <5km or cloud base <700ft
At night: Irrespective of weather conditions
When requested by parent ACC
When deemed necessary by the controller
As instructed in MATS part II
19
Q
List the types of precision approach
A
PAR
ILS
ILS/DME
MLS
RNP APCH (ICAO only)
20
Q
List the types of non-precision approach
A
RNP
NDB
VOR
GNSS
SRA
ILS (LLZ only)
VDF
21
Q
Define the ARP
A
Aerodrome Ref Point
The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.
Ususally the centre of the longest runway
22
Q
Define runway
A
A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
23
Q
Define a manoeuvring area
A
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of a/c, excluding aprons
24
Q
Define a movement area
A
That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of a/c, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the aprons
25
Define a non-instrument runway
A runway intended for the operation of a/c using visual approach procedures
26
Define a hotspot
A location on an aerodrome movement area with a history or potential risk of collision or runway incursion, and where heightened attention by pilots/drivers is necessary.
27
Define the stopway
A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the TORA prepared as a suitable area in which an a/c can be stopped in the case of abandoned take-off.
28
Define the clearway
A defined rectangular area under the control of the appropriate entity, selected or prepared as suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.
29
Define the TORA
Take-Off Run Available
The length of the runway available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off. In most cases it will correspond to the length of the runway pavement
30
Define the TODA
Take-Off Distance Available
The TORA + the length of any associated clearway
31
Define the ASDA
Accelerated Stop Distance Available
TORA+ any associated Stopway
32
Define the LDA
Landing Distance Available
The length of the runway available and suitable for the ground landing of an a/c
33
What colour will aerodrome beacons be?
White flashes/ white and coloured flashes alternating
Land=green
Water=yellow
34
Where is the ARP normally located?
At the centrepoint of the longest runway
35
Define aerodrome elevation?
The elevation of the highest point of the landing area
36
Define landing area
That part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft.
37
Which two parts of the aerodrome make up the manoeuvring area?
Runways and taxiways
38
What effect would a displaced threshold have on a TORA?
No effect
39
What effect would a displaced threshold have on a TODA?
No effect
40
What effect would a displaced threshold have on a ASDA?
No effect
41
What effect would a displaced threshold have on a LDA?
Reduces the LDA
42
Why would there be a displaced threshold?
To allow for longer TORAs for departing a/c
43
Describe three types of pre-threshold markings and state meaning of each 1 of 2
44
Describe three types of pre-threshold markings and state meaning of each 1 of 2
45
How are taxiway centrelines delineated?
46
Describe a rapid exit taxiway
A taxiway connected at an acute angle and designed to allow landing a/c to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways and thereby minimising runway occupancy times
Intersection angle not less than 25 degrees, not greater than 45 degrees (30 degrees preferred)
47
How long is a standard 5 bar approach lighting system?
900m
48
What colour are threshold lights?
Green
49
What colour are runway end lights?
Red
50
What colour are taxiway edge lights?
Blue
51
What colour are taxiway centreline lights?
Green
52
In what area are taxiway centreline lights not all green, and what colour would they be here?
Inside the OFZ or ILS critical/sensitive areas, these will be alternating green and yellow lights
53
Describe coded runway centreline lighting towards the end of the runway
900m from the end the lights start to alternate red and white (for 600m), final 300m are solid red
54
Describe the change in colour of runway edge lights towards the end of the runway
Lights turn yellow for the last 600m or 1/3 of the runway length whichever is less.
55
Describe all possible PAPI indications
56
What colour are a) Civilian and b) Military Aerodrome Identification Beacons?
a) Green
b) Red
57
What is meant by ACN and PCN? (or ACR and PCR as it is in the presentations now)
ACR-Aircraft Classification Rating (or Number) -A number expressing the relative effect of an a/c load on a pavement for a specified sub-grade
PCR- Pavement Classification Rating (or Number)- A number expressing the bearing strength of a pavement for unrestricted operations
58
What is meant by a Strip?
An area enclosing a runway or any associated stopway
Reduces risk of damage to a/c that run off the runway
59
What is meant by the Clear and Graded Area?
