NAVIGATIONAL TEST 5

Question 1

You are performing a circling approach and lose sight of the runway. What are the missed approach procedures?

Remain level until the MAP, then follow the charted missed approach procedure.
Initiate an immediate climbing turn towards the missed approach fix.
Climb straight ahead to the MSA, then go direct to the missed approach point.
Initiate a climbing turn towards the landing runway and once established on a portion of the missed approach segment and execute the missed approach.

Answer 1

Initiate a climbing turn towards the landing runway and once established on a portion of the missed approach segment and execute the missed approach.
Correct
Missed approach procedures from circling approach require an initial turn towards the landing runway to remain in protected airspace. Then, you would join the published missed approach procedure. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR Flight

Question 2

Three common patterns used for procedure turns include the following: 45/180/45, 80/260 and 30 degree teardrop. Which procedure is considered the most common and is usually depicted on IAC?

45/180/45
80/260
30 degree teardrop
None is “most common”

Answer 2

45/180/45

Question 3

What is the difference between RNP and ANP?

They are the same.
RNP is an airspace requirement. ANP is the aircraft’s adherence to that requirement.
ANP is an airspace requirement. RNP is the aircraft’s adherence to that requirement.
RNP is an aircraft certification issue. ANP is not related to RNP.

Answer 3

RNP is an airspace requirement. ANP is the aircraft’s adherence to that requirement.

ANP IS SURE AN A WHOLE ALWAYS CHECKING UP ON US.

Question 4

The TO/FROM indicator shows:

Whether you will home to or from the station after intercepting the selected course.
Whether you heading will take you to or from the station.
Whether the selected course if intercepted will take to you or from the station.
Whether the selected course requires a crosswind correction to take you to or from the course.

Answer 4

Whether the selected course if intercepted will take to you or from the station.

Question 5

What is true airspeed?

Actual speed of the aircraft through the air.
The speed of the aircraft in relationship to the ground.
Indicated airspeed.
Indicated airspeed corrected for compressibility.
Correct
TAS is EAS corrected for air density. It is the speed that the aircraft is actually traveling through the air. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators- Airspeed Measurement

Answer 5

Actual speed of the aircraft through the air.

Question 6

Which procedure permits an aircraft to reverse direction and lose considerable altitude within reasonably limited airspace and also consists of departure from an IAF on the published outbound course followed by a turn toward and intercepting the inbound course at or prior to the intermediate fix or point?

Teardrop procedure.
Parallel procedure.
45/180 procedure.
90/270 procedure.

Answer 6

Teardrop procedure.
Correct
The teardrop procedure consists of departure from an IAF on the published outbound course followed by a turn toward and intercepting the inbound course at or prior to the intermediate fix or point. Its purpose is to permit an aircraft to reverse direction and lose considerable altitude within reasonably limited airspace. Reference: Instrument Procedures Handbook, Chapter 1

Question 7

There are several potential advantages of RNAV routes and procedures. Time and fuel savings and:

Reduce non-precision approach minimums.
Reduced dependence on radar vectoring, altitude, and speed assignments.
Reduce aircraft separation requirements in the terminal area.
Reduce the workload of the pilot.

Answer 7

Reduced dependence on radar vectoring, altitude, and speed assignments.

Question 8

A HIWAS en route radio facility:

Is High Altitude Inflight Watch Advisory Service and is capable of two-way communications.
Is Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service and is capable of only one-way communication.
Is High Altitude Inflight Watch Advisory Service and is capable of only one-way communication.
Is Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service and is capable of two-way communication.

Answer 8

Is Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service and is capable of only one-way communication.

Question 9

You are on the approach and the visibility drops below minimums. What would you do?

Inside of the FAF or GS intercept, may continue.
Inside the FAF, you must go missed approach.
So long as you are established on the final approach course, you may continue. It does not matter if you are inside or outside of the FAF.
It is the pilot’s choice. It depends on experience and comfort level.

Answer 9

Inside of the FAF or GS intercept, may continue.
Correct
Outside of the FAF, you would not continue the approach. Inside the FAF, you may continue the approach and land, so long as you find that the flight visibility meets the minimums for the approach. Reference: FAR 121.651

Question 10

What are the minimums for a Category II ILS approach?

