aemt 11-20 Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following statements is true about factors that influence a drug’s effects?
A
The absorption of a medication taken orally is slowed when there is food in the stomach.
2
Q
Which of the following is an example of a drug derived from a mineral source?
A
Sodium bicarbonate - mineral source
3
Q
The name of a drug that typically consists of the generic name followed by the letters USP is the drug’s ____________ name.
A
official (albuterol sulfate usp)
4
Q
Pediatric drug dosages are usually based on the patient’s:
A
weight.
5
Q
Which form of medication packaging is a small plastic container with a top that can be torn off in order to pour or squeeze out the liquid medication?
A
Nebule
6
Q
Which medication below is given in a gaseous form?
A
.Oxygen
7
Q
The reasons a drug must NOT be given, even though the patient’s condition could otherwise be treated by the medication, are the drug’s:
A
contraindications
8
Q
Which term best describes what has happened when taking a drug during pregnancy causes birth defects in a developing fetus
A
teratogenic effects
9
Q
The potent painkiller morphine is an example of a drug derived from a(n) _________ source.
A
plant
10
Q
Unintended consequences of drug administration, which may be unpleasant, such as a dry mouth, are the drug’s:
A
side effects
11
Q
Which of the following statements best describes the concept of the affinity of a drug?
A
Affinity is a measure of the strength of attraction between a drug and receptor sites.
12
Q
The amount of drug that is still active when it reaches the target tissues is the drug’s:
A
bioavailability
13
Q
The first legislation to address proper medication labeling was the:
A
Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906.
14
Q
Which form of medication packaging consists of a barrel with a needle or adapter attached and a prefilled glass or plastic tube containing the medication?
A
prefilled syringe
15
Q
Which statement BEST describes the concept of free drug?
A
Free drug is the amount of drug that is not bound to plasma proteins and is therefore available to bind to cellular receptors
16
Q
Which of the following generally calls for a decrease in the amount of drug administered?
A
liver disease
17
Q
Which of these routes is the primary way in which drugs are eliminated from the body?
A
urine
18
Q
A medication that is intended to block or disrupt the formation of additional cells uses what type of mechanism of action?
A
changing metabolic pathways
19
Q
A patient tells you he takes Proventil for his asthma. You recognize Proventil as a trade name for which of these generic drugs?
A
albuterol sulfate
20
Q
a medication that is mixed with a sweet, thick flavored liquid to improve its flavor is in a form of a
A
syrup
21
Q
Before administering medications to a geriatric patient, what should the EMT assess?
A
the patients current medications
22
Q
Which of the following is a responsibility of the Food and Drug Administration?
A
Overseeing the testing and development of over-the-counter and prescription drugs
23
Q
A common reason for interactions between a patient’s prescribed medications and herbal supplements is:
A
many medications and herbs are metabolized by the same enzymes in the liver.
24
Q
In the United States, the government agency that is responsible for overseeing the manufacture of drugs and approving new drugs for use is the:
A
Food and Drug Administration.
25
According to the FDA pregnancy categories, the safest category of drugs for pregnant women and their fetuses is category:
A
26
Which term describes the process by which a medication moves from its site of administration into the bloodstream?
Absorption
27
Which of these statements concerning the function of the placenta with regard to drugs administered to the mother is MOST accurate?
The effects of the placenta are not the same on all drugs; some reach the fetus, some reach the fetus in smaller concentrations, and some may not reach the fetus.
28
If a patient takes a drug that is highly protein-bound, and then a second drug that is also highly protein-bound is given, which of the following will happen?
The free drug level of one or both drugs will increase.
29
Which of the following characteristics would be most likely to impair drug elimination?
advanced age
30
Which two names of a drug often are identical except that one name is followed with the letters USP?
generic and official
31
Which description BEST defines the term potentiation?
this is the circumstance in which one drug increases the effects of another drug
32
which population is typically excluded from drug tests that are regulated by the fda
pregnant patients
33
Which is the most common way in which drugs have their effects on the body?