An area within the runway strip whose dimensions are determined by the function of the strip in which it lies
Only obstacles small and frangible are allowed in this area
60
What is the maximum width of a)the strip, and b) the clear and graded area on a precision approach runway?
a) 300m (150m either side of centreline)
b) 210m (105m either side)
61
How far before the threshold do the strip and cleared and graded area start on a precision approach runway?
both 60m
62
What other protected surface is found at each end of the runway, where does this surface start from and how long is it?
Runway end Safety area
90m
63
In which order will ops report the runway condition codes to ATC?
Starting from the lowest runway denominator
64
In which order must ATC report them to pilots?
In the order starting from the threshold of the runway in use
65
A runway whose surface shows a change of colour due to moisture will be reported as what?
Wet
66
What is the maximum depth of water that can exist on a runway if it is to be reported as wet?
up to and including 3mm
67
What does the number 6 indicate?
Dry runway
68
What number will be assigned to a wet runway?
5
69
What is meant by the term slippery wet?
A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics of a significant part of the runway have been determined to be degraded
70
What descriptor is used to describe a runway with more than 3mm of water on its surface?
Standing Water
71
List the 8 descriptors which constitute a contaminated runway?
Compacted Snow
Dry Snow
Frost
Ice
Slush
Standing Water
Wet Ice
Wet Snow
72
What percentage of each runway third has to be covered for the contamination to be considered significant to a/c performance?
exceeds
25%
73
List the descriptions of braking action which can be contained in pilots' braking action reports
Good
Medium
Medium to poor
Poor
Less than poor
74
When is braking action to be described as normal?
When the Condition Code is 5 or 6
75
When should unofficial reports from pilots, or unofficial observations from the tower be passed on?
When they are worse than those being officially reported
76
In addition to runway surface conditions, what else should be reported to pilots when runways are contiminated with snow and ice?
Runway de-icing activity that has taken place, such as chemical treatment or sanding
Snowbanks on the runway giving the distance left/right from the runway center line
Frozen ruts and ridges
77
What name is given to NOTAMS which deal with contimination by snow?
SNOWTAMS
78
Describe the procedures for surface condition reporting on grass runways?
One descriptor and code for the entire runway length (no thirds)
79
At what rate are hold turns made?
Rate 1 (3 degrees/sec) or with 25 degrees of bank (whichever uses less bank)
80
What is an EAT?
Expected Approach Time
The time at which ATC expects an arriving a/c, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for landing
81
When shall an EAT be issued?
When arriving a/c are subject to a delay of 10 mins or more (or as determined by authority)
82
What are the hilding speeds for a/c up to an including 14000ft?
Normal;
CAT A & B- 170kt
CAT C, D & E- 230kt
Turbulent
CAT A & B- 170kt
CAT C, D & E- 280kt
83
What are the holding speeds for a/c above 14000ft up to and including 20000ft?
Normal- 240kt
Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80
84
What are the holding speeds above 20000ft up to and including 34000ft
Normal- 265kt
Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80
85
What is the normal length of the legs for a hold?
1 min, 1 and 1/2 above 14000ft
86
Describe the standard holding procedure
87
Describe the Parallel Entry to the hold
88
Describe the Offset Entry procedure
89
Describe the Direct Entry Procedure
90
How long does a complete holding pattern take a) up to, and b) above this level?
4 mins up to and inc. 14000ft
5 mins above this
91
What purposes do, a) a limiting radial, and, b) a limiting DME perform?
To limit the length of the outbound leg
92
What is the Vat of a Cat A A/C?
<91kts IAS
93
What is the Vat of a Cat B A/C?
91kts-120kts IAS
94
What is the Vat of a Cat C A/C?
121kts- 140kts IAS
95
What is the Vat of a Cat D A/C?
141kts- 165kts IAS
96
What is the Vat of a Cat E A/C?
166kts-210kts IAS
97
Which of the following are permitted to be used as a holding fix?
Overhead a VOR
Overhead a VOR with a co-located DME
Overhead an NDB
An intersection of VOR radials
An intersection of a VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME
98
What determines the ICAO approach category of an a/c?
The a/c's Vat in landing configuration at its maximum certificated landing weight
99
What is the strip marking for delay not determined?