DH of 100 feet, RVR of 1,800.
DH of 250 feet, RVR of 2,400.
DH of 150 feet, RVR 1800.
DH of 100 feet, RVR of 1,200.

Answer 10

DH of 100 feet, RVR of 1,200.
Correct
The standard minimums for Category II ILS approaches are a DH of 100 feet above TDZE and a visibility of 1200 RVR. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Navigation

Question 11

On a 3 degree glide slope at 700 fpm rate of descent, the headwinds increase, what adjustment do you make?

Increase the rate of descent.
Reduce the rate of descent.
The rate of descent will remain unchanged.
It depends on aircraft weight.

Answer 11

Reduce the rate of descent.
Correct
The rate of descent on the glideslope is equal to GS*5. As GS decreases with the increased headwind, rate of descent would decrease. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR flight

Question 12

What does the ATC light signal steady red mean in the air?

Stop.
Airport unsafe. Do not land.
Exercise extreme caution.
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

Answer 12

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
Correct
In flight, a steady red light gun signal means “give way to other aircraft and continue circling.” Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Control

Question 13

You are told to taxi to runway 27 via taxiways X, Y and Z. Taxiway X crosses runway 22 and taxiway Y crosses runway 27 prior to getting to taxiway Z that leads to the hold short for runway 27. Where will ground tell you to hold short?

You are cleared to the runway 22. You may cross any runways in your path.
You must be specifically cleared across an intersecting runway.
You are cleared all the way to line up and wait on runway 27.
This is an invalid instruction. Request clarification from ATC.

Answer 13

This is an invalid instruction. Request clarification from ATC.
Correct
You must receive clearance to cross ANY runway. It is assumed that you will hold short of any runway along your path. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual- Air Traffic Control

Question 14

The standard service volume of a VOR on a published jet route is:

SSV does not apply to a published IFR route.
150 DME from FL 450 to FL 600.
130 DME from FL 180 to FL 450.
Unrestricted NAVAIDS do not have a usable SSV.

Answer 14

SSV does not apply to a published IFR route.

Question 15

What is one potential disadvantage of an INS/IRU system?

Gyroscopic wander.
Map shifts.
Not a global system.
Gyroscopic precession.

Answer 15

Map shifts.

Question 16

The approach speed of the aircraft in the landing configuration at maximum certified gross landing weight is?

1.3 of VS.
1.03 of VS.
Double VS.
1.5 of VS.

Answer 16

1.3 of VS.
Correct
Minimums are specified for various aircraft approach categories based upon a value 1.3 times the stalling speed of the aircraft in the landing configuration at maximum certified gross landing weight. Reference: Instrument Procedures Handbook, Chapter 1
SHOULD BE 1.3 X VSO

Question 17

How are TAS, IAS and ground speed on takeoff related to airport pressure altitude? For example, what are the indicated air speed and ground speed differences between the takeoff rolls at Atlanta and Denver airports?

The indicated airspeed will be lower due to the due to the decreased air density at the higher airport. Groundspeed and true airspeed will be the same.
The indicated airspeed will be the same but due to the density altitude you will have increased ground speed and true airspeed at the higher elevation airport.
The indicated airspeed, true airspeed and groundspeed will be unchanged, as they are unaffected by air density.
The indicated airspeed, true airspeed and groundspeed will all be higher at the higher density altitude airport. This is due the lower air density.

Answer 17

The indicated airspeed will be the same but due to the density altitude you will have increased ground speed and true airspeed at the higher elevation airport.
Correct
The IAS airspeed does not change with air density, but TAS does. TAS increases with a decrease in air density. GS is TAS corrected for wind. Since Denver is at a higher elevation, the TAS and groundspeed on takeoff would be higher than in Atlanta. Reference: Aerodynamics For Naval Aviators, Airspeed Measurement

Question 18

Define Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA):

IFR obstruction clearance altitude that provides 1,000 ft. of obstacle clearance (2,000 ft in mountains) within 4 NM of route centerline.
IFR obstruction clearance altitude that provides 500 feet of obstacle clearance within 2 NM of the route centerline.
Is indicated by green grid numbers on a low altitude enroute chart.
IFR obstruction clearance altitude that provides 1,000 ft. obstacle clearance (2,000 ft. in the mountains) within 4 NM of route segment but navaid reception only within 22 NM of VOR.