Binding with receptor sites on or within cells
34
Which part of the drug profile describes the amount and frequency with which a drug is to be given?
Dosage
35
Fifty percent dextrose is in what form when used for IV administration?
Solution
36
All of the following are drugs derived from plant sources
| except:
diazepam
37
Medications must always be sterile if they are to be administered by which route?
injection
38
Which statement is MOST accurate regarding an Advanced EMT's legal role in administering medications?
An Advanced EMT may only administer medications that have been prescribed by a physician.
39
Which of these statements best describes Phase I FDA drug testing?
Testing the drug on a small number of healthy human volunteers to establish the safe dose
40
Which statement BEST describes the term half-life as it relates to drugs?
The time that it takes for the level of the drug in the body to decrease to 50 percent of its peak level
41
Acetylsalicylic acid is the chemical name for:
asprin
42
What is the significance of medication being packaged in dark brown glass or plastic?
Those medications are sensitive to light.
43
Which process of pharmacokinetics is most directly affected by the blood-brain barrier?
Distribution
44
If patients taking a drug for high blood pressure sometimes experience a mild headache, in which part of the drug profile would that information be listed?
side effects
45
Which of these is an explanation for interactions between drugs and herbal supplements?
Many drugs and some components of herbs are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system
46
An example of an antagonist that can be administered by Advanced EMTs is:
naloxone
47
Which of these is an example of a drug from a mineral source?
Potassium chloride - is used to prevent or to treat low blood levels of potassium (hypokalemia)
48
The requirements that must be met for a drug to be sold over the counter were established by what legislation?
1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendments to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
49
Which statement below MOST accurately describes the term narrow therapeutic index?
The effective dose of a drug is close to its lethal dose.
50
All of the following are examples of solid medications
| except:
nitroglycerin paste.
51
Which description BEST defines the way an anticoagulant medication works?
It prevents one or more chemical reactions that need to occur to cause blood to clot.
52
Drugs in which FDA Pregnancy Category must never be given to a pregnant woman?
X
53
Which of the following abbreviations means gram?
g
54
Conditions, signs, or symptoms that are important to consider in a patient's situation but that are absent are known as:
pertinent negatives.
55
Sublingual nitroglycerin is absorbed directly into the systemic circulation. By definition, this makes the sublingual route of administration a(n) ________ route.
parenteral
56
You are to administer 0.3 mg of 1:1,000 epinephrine by IM injection. You have available an ampule of medication in a concentration of 1 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should you inject?
0.3
57
All of the following are the "rights" of medication administration
EXCEPT:
the right provider.
58
A physician gives you an order to establish IO access. This means you will:
place a hollow needle into a bone so that the tip of the needle is in the marrow cavity.
59
You have received an order to administer lactated Ringer's solution at a rate of 125 mL/hr. You have started an IV infusion using 15 gtts/mL tubing. What is the drip rate needed to deliver the fluid asordered?
31 gtts/min
60
All of the following are parenteral routes of drug administration
EXCEPT:
oral.
61
The proper abbreviation for microgram is:
mcg.
62
Which of these statements BEST describes the motion to be used when preparing the site of an injection with an alcohol swab?
Concentric circles, moving outward from the center
63
Which of the following routes of drug administration is a percutaneous route?
Intravenous
64
Which statement below BEST describes the term aseptic as it applies to administering drugs?
Techniques of preparing and administering medications that minimize the patient's risk of infection
65
Which of these techniques should be used when drawing a medication from an ampule?
Hold the ampule upright and tap the top prior to breaking off the top.
66
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Advanced EMT's authorization to givemedications?
Advanced EMTs can only give medications, including prescription and over-the-counter medications, on the order of a physician.
67
You receive an order to d/c an IV infusion. You should:
stop administering the IV drip.
68
All of the following contribute to significant numbers of deaths related to medication administration errors
EXCEPT:
giving a drug to a patient who has taken it previously.
69
Which of the following is an enteral route of medication administration?