Z
100
What is the strip marking for delay for no delay expected?
^
101
102
What action should a controller take when a pilot reports "TCAS RA"?
Acknowledge by saying "C/S roger"
103
After a pilot has reported "TCAS RA" when can a controller next issue instructions to a/c?
When the pilot reports "clear of conflict"
104
What action should a controller take when a pilot announces climbing due to a TAWS alert?
Pass appropriate pressure setting
105
Following an RA when does ATC resume responsbility for separation for that a/c and any others affected by the manoeuvre?
When the pilot reports clear of conflict and current clearance resumed
106
What is the difference between a TCAS TA and a TCAS RA?
TA=Traffic Advisory- Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action
RA= Resolution Advisory and Pilots will take action in response to these
107
In which direction or plane are RAs given?
Vertical
108
What reporting action is required following a RA?
MOR to be filed, must also file an AIRPROX if necessary
109
What must the conflicting a/c have in order to trigger TCAS alert?
A transponder with A & C or S
110
What instructions can be given to an a/c during an RA?
None
111
What is meant by co-ordinated/complimentary RAs?
Transponders of both a/c will communicate with one another and agree on a course of action.
112
Below what levels are a) increase descent RA's, b) Descend RA's and c) All RAs inhibited?
a) 1450ft AGL
b) 1100ft AGL
c) 1000ft AGL
113
List two other forms of Airborne Collision
TAS and FLARM
114
What must be available between two controllers for one to give a radar handover to the other?
1. Satisfactory two-way comms is available between controllers
115
List four methods of giving a radar handover
1. Designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt
2. Notification of the a/c's discrete SSR code or a/c address
3. Notification that the a/c is SSR Mode S/ ADS-B equipped with an a/c ident feature.
4. Direct designation (pointing at it) of the position indication when two screens are adjacent or a conference type of display is used
5. Designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the a/c is not known
6. Instructing an a/c to change SSR codes by the transferring controller and the accepting controller seeing the change
7. Issuance of an instruction to the a/c by the transferring controller to 'squawk ident' and observation of this response by the accepting controller
116
Apart from flight details, what must the receiving controller be informed of (if applicable) during a radar handover?
Of any level, speed or vectoring instructions applicable to the a/c at the point of transfer
117
In addition to position, what must the receiving controller be informed of during transfer of identification?
The track of the observed position indication if the route of the a/c is not known to both controllers
118
If bearing and distance from a common reference point are used to transfer identification, what is the maximum distance the a/c can be from the reference point? (ICAO)
20nm
119
How close to the stated position must the a/c be, as seen by the receiving controller, for it to be acctepted for identification?
20nm (?)
120
Of what should the offering controller be satisfied before attempting a radar handover?
(not sure of this one but either)
That the identity of the a/c has been passed to the receiving controller
or
that the a/c is in the surveillance coverage of the receiving controller
121
List four methods of indentification using PSR
The turn method
Departing a/c method
Position report method
Transfer of identification
122
If both PSR and SSR available, which radar return has to be observed for the departing a/c method of identification to be used?
Primary return
123
Within how many miles from the end of the runway does the departing a/c method of identification have to be completed?
1nm
124
What is the minimum turn permitted for identification to be achieved using the turn method?
30 degrees
125
Following identification by the turn method, what two things must the pilot be informed of?
That he has been identified and his position
126
List 4 things to consider before a turn for identification canbe issued
Terrain
PSR coverage
Other surveillance returns
Rules of the Air
Proximity of airspace
127
List 5 positions which can be used as position reports to identify an a/c by the position report method?
Over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; which are;
1) Overhead a VOR
2) Overhead an NDB
3) Notified fix defined by VOR radial or a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB
4) Position defined by VOR radial with a range from a co-located or associated DME (no more than 30nm)
5) Over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in
either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display,
provided that the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at
a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.
128
Within what distance from a DME can an a/c report be used for identification?
20nm (ICAO)
129
A/C may be instructed to squawk 0000...
when either Mode A or Mode C is corrupt
130
What action should you take in the event of a discrepancy between the Mode C and pilot report?