Answer 18

IFR obstruction clearance altitude that provides 1,000 ft. obstacle clearance (2,000 ft. in the mountains) within 4 NM of route segment but navaid reception only within 22 NM of VOR.
Correct
Minimum obstruction clearance altitude provides 1,000 ft of obstacle clearance (2,000 ft in mountainous terrain) and signal coverage within 22 NM of the VOR. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Pilot/Controller Glossary

Question 19

The area which is hazardous for aircraft but IFR flights may be authorized subjected to ATC clearance is called?

Prohibited areas.
Restricted areas.
Warning areas.
Military operation areas (MOAs).

Answer 19

Restricted areas.
Correct
Restricted areas are areas where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft and contain airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. IFR flights may be authorized to transit the airspace and are routed accordingly subjected to ATC clearance. Reference: Instrument Procedures Handbook, Chapter 1

Question 20

Which instrument can provide voice broadcast as well as accurate signals to provide stand-alone approaches?

ILS.
DME.
TACAN.
NDB

Answer 20

NDB
Correct
Nondirectional beacons (NDBs) can broadcast signals accurate enough to provide stand-alone approaches, and DME allows the pilot to pinpoint a reporting point on the airway. Though primarily navigation tools, these NAVAIDs can also transmit voice broadcasts. Reference: Instrument Procedures Handbook, Chapter 1

Question 21

Which of the following consists of three tubes at approximate right angles to each other, each located on one of three axes: pitch, roll, or yaw?

Semicircular canals.
Utricles.
Eustachian tubes.
Ear canal.

Answer 21

Semicircular canals.
Correct
The semicircular canals consist of three tubes at approximate right angles to each other, each located on one of three axes: pitch, roll, or yaw. Each canal is filled with a fluid called endolymph fluid. Reference: Instrument Procedures Handbook, Chapter 3

Question 22

The Radio Transmitting Frequency band allocated to aviation VHF communications is?

30MHz to 300MHz.
108 MHz to 117.95MHz.
118MHz to 136.95MHz.
108MHz to 111.95MHz.

Answer 22

118MHz to 136.95MHz.
Correct
Civilian pilots communicate with ATC on frequencies in the very high frequency (VHF) range between 118.000 and 136.975 MHz. Reference: Instrument Procedures Handbook, Chapter 2

Question 23

What is magnetic variation?

The deviation of the compass with all electrical equipment turned on.
The tendency of the magnetic compass to turn when accelerating on an east or west heading.
The appropriate variation for the geographical location of flight.
The tendency of the compass to dip towards the ground at upper latitudes.

Answer 23

The appropriate variation for the geographical location of flight.
Correct
Magnetic north is not the same as true north. As you increase latitude, the angular difference increases. Variation lines on the chart indicate the amount of heading that must be added/subtracted in order to fly a proper compass course relative the chart. You subtract degrees for easterly variation and add degrees for westerly variation– “East is least, West is best.” Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR Flight

Question 24

When would you file a departure alternate (Part 121)?

If the weather conditions are 1/2 of the landing minimums at the departure airport.
All FAR part 121 departures require a departure alternate.
You are required to file a departure alternate when taking off from a terrain challenged airport.
If the weather conditions at your departure airport are below the landing minimums.

Answer 24

If the weather conditions at your departure airport are below the landing minimums.
Correct
A departure alternate must be filed for operations under FAR part 121 when the weather is reported to be below the landing visibility required for the approach. Reference: FAR 121.617

Question 25

You are on the 173 radial with a heading of 180 and you want to intercept the 138 course. What heading should you fly?

180
080
360
150

Answer 25

080
Correct
You are currently SSE of the VOR. 080 provides sufficient heading change to reach outbound on the 138 degree radial. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR Flight

Question 26

When the transponder’s function switch is in the ALT position, which altitude is sent to the controller?

True altitude.
Pressure Altitude.
Indicated Altitude.
Absolute Altitude.

Answer 26

Pressure Altitude.
Correct
In mode C altitude reporting when the transponder’s function switch is in the ALT position, the aircraft’s pressure altitude is sent to the controller. Pressure altitude is the elevation above a standard datum air-pressure plane (typically, 1013.25 millibars or 29.92″ Hg). Pressure altitude is used to indicate “flight level” which is the standard for altitude reporting in the U.S. in Class A airspace (above roughly 18,000 feet). Pressure altitude and indicated altitude are the same when the altimeter setting is 29.92″ Hg or 1013.25 millibars. Reference: Instrument Procedures Handbook, Chapter 2

Question 27

You are operating in an oceanic area that requires RNP 4. You notice that your ANP indicates 0.40. What is your best course of action?