Oral
70
When you receive a verbal order from a physician:
all of the above
71
Which of these is considered the minimum acceptable solution for preparing an injection site?
Isopropyl alcohol
72
The order "0.4 mg NTG SL q 5 minutes, up to 3 doses prn" means you should:
give a patient a 0.4-mg nitroglycerin tablet by placing it under his tongue, and repeat the dosage up to two more times, but only if the patient's condition requires it.
73
Which of these statements BEST describes Advanced EMT's obligation with regard to a medication order he or she believes is incorrect?
They must question any order that does not seem right and ultimately, if they believe the order to be incorrect or dangerous, refuse to carry out the order.
74
A patient is to receive 0.5 g of 50 percent dextrose per kg of body weight. The patient weighs 110 lbs. The concentration of 50 percent dextrose is 50 g/100 mL. How many mL of medication must you give?
50
75
All of the following phases of drug administration have been identified as being particularly error-prone
EXCEPT:
selecting an IV infusion pump.
76
Drugs absorbed through the mucous membrane beneath the tongue are classified as being administered through the _________ route.
parenteral
77
What does the abbreviation prn mean when used in a drug or treatment order?
Give as needed
78
A drug order reads "administer 20 gtts/min." You should therefore administer 20 ________ of the drug every minute.
drops
79
When an Advanced EMT is pre-authorized to give medications to patients who meet certain criteria without first consulting with a physician, that form of authorization is called a(n):
standing order.
80
Which of these choices is a disadvantage of sublingual administration of drugs?
Few drugs are suitable for that route of administration.
81
Which route of medication administration allows an almost immediate onset of action?
Intravenous
82
Which of these terms is used to describe the condition in which IV fluids or medications have leaked out of a vein and into the surrounding tissues?
Infiltration
83
Which of the following IV fluids would provide a small amount of carbohydrates?
5 percent dextrose in water
84
Drugs given by mouth are classified as being given by the ______________ route of medication administration.
sublingual
85
You have received an order to administer normal saline to a patient at a rate of 1 mL/min using microdrip tubing (60 gtts/mL). How many drops per minute are required to achieve that infusion rate?
60
86
When setting up an IV line, how much fluid should be allowed to fill the drip chamber of the tubing?
one third to one half the volume of the chamber
87
When giving an IM injection in the deltoid, what is the maximum volume of medication to be given in an adult patient?
1 mL
88
You see a drug order that says, "Give 0.4 mg NTG SL q 5 min to max 3 doses." This means:
give a 0.4-mg tablet of nitroglycerin every five minutes up to a total of 1.2 mg of the drug.
89
When a drug is given through a route that requires the drug to be absorbed through the hepatic portal system prior to reaching the systemic circulation, that drug has been given by the __________ route.
enteral
90
Which of these solutions is recommended for use with or instead of isopropyl alcohol when preparing an IV site?
Povidone iodine
91
If you receive an order to administer a drug by SVN, the intent is for you to administer the drug by which of these routes?
inhalation
92
What is the most common type of medication administration error that results in death?
Giving the wrong dose of a medication
93
Which type of crystalloid solution is preferred for fluid replacement in the prehospital setting?
Isotonic
94
Which term is used to describe an IV fluid that contains large protein or starch molecules that remain in the vascular space and attract interstitial fluid into the vascular space?
Colloid
95
Which of the following IV fluids is the MOST commonly used solution in the prehospital setting?
0.9 percent sodium chloride
96
Which type of IV fluid would cause water to enter red blood cells in large quantities, possibly causing them to burst?
Hypotonic
97
Which of the following describes the action of a hypotonic IV fluid?
A hypotonic IV fluid causes a shift of fluid from the intravascular space to the intracellular space.
98
Epinephrine 1:1000 is primarily administered by the Advanced EMT to patients who are experiencing:
anaphylaxis
99
A 31-year-old man who was jogging outdoors on a hot, muggy morning complains of weakness and nausea. His skin is pale and dry. Vitals include pulse, 124 beats per minute and regular; blood pressure, 108/72 mmHg; and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Which IV fluid would be the MOST appropriate when treating this patient?