Ask pilot to check pressure setting and report level again
Ask pilot to stop squawking mode alt due wrong indication
Inform the pilot of the discrepancy and coordinate with adjacent ATC
131
What is the prime consideration when turning a VFR flight for identification?
Terrain as they will be taking their own terrain sep.
132
When should an a/c be told it is identified?
Outside CAS- for all methods of ident
Inside CAS- only required when using the turn method
133
When should a pilot be informed of his/her position after identification?
Following the turn method of ident
134
List three methods of identification using SSR
(1) Observing the pilot’s compliance with the instruction to select a discrete four digit code;
(2) Recognising a validated four-digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign. When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish and maintain identity;
(3) Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested.
135
What 2 actions should be undertaken following allocation of a discrete squawk?
Validation and verification
136
How accurate should altitude readout be in non-RVSM airspace to be deemed verified? (ICAO)
+/- 300ft
137
What is the greatest accuracy requirement which ICAO permit local authorities to demand in their own airspace?
+/- 200ft
138
List the types of precision approach
PAR
ILS
ILS/DME
MLS
RNP APCH (ICAO only)
139
List the types of non-precision approach
RNP
NDB
VOR
GNSS
SRA
ILS (LLZ only)
VDF
140
What is the definition of a precision approach?
An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation
141
What is the definition of a non-precision approach?
An instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance
142
What are the segements of the instrument approach?
1. Arrival
2. Initial (IAF IF)
3. Intermediate (IF to FAF/FAP)
4. Final (FAF/FAP to MAPt)
5. Missed Approach
143
What is a VM (C) approach?
144
What is a VM (C) Approach?
A/c conducting a visual cct to a runway after making an instrument approach to a different runway
145
What determines whether an a/c will continue its approach or will go-around on reaching its decisions altitude?
Whether they have established visual reference
146
What is the relationship between OCA (H) and DA (H)?
A margin exists between the two which determines a lower limit based on operational considerations
147
Define a step-down fix
Provided in the final approach segment of instrument approach procedures to ensure obstacle clearance if there are significant obstacles under the final approach
148
List the categories of ILS approaches
CAT I
CAT II
CAT IIIA
CAT IIIB
CAT IIIC
149
What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT I ILS?
DH no less than 200ft
150
What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT II ILS?
Ops with DH lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft
151
What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT III ILS?
Ops either;
1. DH <100ft, or, no DH and RVR not less than 175m
2. DH <50ft, or, no DH and RVR less than 175m but greater than 50m
3. No DH and no RVR limitations
152
What terrain clearance is required during, a) the initial, b) the intermediate, c) the final approach?
a) 1000ft
b) 500ft
c) 75m with FAF, 90m without FAF (for non-precision approaches) for precision approaches it will be as determined for that precision approach
153
Where does the STAR end and the initial approach segement commence?
IAF- Initial Approach Fix
154
What is the difference between a FAF and a FAP?
FAF= Final Approach Fix (only on non-precision approaches)
FAP= Final Approach Point (only on precision approaches)
155
What are the ICAO recommended from pilots if the a/c is not stable by these points?
500ft in VMC
1000ft in IMC
both above aerodrome elevation
156
What action is required by pilots if the a/c is not stable by these points?
Make an immediate go-around
157
What is a CDA?
Continous Descent Approach
158
What are, a) a base turn, and b) a procedure turn?
Both a form of reversal procedure which are to be used when no IAF or IF are available to construct a straight in approach.
a) Base turn flys an outsbound leg from the holding point for a time and then makes a continous turn onto approach
c) Procedure turn flys up the final approach (for a time/distance) initially before making a turn outbound to begin a turn back onto final approach
159
Define RNAV
A method of navigation that permits a/c operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space based navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.
160
What is meant by GNSS?
A worldwide position and time
determination system that includes one or more satellite constellations, aircraft receivers and system integrity monitoring, augmented as necessary to support the required navigation performance for the intended operation.
(generic term)
161
List two other GNSS systems apart from GPS
GLOSNAS
Galileo
162
What is meant by, a) SBAS, and b) GBAS?
a) Satellie Based Augmentation System- an ICAO standardized wide area GNSS augmentation system which uses information from satellite based transmitters
b) Global Based Augmentation System- uses three or four antennae providing correction and signal integrity monitoring of GNSS
163
What is the European SBAS called?
