AIRPORT OP NUMBERS Flashcards

1
Q

ILS approaches

Service volume
___ degrees either side of the course along a radius ____from the antenna
______ degrees either side of the course along a radius of _____.
GSIA (glideslope intercept altitude) is also the point at which pilot’s operating under part 121 would determine if the approach could be continued if newly reported weather goes below minimums
Intercept should be done from below the glideslope. If intercepting the glideslope from above, there is a possibility to intercept a false 6° or 9°glideslope above the actual glideslope. The 6° glideslope might have reverse steering. Both glideslopes would have a substantially higher descent rate than the actual glideslope.

A

ILS approaches

Service volume
10 18

10 to 35

10NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Category I, II, and III ILS minimums
Cat I: DH_____ and RVR ______ (with TZ and CL lighting, _______ RVR ft)
Cat II: DH _____ and RVR ______
A Cat II approach to a DH below 150ft requires touchdown zone lighting, runway centerline lights, and RVR
A pilot may be approved for Cat II operations after that pilot has logged more than 100 hours in the make and model airplane under part 121 and made 3 Cat III approaches in actual or simulated IFR since the beginning of the preceding sixth month
Cat IIIa: No DH or DH below _____ and RVR not less than _______
Cat IIIb: No DH or DH below ____and RVR less than __________
Cat IIIc: No____________

A

CAT I 200ft 2400ft 1800

CAT II 100ft 1200ft

CAT IIIa 100ft 700ft

CAT IIIb 50ft 700ft but not less than 150Ft

CAT IIIc DH and no RVR limitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Navigational aids and distance scales

Deviations
VOR:
ILS localizer:
ILS glidepath: 0.14 degrees per dot with full scale deflection 0.7 degrees
ILS localizer ROT: 50’/NM per dot deviation
ILS glidepath ROT: 24’/NM per dot deviation off glidepath

A

VOR 2 degrees per dot with full scale deflection equal to 10 degrees

ILS 0.5 degrees per dot with full scale deflection 2.5 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Altitudes and airspeeds

Below 10,000 and within 12Nm of the coast, kts max
Below Class B,
Within 4NM,

A

250

200kts

200kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SDF COURSE MAYBE WIDER THAN?

LDA COURSE

A

Course may be wider, 6-12 degrees

3 TO 6 DEGREES (MORE PRECISION)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
CIRCLING MINIMUMS  (OLD)
A
B
C
D
E
A
A = 1.3
B = 1.5
C = 1.7
D = 2.3
E = 4.5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
CIRCLING MINIMUMS (NEW) 1,000 OR LESS
A
B
C
D
E
A
A = 1.3
B = 1.7
C = 2.5
D = 3.6
E = 4.5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Normal aircraft: ______ AGL traffic pattern, large/turbine: _____ AGL traffic pattern
Traffic pattern altitude should be maintained until the aircraft is at least abeam the approach end of the landing runway on the downwind leg
Aircraft should not be operated in the traffic pattern at an indicated airspeed of no more than_____ kts
Aircraft should not be operated within ___ miles of the airport with an indicated speed above____ kts

A

1000ft

1500ft

200

4

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For all straight-in instrument approaches, to include contact approaches in IFR weather conditions, the approach must be stabilized before descending below _______ feet above the airport or TDZE.
For visual approaches and straight-in instrument approaches in VFR weather conditions, the approach must be stabilized before descending below ______ feet above the airport elevation.
For the final segment of a circling approach maneuver, the approach must be stabilized_____ feet above the airport elevation or at the MDA, whichever is lower. These conditions must be maintained throughout the approach until touchdown for the approach to be considered a stabilized approach. This also helps you to recognize a wind shear situation should abnormal indications exist during the approach.

A

1,000

500

500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At airports where minimums are not established, these same carriers are required to use FAA designated standard minimums:
___ statute mile (SM) visibility for single- and twin-engine aircraft
SM for helicopters and aircraft with more than two engines

A

1

1⁄2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Touchdown zone markings are_____ ft apart
AIMING MARKERS ARE _______
RUNWAY CENTERLINE LIGHTS ARE ____ FT. APART. THEY ARE WHITE TILL _______ THEN TURN ______AT ________.
RUNWAY EDGE LIGHTS FOR INSTRUMENT APPROACH ARE 100’ APART AND WHITE TILL THE LAST ______ FT. OR HALF WHICHEVER IS LESS THEN THE TURN _______

A

500’
1,000
50’ 3,000 RED 1,000
2,000 YELLOW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

RAPID NORM
250 = 1.5 MN TO 5 MIN

300 = 30 SEC TO 2 MIN

350 = 30 SEC TO 1 MIN

400 = 7 SEC TO 20 SEC

A

TUC (normal ascent) TUC (rapid decompression)
FL180 20 to 30 minutes 10 to 15 minutes
FL220 10 minutes 5 minutes
FL250 3 to 5 minutes 1.5 to 3.5 minutes
FL280 2.5 to 3 minutes 1.25 to 1.5 minutes
FL300 1 to 2 minutes 30 to 60 seconds
FL350 30 secs to 1 minute 15 to 30 seconds
FL400 15 to 20 seconds 7 to 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How far apart do runways have to be to conduct simultaneous approaches to parallel runways?

A

An approach system permitting simultaneous ILS/MLS approaches to parallel runway with centerlines separated by 4,300 to 9,000 feet, and equipped with final monitor controllers. Simultaneous parallel ILS. MLS approaches require radar monitoring to ensure separation between aircraft on the adjacent parallel approach course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an MORA?

A

Minimum Off-Route Altitude derived by Jeppesen. MORA provides known obstruction clearance 10 NM either side if a route centerline including a 10 NM radius beyond the radio fix reporting or mileage break defining the route segment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the frequency range for a localizer?

A

The localizer transmitter operates on one of 40 ILS channels within the frequency range of 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. ALWAYS END WITH ODD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Up to what distance is a compass locator usable?

A

Answer:

The transmitters have a power of less than 25 watts, a range of at least 15 miles and operate between 190 and 535 kHz.

17
Q

What is the frequency range for a VOR?

A

Answer:

VORs operate within the 108.0 to 117.95 MHz.

18
Q

Under what conditions will the ILS critical area be in effect?

A

Answer:

Less than ceiling 800 feet and/or visibility 2 miles.