0.9 percent sodium chloride
100
Which component of the patient assessment process always comes first?
scene size-up
101
In the primary assessment, you have determined that a patient with chest pain that began at rest is not oxygenating well. The next step in assessment is:
rapid medical exam.
102
The process of collecting and analyzing data and then using it to make patient care decisions is called:
using the assessment-based management approach.
103
Which statement BEST represents the model of clinical problem solving for Advanced EMTs?
Effective approaches to problem solving are required in addition to experience and knowledge.
104
Which of the following would be criteria for transport to a trauma center?
a trauma patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12
105
Which of these is an advantage of the hypothetico-deductive method of clinical problem solving?
It is structured and deliberate.
106
Which statement describes the overall goal of patient assessment?
to make the best decisions possible about patient care in consideration of the particular situation
107
The first goal of the patient assessment process is to answer which of the following questions?
Is it safe to approach the patient and begin care in the patient's current location?
108
During a scene size-up, you determine that a patient is awake and alert and appears to be in no immediate distress. You should:
introduce yourself
109
Which of the following BEST describes the concept of differential diagnoses?
a narrowed-down list of a few of the most likely causes of the patient's condition
110
Which of these decisions is the reassessment process designed to help you make?
whether you should change your initial treatment plan
111
Which pitfall in the decision-making process occurs when an Advanced EMT accepts the firstacceptable, but not necessarily optimal, solution when performing a patient assessment?
satisficing
112
The tendency to over treat patients is known as:
commission bias.
113
At what point in the patient assessment process should you form a general impression of the nature of the situation?
scene size-up
114
Which situation BEST illustrates the clinical reasoning pitfall of anchoring?
ascribing more importance to an early finding in the history or assessment and paying insufficient attention to later findings
115
While performing a primary assessment, you determine that a patient with a history of respiratory problems is experiencing wheezing. You should:
address the patient's breathing problems.
116
When does the patient assessment process end?
When care of the patient has been transferred to other health care personnel.
117
To determine the cause of the patient's signs and symptoms, the Advanced EMT must search for the underlying issues. What is this process called?
clinical problem solving
118
At what point in the assessment process should you have made an initial determination of whether the patient is critical or noncritical?
primary assessment
119
A patient's statement of the reason he or she is seeking medical attention is known as the:
chief complaint.
120
Which of these is considered a critical criterion for trauma triage in an adult patient?
an adult fall from a height greater than 20 feet
121
At what point in the assessment process is a determination made about the mechanism of injury?
scene size-up
122
What is the last step of the patient assessment process?
reassessment
123
After determining that your patient is not suffering from any threats to life, you obtain baseline vital signs and then turn your attention to the area of the patient's chief complaint. Which phase of the assessment process are you now performing?
focused physical exam
124
A patient's eyes are closed and he does not open them as you approach, and he does not respond when you ask, "Sir, can you hear me?" When you shake his shoulder, he opens his eyes but does not say anything. This patient is best classified, according to the AVPU scale, as:
responding to pain.
125
Which of the following patients are most likely experiencing an upper airway obstruction?
A 24-year-old male who is awake and breathing with a high-pitched expiratory stridor after being stung by a bee
126
For which of the following patients, although the primary assessment indicates they are a high priority fortransport, should you consider on-scene stabilization prior to transport?
An unresponsive diabetic who has a blood glucose level of 38 mg/dL
127
Which scenario BEST represents effective teamwork?
Having pre-established roles and open communication between all those on the team
128
Which of the patients below can you classify as a high priority for immediate intervention and transport on the basis of primary assessment findings?
A 58-year-old female complaining of shortness of breath. She is awake and anxious. You can hear wheezing without a stethoscope. Heart rate is 112 beats per minute, skin is cool and moist, and respirations are 30 breaths per minute.
129
What is a high-pitched upper airway sound that occurs when there is partial obstruction of the upperairway?