EGNOS
164
What is the range of a GBAS station?
23nm
165
What do, a) LNAV and, b) VNAV mean?
a) Lateral Navigation
b) Vertical Navigation
166
What is an APV?
Approach Procedure with Vertical Guidance
A PBN instrument approach procedure designed for 3D instrument approach operations (Type A)
167
What is an LPV?
Localiser Performance with Vertical Guidance
The highest precision GNSS approach currently available without specialised aircrew training.
168
What is the minimum decision height allowed for LPV approaches?
200ft
1500m
169
What is meant by a GLS?
A form of GNSS precision approach
170
List two GNSS approaches which are considered precision approaches
LPV
GLS
APV
171
What accuracy is required by, a) B-RNAV, and b) P-RNAV systems, and for what percentage of the flight time?
a) +/- 5nm from the track for 95% of the flight time
b) +/- 1nm from the track for 95% of the flight time
172
What does RNP mean?
Required Navigational Performance
173
What RNP is required for GNSS systems to be used, a) for navigation along airways, b) for navigation in terminal areas, and c) as an instrument final approach aid?
a) +/1nm
b) +/- 0.3nm
c) +/- 0.3nm
174
What is meant by an RNP (AR) Approach?
Defined as an RNP approach procedure that requires a lateral TSE lower than the standard RNP values on any segment of the approach procedure, down to 0.10nm and similar to ILS CAT II/III
175
Apart from equipment failure, list two ways in which GNSS systems can be disrupted
Jamming
Scrambling
Decoys
176
According to ICAO when should an a/c's readout be verified?
Verification of pressure-altitude derived level information displayed to the controller shall be effected at least once by each equipped ATC unit on initial contact with thea/c concerned or, if this is not feasible, asap thereafter
177
What actions should ATC take if the altitude readout is out of tolerance?
Ask pilot to check pressure setting and report level again
Ask pilot to stop squawking mode alt due wrong indication
Inform the pilot of the discrepancy and coordinate with adjacent ATC
178
How accurate does the altitude readout have to be for it to be verified in non-RVSM airspace?
Non-RVSM airspace: +/-300ft
179
When is an a/c considered to have reached a level to which it has been cleared?
When 3 display updates/15 seconds whichever the greater indicate the a/c is maintaining a level
180
When is it determined that an a/c is occupying a specific level?
RVSM airspace: +/-200ft
Non-RVSM airspace: +/-300ft
181
When is an a/c considered to have vacated a level?
When mode C indicates a change of more than 300ft in the anticipated direction from previous level
182
What is a quicker method to ascertain an a/c's level occupancy?
Dont know whats quicker than reading it off the screen...
183
State two times when an a/c at FL90 could not be cleared down to FL80 as soon as the a/c at FL80 was known to have vacated that level for FL70 or below?
Due to turbulence
or if necessary due to differences in a/c descent performance
184
Under the flexible use of airspace concept how long should airspace segregation last?
Should only be temporary
185
Which organisations manage the flexible use of airspace?
Airspace Management Cells (AMCs)
186
List the three levels of ASM
Lv 1- Strategic
Lv 2- Pre-Tactical
Lv 3- Tactical
187
What name is given to a volume of airspace which can be used flexibly and is subject to management by an AMC?
AMC Manageable Area
188
What are, a) Temporary Segregated Areas, b) Temporary Reserved Areas, and c) Cross-Border Areas?
a) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit.
b) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance
c) is an airspace reservation (TSA pr TRA) established for specific operational requirements over international boundaries
189
What name is given to the procedure whereby volumes of airspace are temporarily allocated to one user or another?
Temporary Airspace Allocation Process
190
What is the defintion of a Danger Area?
airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of a/c may exist at specified times
191
What is a conditional route?
a non-permanent ATS route that is only available for flight planning and use under certain specified conditions
192
List the 3 categories of CDRs?
1. Permanently Plannable
2. Non-permanently Plannable
3. Not Plannable CDR
193
Define, a) Transition Altitude, b) Transition Level, c) Transition Layer
a) The level at or below which an a/c's vertical position is controlled with reference to altitude
b) The lowest Flight Level available for use above the Transition Altitude
c) The airspace between the Transition Altitude and the Transition Level
194
What is the minimum thickness of the Transition Layer?
