NAVIGATION TEST 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is R. A. I. M.?

A system to verify a VOR’s service volume.
A system to monitor the integrity of localizers.
A system to monitor the integrity of GPS signals.
A system to verify a VOR’s azimuth broadcasts.

A

A system to monitor the integrity of GPS signals.

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2
Q

You can stay at FL 300 with calm winds or climb to FL 340 with a 30 knot tail wind. You are limited operationally to Mach .80 at either altitude. Which altitude should you fly at to make it to destination quicker?

Stay at FL 300 because the higher true airspeed will have an adverse effect on your endurance.
Climb to FL 340 to take advantage of the higher ground speed.
Climb to FL 340 to take advantage of the better endurance.
Stay at FL 300 to take advantage of the higher ground speed.

A

Climb to FL 340 to take advantage of the higher ground speed.

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3
Q

In recovery from a spin?

Ailerons should be kept neutral.
Airspeed increases.
Ailerons used to stop the spin.
Rudder and ailerons used against the direction of spin rotation.

A

Ailerons should be kept neutral
Incorrect
Although the POH is the primary reference for recovery from a spin, the following can be used as a general procedure: Retard the throttle to idle, ailerons neutral, apply full opposite rudder, apply forward elevator and recover from the dive. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Aerodynamic Factors

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4
Q

Which of the following is also called “lift dependent” drag?

Parasite drag.
Form drag.
Skin friction drag.
Induced drag.

A

Induced drag.
Correct
The Induced drag, also called “lift dependent” drag is caused from the creation of lift and increases with AOA. Therefore, if the wing is not producing lift, induced drag is zero. Conversely, induced drag decreases with airspeed. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Aerodynamic Factors

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5
Q

The GPS constellation consists of 24 satellites of which 21 are operational at any one time. How many are required to accurately determine an aircraft’s position?

1
2
3
4

A

4

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6
Q

On a localizer, the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz. Which of the following statements is correct?

The 90 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the center line.
The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the center line.
If the 150 Hz modulations predominates, the needle on the CDI moves to the right of center.
When both modulations are received, the aircraft will be on the center line.

A

The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the center line.
Incorrect
VHF localizer provides horizontal guidance and its modulation frequencies are 90 and 150 Hz. Of which The 90 Hz modulation predominates to the left of the center line and The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the center line. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Navigation Systems

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7
Q

While leveling off, the amount of lead to be applied depends on?

Vertical speed rate.
Airspeed.
Altitude.
Pitch.

A

Vertical speed rate.
Correct
Leveling off from a climb requires a reduction in the pitch prior to reaching the desired altitude. If no change in pitch is made until reaching the desired altitude, the momentum of the aircraft causes the aircraft to continue past the desired altitude throughout the transition to a level pitch attitude. The amount of lead to be applied depends on the vertical speed rate. A higher vertical speed requires a larger lead for level off. A good rule of thumb to utilize is to lead the level off by 10 percent of the vertical speed rate (1,000 fpm ÷ 10 = 100 feet lead). Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Airplane Basic Flight Maneuvers

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8
Q

What would happen if approaching a narrower-than-usual runway, the aircraft is:

Higher than actual illusion.
Lower than actual illusion.
On correct path.
No illusion.

A

Higher than actual illusion.
Correct
A narrower-than-usual runway can create an illusion the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is, especially when runway length-to-width relationships are comparable. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Human Factors

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9
Q

What is a graveyard spiral?

A spiral maneuver that should only be performed by well-trained pilots.
A fatal accident caused by a state of spinning the fluid in the brain.
A spiral in which the pilot, on recovery, tends to re-enter the spiral due to the somatogyravic illusion where the vestibular system no longer sense radial acceleration.
An illusion caused by the misperception of being higher than you really are when performing a spiral. Thus the recovery tends to be dangerously low.

A

A spiral in which the pilot, on recovery, tends to re-enter the spiral due to the somatogyravic illusion where the vestibular system no longer sense radial acceleration
Incorrect
A pilot in a prolonged coordinated constant-rate turn, will have the illusion of not turning. During the recovery to level flight, the pilot experiences the sensation of turning in the opposite direction. The disoriented pilot may return the aircraft to its original turn. Because an aircraft tends to lose altitude in turns unless the pilot compensates for the loss in lift, the pilot may notice a loss of altitude. The absence of any sensation of turning creates the illusion of being in a level descent. The pilot may pull back on the controls in an attempt to climb or stop the descent. This action tightens the spiral and increases the loss of altitude; hence, this illusion is referred to as a graveyard spiral. At some point, this could lead to a loss of control by the pilot. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Human Factors

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10
Q

The boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere is known as?

Tropopause.
Ionosphere.
Stratosphere.
Atmosphere.

A

Tropopause.
Correct
The tropopause is the thin layer between the troposphere and the stratosphere. It varies in both thickness and altitude but is generally defined where the standard lapse is generally accepted at 2 °C per 1,000 feet. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Aerodynamic Factors

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11
Q

What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3-degree glide path at a ground speed of 90 kt?