Stridor
130
In which of the following patients should you use a bag-valve-mask device to provide or assist withventilations?
A 17-year-old girl with asthma who has a minimal tidal volume, irregular gasping respirations of about 8 breaths per minute, and who responds only to painful stimuli.
131
Which component of the patient assessment process always comes first?
Scene size-up
132
To determine whether an infant has an adequate pulse, you should assess his ______ pulse.
brachial
133
As you approach a patient who has collapsed on the floor in his home, you see that he is not moving, his skin color looks cyanotic, and he is taking irregular, gasping breaths. Your first action should be to:
check the carotid pulse.
134
You are approaching a young adult male who was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He is lying on the ground and appears to be unresponsive. There is obvious and significant blood loss from an open fracture of his right leg. After ensuring traffic is controlled and there are no other hazards, you put on exam gloves. Your next action should be to:
check a carotid pulse.
135
As you approach a female in her 40s, she turns her head to look at you. Using the AVPU scale, you should classify this patient as:
alert
136
Which of the following sounds is a specific indication of fluid in the upper airway?
Gurgling
137
Which patient criterion below indicates that an injured patient should be transported to a trauma center, ifavailable?
Any patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12
138
Assessing the nature of the illness or mechanism of injury is part of the:
scene size-up
139
Which of the following steps is NOT part of the primary assessment?
Rapid physical exam
140
A young adult male has been shot in the lower abdomen. He is awake, pale, sweaty, and anxious. He issaying, "Help me, man. Come on, get me to a hospital." What poses the MOST immediate threat to thispatient's life?
Blood loss
141
Which of the following is an indication of respiratory distress?
Wheezing
142
What condition does NOT require that the patient be transported without delay?
Radial pulse of 48 beats per minute
143
Upon entering the home on a call for a reported sick person you are directed to a family room where two small children are watching cartoons on the television with the volume above conversational level, while a third, older child plays a noisy video game on a tablet. The patient, who appears to be the children's mother, is lying on her side on a sofa, knees drawn up. You detect an odor of vomit. You introduce yourself and ask what is wrong, but you can't understand the response over the volume of the cartoons and video game. Which action is MOST likely to help you gain control of the scene?
D.Your partner says to the children, "Hey guys, we need to talk to your mom for a few minutes, so I need you to turn off the cartoons and games for a little while."
144
What is the term used to describe shallow, gasping breaths that are inadequate to move air in and out of the airway?
Agonal respirations
145
All of the following are primary assessment findings that should lead to immediate categorization of a patient as a high priority for treatment and transport EXCEPT:
anxiety or nervousness.
146
What position would be BEST to place unresponsive patients in who are breathing, but who may not be able to protect their airway, in the absence of spinal precautions?
Recovery position
147
While performing a primary assessment, you note that a patient has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute with a shallow tidal volume. How should you proceed?
Immediately begin CPAP, if indicated, or assisted ventilations by bag-valve-mask.
148
Which of these is the first step in gaining control of a scene?
Perform a good scene size-up.
149
Which of the following positions puts a patient who has an altered mental status, but who does not have an advanced airway device in place, at highest risk of aspiration of fluids in the airway?
Supine
150
During the primary assessment of a patient with a significant mechanism of injury, which of the following is essential to a careful assessment of circulation?
Exposing the patient to look for major bleeding
151
Which of the following findings indicates fluid in the alveoli or small airways?
Crackles
152
What term is used to describe the energy of objects in motion that, when transferred to the body in significant amounts, can result in injury?
Kinetic energy
153
When you arrive on the scene of a call for difficulty breathing, you find a middle-aged woman sitting in achair, leaning forward in "tripod" position. She is breathing about 24 times per minute with increased effort. There is no obvious cyanosis. When she tries to speak to answer your questions, she can only manage three or four words without taking a breath. Which of these is the highest priority in the care of this patient?
Administer supplemental oxygen
154
After obtaining permission from a family member, you look through the patient's kitchen cabinets for medications. In your search, you discover a glucometer. What meaning should you assign to thatinformation?