1000ft
195
With QNH set, what term is used to express and a/c's level, and from what datum is it measured?
Altitude and mean sea level
196
With QFE set, what term is used to express and a/c's level, and from what datum is it measured?
Height and surface (usually aerodrome) elevation
197
In what other units (apart from HecotPascals) can QNH be measured?
Inches of mercury
Millibars
198
If QNH is low (ie 1013 hPa or below) will flight levels be above or below their equivalent altitudes?
Below
199
How far above the base of CAS should a/c be kept?
500ft
200
In what class of airspace is an a/c flying at exactly the base of CAS deemed to be?
Class G, they would be deemed to be outside CAS
201
Describe the semi-circular rule
Levels shall be allocated in accordance with the table of cruising levels outside CAS (eastbound odd levels, westbound even levels)
unless;
At or below 3000ft AMSL
Above 3000ft in conformity with levels allocated by an appropriate ATSU or in accordance with Instrument Approach Procedures
202
Although taken to be 30ft per hPa for calculations, what is the actual vertical distance which equates to a one hPa change in pressure?
27ft
203
Although usually taken as 1013hPa, what is the actual standard pressure setting to one decimal place?
1013.2
204
Practice Altimetry a few times
205
What is the difference between heading and track called and what causes it?
Drift- wind
206
How far inside CAS should a/c be kept?
2.5nm or half the minima
207
Why do pilots usually determine their heading from a directional gyro rather than a compass?
Due to the inherent inaccuracy of compasses when making a turn
208
What is the minimum distance from touchdown an a/c can be vectored to intercept the localiser?
5nm
209
What is the maximum angle allowed between closing heading and approach track?
40 degrees
210
What is a CDA?
Continous Descent Approach
211
Apart from CDAs, how many miles of level flight on the localiser should an a/c be given before intercepting the glide path?
2nm
212
On a 3 degree glide path, how high above the runway would an a/c be at 7nm from touchdown?
2100ft
213
For a 3 degree glide path, how far from touchdown would an a/c be when passing 7,500ft AAL?
25nm
214
Draw or describe the standard DOC for a localiser and a glide path?
Localiser- 10 degrees either side to 25nm, 35 degrees either side to 17nm
Glide-path- 8 degress either side to 10nm
215
How many degrees per second in a rate one turn?
3 degrees per second
216
How long does it take to complete an orbit at rate one?
2 minutes
217
What are, a) Indicated Airspeed, b) True Airspeed, c) Groundspeed, d) Mach no.?
a) Speed indicated on the a/c's airspeed indicator
b) Airspeed of the a/c through the air
c) Speed of the a/c over the surface of the Earth
d) Airspeed expressed as a ratio between TAS and the speed of sound at a particular level
218
What is the latest time speed control can be applied by ATC?
4nm
219
What is the maximum speed which can be allocated up to 4nm from touchdown?
160kts
220
What is meant by "minimum clean speed"?
The minimum speed an a/c can achieve before having to deploy lift devices such as flaps and slats
221
List the standard speeds which ATC can apply to jet a/c in an inbound sequence, along with the distances from touchdown at which these may be applied
250kts above FL60
220kts on descent from FL60
180kts when late downwind or base leg
160kts to 4 DME
222
What is a release point?
A release point is the point which an a/c is authorised to be controlled by a new unit or sector
223
What information should be passed to a pilot who reports established on the FAT of a non-precision approach?
Pass a range check
224
What effect does tailwind have, a) on angle of descent, and b) on radius of turn?
a) Shallow off the angle of descent
b) Widen the radius of turn
225
List the ICAO classes of airspace
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
226
Which of the classes of airspace are CAS?
A
B
C
D
E
227
What is Class F airspace?
Advisory airspace
228
In which class of airspace are VFR flights not allowed?
Class A
229
In which classes of airspace may VFR flights operate without an ATC clearance?
E, F and G
230
In which classes of airspace may all flights operate without an ATC clearance?