You must request a new clearance from the oceanic control agency as you are no longer able to meet the airspace requirement of RNP 4.
You must divert to your ETOPS alternate
You must divert to your ETP alternate.
No change, everything is fine with your navigation performance.

Answer 27

No change, everything is fine with your navigation performance.
An ANP value of 0.6 indicates that the navigation equipment is confident of its own actual position to within .6nm. Essentially, this means that if the equipment puts a point on the map of where it thinks it is, there is a circle around that point with a .6nm radius and the aircraft is somewhere within that circle.

Question 28

You are tracking outbound on the 175 degree radial at 10 DME at 200 knots ground speed. At what DME and in what direction would you start your turn to arc north on the 15 DME arc?

13 DME, left turn.
13 DME, right turn.
12 DME, left turn.
14 DME, right turn.

Answer 28

13 DME, left turn.

Question 29

When is an alternate not required for domestic operations?

At the ETA, the destination weather will be at least 2,000 ft ceilings and at least 3 miles visibility.
Within 1/2 hour of the ETA, destination weather will be at least 2000 ft ceilings and at least 3 miles visibility.
+/- 1 hour of the ETA, destination weather will be at least 2,000 ft ceilings and at least 3 miles visibility.
At the ETA, the destination weather will be at least 1,500 foot ceilings at least 3 miles visibility.

Answer 29

+/- 1 hour of the ETA, destination weather will be at least 2,000 ft ceilings and at least 3 miles visibility.
Correct
For domestic operations, the 1-2-3 rule applies. An alternate is required UNLESS: One hour before to one hour after the ETA a combination of weather reports and forecasts indicates that the ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet and the visibility will be at least 3 miles. Reference: FAR 121.619

Question 30

You are flying on the 090 bearing to the station. The wind is 360 @ 50 knots. What heading will you need to fly to track inbound on the same VOR on the 270-degree radial from the station?

Greater than 90 degrees, perhaps about 110.
360 degrees.
Something less than 090, perhaps 080.
Slightly north of 270 degrees.

Answer 30

Something less than 090, perhaps 080.

THAT IS A TRICKY ONE. SO YOU ARE INBOUND ON THE 270 RADIAL. SO YOUR HEADING TO THE VOR WOULD BE ABOUT 090 OR 080 TO CORRECT FOR THE NORTH WINDS.

Question 31

Your bearing from the VOR station is 210 degrees. Your heading is 090 degrees. Assuming no wind, what heading will take you to the station?

010
030
210
270

Answer 31

030

Question 32

ATC radar system cannot detect?

Intensity level of Precipitation.
Turbulence.
Altitude.
Severity of weather.

Answer 32

Turbulence.
Correct
ATC radar systems cannot detect turbulence. Generally, turbulence can be expected to occur as the rate of rainfall or intensity of precipitation increases. Turbulence associated with greater rates of rainfall/precipitation is normally more severe than any associated with lesser rates of rainfall/precipitation. Reference: Instrument Procedures Handbook, Chapter 2

Question 33

What is the first duty priority of the air traffic controller to provide?

Volume of traffic.
Frequency congestion.
Workload.
Separate aircraft and issue safety alerts.

Answer 33

Separate aircraft and issue safety alerts.
Correct
ATC’s first duty priority is to separate aircraft and issue safety alerts. ATC provides additional services to the extent possible, contingent upon higher priority duties and other factors including limitations of radar, volume of traffic, frequency congestion, and workload. Reference: Instrument Procedures Handbook, Chapter 2

Question 34

You are headed 120 magnetic on a track of 090 and there is a thunderstorm on your nose. Which way do you go?

South to the upwind side.
North of the upwind side.
South of the downwind side.
Remaining clear of clouds is sufficient.

Answer 34

South to the upwind side.
Correct
A 30 degree wind correction toward the south, would indicate the southern side of the storm is the upwind side. Diversion should occur on the upwind side to avoid the storm converging with your deviation course. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Safety of Flight