AIPNZ - ENR Flashcards

(24 cards)

1
Q

When do we need to nominate a departure alternate?

A

When conditions at departure airfield are below that of the minima for the approach at departure airfield.

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2
Q

What are the conditions for nominating a departure alternate?

A

Conditions at the departure alternate are foreacast to be at or above the alternate minima for that airport (AIP table). Must be located within 60 minutes at OEI speeds.

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3
Q

What are the alternate minima for a Non Precision Approach?

A

Refer to table, if not listed, at the estimated arrival time, 800ft ceiling, 4km visibility or 200ft above minima or 1.5km above minima.

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4
Q

What are the alternate minima for a Precision Approach?

A

Refer to table, if not listed, at the estimated arrival time, 600ft ceiling, 3km visibility or 200ft above minima or 1km above minima.

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5
Q

What is the quickest way to find minima info for our IFR alternates?

A

Section 5 of RTG 1

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6
Q

Visual Approach - Requirements for Pilot request?

A
  • “Request Visual Approach”
  • Maintain visual reference to terrain
  • Ceiling not below approved initial approach level
  • Pilot is assured that meteorological conditions will permit visual approach the whole time and landing will be accomplished.
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7
Q

When is the latest we can abandon the approach if the weather is reported to be below minima?

A

Final approach fix/segment. Must have the minimum visibility prescribed on plate.

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8
Q

What does the weather have to be in order to not require a weather alternate?

A

Cloud ceiling greater than 1000ft above approach minima and 5km visibility OR 2000m above minima, 1 hour either side of ETA.

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9
Q

Does a visual approach cancel all ATC speed restrictions?

A

Yes, ENR 1.6

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10
Q

When must TIBA broadcasts be made?

A

Refer to pink pages for timing of TIBA broadcasts.

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11
Q

RNP Tollerances?

A

RNP 1 =1nm, RNP 2 = 2nm. Must not deviate away from half this.

Approach tollerenaces:
Final Approach - 0.3 NM
Initial, intermediate and MAP - 1.0

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12
Q

Where do I find the information pertaining to a comms failure?

A

ENR 1.15 (Pink Pages).

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13
Q

On departure not on a SID and turning against the circuit when is the earliest you can turn?

A

When laterally clear of circuit or when 1500ft above aerodrome level.

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14
Q

Uncontrolled airspace Separation?

A

Standard 1000ft vertically, 10nm horizontally.

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15
Q

In uncontrolled airspace when passing opposite direction traffic how much distance do you need once traffic has passed to climb through its level?

A

5 nm

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16
Q

In uncontrolled airspace when following another IFR aircraft what height do you have to remain above until the preceding aircraft is visual?

A

1000ft above MAP altitude.

17
Q

Uncontrolled separation on departure?

A

1 min of separation provided tracks are 45 degrees apart. If less than, use 10nm or can be reduced to 1 min IF aircraft in front goes 1000ft vertically higher.

18
Q

In uncontrolled airspace who has right of way?

A

Arriving aircraft has right of way over departure, or the lower aircraft always will.

19
Q

Does the outbound leg of a reversal procedure always have to be flown at 140kts?

A

Yes if flying Cat B, unless part of a hold procedure.

20
Q

Separation in Class C Airspace?

A

IFR to IFR
IFR to VFR
SVFR to IFR
SVFR to SVFR (If vis less than 5km)

21
Q

Separation in Class D Airspace?

A

IFR to IFR
IFR NOT TO VFR
SVFR to IFR
SVFR to SVFR (If vis less than 5km)

22
Q

When tracking the NS-WB route, for the VOR 06, could you track straight from the airway to outbound course?

A

No, outbound turn must be within +/- 30 degrees. If not, must utilise reversal turn procedure (aka hold). Must use standard hold entry and procedures so holding speeds apply.

23
Q

When to advise ATC of RAIM or DR mode?

A

10 minutes for RAIM, 1 minute DR mode.

24
Q

When to notify ATC or speed or time change at ETA?

A

5% for TAS, and +/- 2 minutes for ETA.