Someone in the house may be a diabetic
155
A teenager has been struck just above the eye with a baseball that was hit with enough force to create a laceration. The type of trauma sustained in that situation is ___________ trauma.
blunt
156
An elderly man is sitting on the edge of a chair, leaning forward in "tripod" position. He has some cyanosis of his lips, and you can hear wheezing without using a stethoscope. What should be done first?
Administer supplemental oxygen by nonrebreather mask.
157
You are transporting a 53-year-old woman who is awake and oriented and is complaining of nausea and fatigue. A few minutes into the trip to the hospital, the patient complains of feeling faint. Which finding, if noted while repeating the primary assessment, makes the patient a higher priority?
The patient has become pale and is sweating profusely.
158
Which of these findings indicates respiratory distress?
Requiring effort to exhale
159
A patient who collapsed while in line in the grocery store does not open his eyes, move, or make any sound to your voice or to pinching his trapezius muscle. Using the AVPU scale, how would this patient be categorized?
Unresponsive
160
Which of the following patients can be said to have a patent airway?
The patient is awake and speaking normally.
161
An adult male is found lying in the street with a single gunshot wound to the head with apparent entry just below the right eye. He has gurgling agonal respirations and a regular pulse estimated to be about 60 beats per minute and strong. External bleeding is minimal to moderate. Which of these actions has the highest priority in caring for this patient?
Suctioning the airway
162
A young woman has a large laceration on her forehead, sustained when she was struck with a bottle during a fight. The laceration is bleeding freely. The patient is awake. Based on the environment and her slurred speech, you suspect she may be under the influence of alcohol. What should you do first?
Use an absorbent dressing to control bleeding from the wound.
163
As you are assessing a patient who says he was shot in the arm, you notice that there is blood soaked into the front of his shirt, as well as his pants. The MOST important action for you to take is to:
cut away the clothing as part of your primary assessment.
164
Which of these skin findings should make you MOST concerned about the adequacy of a patient's circulation?
Paleness
165
A college student is found lying outside at a party where alcohol and drugs are being used. Her eyes are closed. You kneel next to her and say, "Cammie, are you alright?" The patient moans and says something incoherent. Using the AVPU scale, the patient is best categorized as:
verbal
166
Your unit is the first to arrive on the scene of a motorcycle collision in which the driver struck the driver's side of a sedan. The motorcycle driver was ejected and landed on the opposite side of the sedan. The driver of the sedan appears to be injured. There is a small amount of fluid leaking from the motorcycle. Which of these actions should you do before leaving your vehicle?
Look for on-coming traffic
167
Which problem is indicated by hearing wheezes in a patient's breath sounds?
Constriction of the bronchioles
168
Which of these conditions trigger inspiration in healthy patients?
Increased carbon dioxide level in the blood
169
A 7-year-old boy was running while chewing a large piece of bubble gum when he began coughing and gagging. When you arrive he is coughing and anxious, but there is adequate airflow. His respiratory rate is difficult to assess because of coughing. His skin is flushed, warm, and moist; the heart rate is 128 beats per minute, and the
SpO2 is 95 percent on room air. What is the MOST reasonable plan for treating this patient?
Transport without further agitating the patient
170
To insert an oropharyngeal airway, it is properly measured:=
from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw.
171
Which abnormal respiratory sound should alert you to the possibility of inadequate breathing due to narrowing of the bronchioles?
Wheezing
172
Breath sounds may be auscultated as high as the:
shoulders.
173
Stridor is an indication of which of the following problems?
Laryngeal edema
174
The typical amount of pressure that provides adequate PEEP for MOST patients when using CPAP for prehospital problems is ______ cm
H2O.
10
175
An elderly man complains of "having trouble catching my breath." He is alert, seems a little anxious, and has pink, warm, dry skin. He is breathing 24 times per minute and pauses after every five or six words for a breath. There is no accessory muscle use, no cyanosis, and no abnormal respiratory sounds that can be heard without a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry reading is 92 percent. How would you classify the level of hypoxia the patient is experiencing?