  475 FT/MIN.
  450 FT/MIN.
  400 FT/MIN.
  500 FT/MIN.
Correct
A quick “Ruleof-Thumb” is GS x 5, which is this case is equal to 450 FT/MIN. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Navigation Systems
A

450 FT/MIN.

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12
Q

You are flying with a heading of 090 degrees and establish your track is 100 degrees. Select the best answer from below.

Your track anglel error is 10 degrees south.
Your cross track distance is 10 degrees south.
Your drift angle is 10 degrees south.
Your wind drift correction is 10 degrees south.

A

Your drift angle is 10 degrees south.

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13
Q

Two identical aircraft A and B, with the same mass, are flying steady level coordinated 20-degree bank turns. If the TAS of A is 130 knots and that of B is 200 knots:

The rate of turn of A is greater than that of B.
The load factor of A is greater than that of B.
The turn radius of A is greater than that of B.
The lift coefficient of A is less than that of B.

A

The rate of turn of A is greater than that of B.
Correct
The rate of turn, normally measured in degrees per second, is based upon a set bank angle at a set speed. If either one of these elements changes, the rate of turn changes. If the aircraft increases its speed without changing the bank angle, the rate of turn decreases. Likewise, if the speed decreases without changing the bank angle, the rate of turn increases. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Aerodynamic Factors

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14
Q

The difference between true and magnetic directions is called:

Variation.
Deviation.
Magnetic compass error.
Turning errors.

A

Variation.
Incorrect
Directions measured from the geographic poles are called true directions. The north magnetic pole to which the magnetic compass points is not collocated with the geographic north pole, but is some 1,300 miles away; directions measured from the magnetic poles are called magnetic directions. In aerial navigation, the difference between true and magnetic directions is called variation. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Flight Instruments

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15
Q

The line located halfway between the upper and lower surfaces for an aerofoil is called as?

The mean aerodynamic chord line.
The chord line.
The camber line.
The upper camber line.

A

The camber line.
The mean camber is a line located halfway between the upper and lower surfaces. Viewing the wing edgewise, the mean camber connects with the chord line at each end. The mean camber is important because it assists in determining aerodynamic qualities of an airfoil. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Aerodynamic Factors
WHY DIDN’T THEY SAY MEAN CHAMBER LINE?

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16
Q

The coverage of MLS is __________ either side of the center line to a distance of __________?

40 degrees; 40 nm.
40 degrees; 20 nm.
20 degrees; 20 nm.
20 degrees; 40 nm.

A

40 degrees; 20 nm.
Incorrect
The azimuth coverage extends laterally at least 40° on either side of the runway centerline in a standard configuration, in elevation up to an angle of 15° and to at least 20,000 feet, and in range to at least 20 NM. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Navigation Systems

17
Q

The angle between the aircraft’s longitudinal axis and the chord line is the:

Angle of incidence.
Glide path angle.
Angle of attack.
Climb path angle.

A

Angle of incidence.
Correct
On fixed-wing aircraft, the angle of incidence is the angle between the chord line of the wing and the angle at which the wing is mounted to the fuselage. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Aerodynamic Factors

18
Q

Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:

Pitot tubes.
Pitot tubes and engine intakes.
Engine intakes.
Wing and stabilizer leading edges.

A

Pitot tubes.
Static pressure may be sensed at one or more locations on an aircraft. Some may be flush mounted on the fuselage or integrated into the electrically heated pitot tube. These ports are in locations proven by flight tests to be in undisturbed air, and they may be paired, one on either side of the aircraft. This dual location prevents lateral movement of the aircraft from giving erroneous static pressure indications. The areas around the static ports may be heated with electric heater elements to prevent ice forming over the port and blocking the entry of the static air. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Flight Instruments

19
Q

In regard to GPS navigation, if significant course differences between navigation charts and the navigation database occur:

  It is only acceptable in class II Airspace, outside operational navaid service volumes.
  It is not a problem since significant differences are typical due to great circle computations and magnetic variation.
  File a report with your local FSDO with the position of occurrence.
  Published charts and NOTAM’s hold precedence.
A

Published charts and NOTAM’s hold precedence.

20
Q

If an aircraft desires to maintain a constant radius of turn, but the speed is increased:

The bank angle must be increased.
The bank angle must be decreased.
The bank angle will remain constant.
The bank angle will remain constant, but the load will increase.

A

The bank angle must be increased.
Correct
The radius of turn varies with changes in either speed or bank. If the speed is increased without changing the bank angle, the radius of turn increases, and vice versa. If the speed is constantly increasing, the bank angle reduces the radius of turn, while decreasing the bank angle increases the radius of turn. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Aerodynamic Factors

21
Q

On an ILS approach the localizer provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of:

15 NM
18 NM
20 NM
As Published.

A

18 NM

22
Q

Which of the following is not a component of ILS?

Localizer.
Marker beacons.
Approach lighting system.
None of above.