F and G
231
What type of service (ICAO) is available to VFR flights in, a) Class E, and b) F airspace?
FIS (traffic info) to both
232
In which classes of airspace are all flights separated?
A and B
233
In which classes of airspace are VFR flights separated from IFR flights?
B and C
234
What rules apply to the separation of IFR and VFR flights in Class D airspace (including the caveat)?
IFR separated from other IFR and SVFR and vice versa.
IFR given traffic information on VFR and vice versa with avoidance advice given if requested
235
What is the generic speed limit (and below what level it does it apply?)
250kts IAS below FL100
236
In what classes of airspace does the speed limit not apply?
Class A and B
237
What is the minimum level of a CTA?
700ft AGL
238
What are CTRs?
a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to a specified upper limit
239
What are CTAs?
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth
240
What are TMAs?
A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes
241
What class of airspace are ATZs?
The same airspace as that within which they reside
242
What are the standard sizes of ATZs?
Surface to 2000ft AGL
Radius of 2nm (if longest runway equal to or less than 1850m) or 2.5nm (if longest runway is longer than 1850m)
243
When are ATZs active?
When they aerodrome they protect is active or outside these hours by NOTAM
244
What is a TMZ?
Transponder Mandatory Zone
Airspace of defined dimensions within which the carriage and operation of a pressure altitude reporting transponder is mandatory
245
What is an RMZ?
Radio Mandatory Zone
Airspace of defined dimensions within which the carriage and operation of suitable radio equipment is mandatory
246
What is an FRZ?
Flight Restriction Zone
247
To which flights does the speed limit not apply in Class C airspace?
IFR flights
248
Under what circumstances can ATC cancel the speed limit in Class D airspace?
for exempted flights in Class D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS Part 2;
249
What is the main factor in deciding the runway in use?
Wind
250
What is meant by the limiting speed of radar aerials?
The wind speed limit in which they can continue to safely operate and will normally shut down if this is exceeded
251
How can wind limiting speeds for radar aerials be avoided?
Enclose the radar in a RADOME
252
Define RVR
A more localised assessment of visual range in relation to a particular runway when the general met vis is less than 1500m
253
What does RVR indicate to a pilot?
The range over which the pilot of an a/c on the runway centreline can expect to see the runway surface markings, the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centreline
254
State two methods of obtaining RVR?
IRVR and the human observer method
255
State the three locations where IRVR values are measured
Touchdown
Mid-point
Stop-end
256
Which RVR reading is always to be reported?
Touchdown
257
For which location are human observer method RVR readings reported?
Touchdown
258
In what increments are RVRs to be reported?
Up to 400m= 25m
400-800m= 50m
Above 800m= 100m
259
What are the maximum and minimum RVR value which can be reported?
Max= 2000m
Min= 50m
260
What happens to flight levels as pressure, a) rises, and b) falls?
a) Raises the FL as an altitude
b) Lowers the FL as an altitude
261
List 5 dangers to a/c associated with thunderstorms
Heavy showers
Hail and snow
Electric storms- can cause nav aids to give false indications
Possibilty of lightining strikes
Severe turbulence
May cause windshear
262
What is windshear?
A sustained change in wind velocity along an a/c's flight path which occurs significantly faster than an a/c can accelerate and decelerate
263
When is windshear likely to occur?
Frontal systems
Thunderstorms
Temperature inversions
Surface obstructions
264
What is a microburst?
A very localised column of sinking air, producing damaging divergent and straight-line winds at the surface that are comparable to tornadoes and can gust up to 150mph
265
What should the first a/c holding for weather improvement be told regarding delays?
"no traffic delay expected"
266
What should subsequent a/c be told regarding delays if holding for weather improvement?
"Delay not determined, (x) a/c holding for weather improvement"
267
What is attenuation?
The reduction of strength of amplitude of a radio wave with time or range.
268
List three atmospheric factors which cause attenuation
Gases and vapours
Precipitation
Cloud and fog
269
Which wavelengths suffer most from attenuation by precipitation?
Wavelengths shorter than 4cm
270
Which wavelengths suffer from attenuation by cloud and fog?
Wavelengths shorter than 1cm
271
What are angels?