Mild
176
Which device should be avoided in the management of a patient who has significant injuries to the midfacial area?
Nasopharyngeal airway
177
In most circumstances, an adult's breathing is considered inadequate once the SpO2
drops below_____ percent.
95
178
Which statement BEST explains the concept of PEEP?
It maintains a certain level of pressure in the airway during expiration to prevent atelectasis.
179
You are eating breakfast with your partner, who is seven months pregnant, when she begins to choke on a piece of her breakfast sandwich. She is not able to speak and is panicking. You should:
position yourself behind your partner, position your fist over her midsternum, grasp your fist with your other hand, and perform chest thrusts.
180
normal breathing?
Negative pressure during inspiration pulls the esophagus closed, limiting air entry into the gastrointestinal tract.
181
Which process is BEST described as the flow of air into and out of the airways?
Ventilation
182
Which of the following requires immediate assistance with ventilations?
A 30-year-old man who was thrown from a horse and is unable to move his arms or legs and who has movement of the abdomen with breathing, but not of the chest wall. He is awake with respirations of 30 breaths per minute.
183
Oxygen cylinders are considered full when the pressure within them is _______________ pounds per square inch.
2000
184
Which of the following is easily relieved by a manual airway maneuver to open the airway?
Snoring
185
A patient whose
| SpO2 is less than ______ percent should receive supplemental oxygen.
95
186
What is the proper rate of artificial ventilation by bag-valve-mask device for an adult patient?
10 to 12 breaths per minute
187
A 62-year-old woman with COPD is complaining of increased shortness of breath. She is alert and has scattered wheezing and rhonchi throughout her lung fields. Her vital signs are heart rate 104 beats per minute (irregular), respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute, blood pressure 144/90 mmHg. She is on oxygen at home by nasal cannula at three L/min and has an
SpO2
of 89 percent. Which of the following would be an acceptable way to administer oxygen to this patient?
Nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min
188
Which of the following indicates the need to use a manual airway maneuver to open the airway?
Snoring
189
Which complication of positive pressure ventilation is eliminated when ventilating a patient with a properly placed endotracheal tube?
Gastric distention
190
A patient with asthma presents with wheezing. He is alert and slightly anxious, breathing 20 times per minute with a prolonged expiratory phase. His
SpO2 is 96 percent on room air. His capnometry reading is 47 mmHg. Which intervention BEST meets the patient's needs?
Administration of a bronchodilator
191
What is the term that describes the amount of air moved in each breath multiplied by the respiratoryrate?
Minute volume
192
Which of the following complications of bag-valve-mask ventilations can be eliminated with the use of a non-visualized airway?
Inadequate mask seal
193
Which sound indicates the need for oropharyngeal suctioning?
Gurgling
194
Which statement regarding the anatomical differences between pediatric and adult airways is correct?
The child's tongue takes up a proportionally larger space in the oral cavity.
195
A patient with agonal respirations would be BEST described as experiencing:
respiratory failure.
196
Which of these mechanisms is used to ensure that the regulator is sealed to the portable oxygen cylinder valve to safely maintain pressure in the delivery system?
Plastic washer
197
Which of the following statements about pulse oximetry is MOST accurate?
Pulse oximetry is an indirect measurement hemoglobin saturation of oxygen.
198
A patient with a history of heart problems presents with difficulty breathing and crackles in the lower lung fields. She is awake and anxious. Her skin is pale and moist, and she has slight cyanosis of her lips and nail beds. She has an
SpO2 of 88 percent and respirations of 24 breaths per minute. Which of the following is indicated in the care of this patient?
Supplemental oxygen by nonrebreather mask
199
Which of the following can lead to severe lower airway obstruction in infants?
Respiratory syncytial virus
200
You are attempting to auscultate breath sounds on a patient who is wearing several layers of clothing and a large winter jacket. In order to obtain the most accurate assessment using your stethoscope you should
remove as many layers as possible while maintaining warmth of the patient.