A

None of above.
Correct
The ILS system is used to execute a precision instrument approach procedure or precision approach. The system consists of the following components: 1. A localizer providing horizontal (left/right) guidance along the extended centerline of the runway. 2. A glideslope (GS) providing vertical (up/down) guidance toward the runway touchdown point, usually at a 3° slope. 3. Marker beacons providing range information along the approach path. 4. Approach lights assisting in the transition from instrument to visual flight. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Navigation Systems

23
Q

A circling approach is:

A flight maneuver to be performed only under radar vectoring.
A contact flight maneuver.
A visual flight maneuver keeping the runway in sight.
A visual maneuver to be conducted only in IMC.

A

A visual flight maneuver keeping the runway in sight.
Correct
The circling minimums published on the instrument approach chart provide a minimum of 300 feet of obstacle clearance in the circling area. During a circling approach, the pilot should maintain visual contact with the runway of intended landing and fly no lower than the circling minimums until positioned to make a final descent for a landing. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR Flight

24
Q

A maneuver in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:

Procedure turn.
Base turn.
Race track.
Reversal track.

A

Procedure turn.
Correct
A procedure turn is a maneuver that facilitates: 1. A reversal in flight direction. 2. A descent from an initial approach fix or assigned altitude to a permissible altitude (usually the procedure turn altitude). 3. An interception of the inbound course at a sufficient distance allowing the aircraft to become aligned with the final approach. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Airplane Basic Flight Maneuevers

25
Q

In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?

VHF.
UHF.
SHF.
EHF.

A

UHF.
Incorrect
Glide slope transmit on UHF. It provides vertical guidance 329.3 to 335.0 Mhz. Radiates about 5 watts. Horizontal polarization, modulation on path 40% for 90 Hz and 150 Hz. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Navigation Systems

26
Q

Which statement is true regarding straight-in approaches?

A localizer is reliable to 22 DME and 10 degrees either side of center.
An LDA approach is required to be published if the course alignment is greater than 35 degrees.
A circling approach is required to be published if the course alignment is greater than 30 degrees.
An SDF approach is more accurate than an LDA approach.

A

A circling approach is required to be published if the course alignment is greater than 30 degrees.

27
Q

The FMS database can be:

Altered by the pilots between the 28-day updates.
Read by ATC.
Only read by the pilots.
Altered by the pilots every 14 days.

A

Only read by the pilots.
Correct
The FMS may act as the input/output device for the onboard navigation systems, so that it becomes the “go-between” for the crew and the navigation systems. FMS is an interface between flight crews and flight deck systems. FMS can be thought of as a computer with a large database of airport and NAVAID locations and associated data, aircraft performance data, airways, intersections, DPs, and STARs, Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Navigation Systems

28
Q

Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?

Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to the aircraft.
Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from the aircraft to MLS station.
Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissions.
A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters.

A

A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters.
Incorrect
The microwave landing system (MLS) provides azimuth, elevation, and distance. Both lateral and vertical guidance may be displayed on conventional course deviation indicators or incorporated into multipurpose flight deck displays. Range information can be displayed by conventional DME indicators and also incorporated into multipurpose displays. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Navigation Systems

29
Q

What is the maximum holding speed of an aircraft above 14,000 MSL?

  200 KIAS.
  230 KIAS.
  265 KIAS.
  285 KIAS.
Correct
A

265 KIAS.
All aircraft may hold at the following altitudes and maximum holding airspeeds: 1. Up to 6,000 feet – 200 KIAS. 2. 6,001 to 14,000 feet – 230 KIAS. 3. 14,001 feet and above – 265 KIAS. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR Flight

30
Q

What is the standard angle of glide slope?

  3 degrees.
  3.29 degrees.
  2.5 degrees.
  3.5 degrees.
Correct
The standard glide slope angle is 3 degrees. It may be higher depending on local terrain. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Navigation Systems
A

3 degrees.

31
Q

A localizer must provide horizontal coverage limits to a distance of:

18 NM all around.
10NM all around.
Sector of 35 degrees for 10 NM and 10 degrees for 18 NM.
Sector of 15 degrees for 25 NM.

A

Sector of 35 degrees for 10 NM and 10 degrees for 18 NM.
Incorrect
The localizer provides course guidance, transmitted at 108.1 to 111.95 MHz (odd tenths only), throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of 18 NM from the antenna to an altitude of 4,500 feet above the elevation of the antenna site. The sectors are 35 degrees for 10 NM and 10 degrees for 18 NM each side of the centerline. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Navigation Systems

32
Q

The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:

A blue light and 2 dashes per second of a 1300 Hz modulated tone.
An amber light and alternate dots and dashes of a 1300 Hz modulated tone.
A white light and 6 dots per second of a 30 Hz modulated tone.
A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone.

A

A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone.
Incorrect
Outer marker provides final approach fix for non-precession approach modulation at 400 Hz. And it displays blue light with two dashes per second. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Navigation Systems

33
Q

You are cleared for the LDA RWY 06 in ROA (Roanoke, VA). You should brief your crew that the main difference between an LDA and ILS LOC is:

None, both approaches have vertical and lateral guidance
LDA is offset from the runway more than 3 degrees
LDA is 6 to 12 degrees wide with vertical guidance
LDA is unstable up to 15 degrees off course indication

A

LDA is offset from the runway more than 3 degrees