Ionised pockets of air. Usually in groups and slow moving in the general wind direction
272
What are permanent echoes?
Reflections from fixed objects and topography eg hills, buildings, trees etc
273
What is anaprop, and which weather conditions are most likely to cause it?
Anomalous Propogation
Low level returns caused by super refraction
High atmospheric conditions
274
What is meant by "space weather", and what effect can it have on a/c operation?
Space weather is where the Earth is constantly subjected to electromagnetic and high energy particle radiation from both galactic sources and the Sun.
Can degrade and cause loss of satellite based and/or ground based comms systems.
Can cause increased levels of solar radiation exposure to a/c and occupants
275
What comms equipment must be carried by an a/c intending to operate in CAS in Europe below FL195, and what a/c are exempted from this?
8.33kHz channel spacing radio equipment suitable to maintain contact with ATC.
Exemptions
State a/c
VFR a/c
276
What is meant by DOC?
Designated Operational Coverage
Term defining the coverage boundary of the station
277
What are the two levels of Mode-S?
Elementary and Enhanced
278
List 5 Downlinked Aircraft Parameters provided by enhanced Mode-S
Speed
Heading
Present level
Cleared /Level
Rate of Climb/Rate of Descent
279
What are, a) the Selected Flight Level DAP, and b) the BPS DAP?
a) allows the Controller to see if the input level is correct for the clearance given
b) Barometric Pressure Setting- shows the current pressure setting set by the a/c
280
What situation is indicated by squawk 7500?
Hijack/unlawful intereference
281
What situation is indicated by squawk 7600?
Comms failure
282
What situation is indicated by squawk 7700?
General emergency
283
What phraseology should ATC use if a 7500 squawk is observed?
Confrim squawking assigned code
284
What is the IFR conspicuity code in Europe?
2000
285
What is the VFR conspicuity code in Europe?
7000
286
What VHF comm frequencies are used by civilian ATC?
118.0-136.975MHz
287
What spacing is required between VHF communication frequencies?
8.33kHz (i think)
288
Which frequency band is used n UK by military ATC?
UHF
289
What is a hetrodyne?
When two a/c 'step on' top of each other making both tranmissions undreadable
290
What frequency is used by ATC for long range (eg. transatlantic) comms?
HF radio
291
What is SELCAL?
Selective Calling
radio system that can alert a flight crew to the fact that a station is trying to call them through a "bing-bong". Alleviates need to constantly monitor the frequency
292
What is CPDLC?
Controller-Pilot Datalink Comms
Air to ground datalink that allows pilots and controllers to communicate via text messages.
293
What is ACARS?
Aircraft Comms and Reporting System
Allows comms with ground networks via VHF radio or via satellite, allows messages to be sent to and from a/c
294
What should ATC do, provided if an a/cs transponder fails whilst it is flying in transponder mandatory airspace?
Endeavour to provide for the continuation of the flight to the aerodrome of first intended landing in accordance with the flight plan
295
What should ATC allow an a/c to do if its transponder fails before it gets airborne on a flight for which the operation of a transponder is manadatory?
Prevent the a.c from departing unless it is impractical for repairs to be effected at the aerodrome, in which case flight by the most direct route possible to the nearest aerodrome where repairs can be effected should be facilitated.
296
Complete the following statement;
After a complete radar failure, if standard vertical sep cannot be establisehd immediately, emergency vertical sep of (........) that standard separation may be used temporarily
half
297
What is the definition of Essential Traffic Information?
Is that controlled traffic to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not, or will not be, separated from other controlled traffic by the appropriate separation minimum
298
What action should an APS unit take in the event of a ground R/T failure?
In the event of complete failure of the ground radio equipment used for surveillance control, the surveillance controller shall, unless able to continue to provide the surveillance service by means of other available comms channels, proceed to plot the positions of the identified a/c and request the appropriate non-surveillance controller to assume controller.
299
If the glide path fails, can the LOC and DME still be used, and if so, what type of approaches can be made?
Yes but only non-precision approaches are permitted
300
What alternative method can be used to determine the length of outbound legs of an instrument approach procedure if the DME fails?
Timed legs
301
What part of an ILS can still be used for approaches if the localiser fails?
None, there are no GP only approaches
