TERMINOLOGY Flashcards

Question

CLASS E

Answer 1

Class E Controlled airspace which is neither class A, B, C nor D.In most areas of the United States, class E airspace extends from 1,200 feet (370 m) AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet (5,500 m) MSL, the lower limit of class A airspace. There are areas where class E airspace begins at either the surface or 700 AGL, these areas are used to transition between the terminal and en-route environments (around non-towered airports). These areas are designated on sectional charts. Most airspace in the United States is class E. The airspace above FL600 is also class E. No ATC clearance or radio communication is required for VFR flight in class E airspace. VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements are the same as for class C and D airspaces when below 10,000 feet (3,000 m) MSL. Above 10,000 ft MSL, the visibility requirement is extended to 5 miles (8 km) and the cloud clearance requirement is extended to 1,000 feet (300 m) below clouds, 1,000 feet (300 m) above, and 1 mile (1.6 km) laterally.

Answer 2

Class E Airspace Class E airspace is the controlled airspace not classified as Class A, B, C, or D airspace. A large amount of the airspace over the United States is designated as Class E airspace.This provides sufficient airspace for the safe control and separation of aircraft during IFR operations. Chapter 3 of the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) explains the various types of Class E airspace. Sectional and other charts depict all locations of Class E airspace with bases below 14,500 feet MSL. In areas where charts do not depict a class E base, class E begins at 14,500 feet MSL. In most areas, the Class E airspace base is 1,200 feet AGL. In many other areas, the Class E airspace base is either the surface or 700 feet AGL. Some Class E airspace begins at an MSL altitude depicted on the charts, instead of an AGL altitude. Class E airspace typically extends up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL (the lower limit of Class A airspace). All airspace above FL 600 is Class E airspace.

Answer 3

Class F is not used in the United States.[9] In Canada, Class F is the equivalent of U.S. special use airspace including restricted and alert areas, while ICAO defines it as a “hybrid” of Class E and Class G, in which ATC separation guidance is available but not required for IFR operation.

Answer 4

Class G airspace includes all airspace below FL600, not otherwise classified as controlled.[10] There are no entry or clearance requirements for class G airspace, even for IFR operations. Class G airspace is typically the airspace very near the ground (1,200 feet or less), beneath class E airspace and between class B-D cylinders around towered airstrips. Radio communication is not required in class G airspace, even for IFR operations. Class G is completely uncontrolled. VFR visibility requirements in class G airspace are 1 mile (1.6 km) by day, and 3 miles (5 km) by night, for altitudes below 10,000 feet (3,050 m) MSL but above 1,200 ft AGL. Beginning at 10,000 feet MSL, 5 miles (8 km) of visibility are required, day and night. Cloud clearance requirements are to maintain an altitude that is 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal; at or above 10,000 ft MSL, they are 1,000 ft below, 1,000 ft above, and 1 mile laterally. By day at 1,200 feet (370 m) AGL and below, aircraft must remain clear of clouds, and there is no minimum lateral distance. It should be noted that there are certain exceptions where class G extends above 1,200 feet AGL. This is usually either over mountainous terrain (e.g., some areas in the Rocky Mountains), or over very sparsely populated areas (e.g., some parts of Montana and Alaska).

Answer 5

1 statute mile Clear of clouds 3 statute miles 1,000 feet above 500 feet below 2,000 feet horizontal1 statute mile 1 statute mile 1,000 feet above 500 feet below 2,000 feet horizontal 3 statute miles 1,000 feet above 500 feet below 2,000 feet horizontal 5 statute miles 1,000 feet above 1,000 feet below 1 statute mile horizontal Class G Airspace Uncontrolled airspace or Class G airspace is the portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E. It is therefore designated uncontrolled airspace. Class G airspace extends from the surface to the base of the overlying Class E airspace. Although ATC has no authority or responsibility to control air traffic, pilots should remember there are visual flight rules (VFR) minimums that apply to Class G airspace.

Answer 6

Clearance bar lights—three yellow in-pavement clearance bar lights used to denote holding positions for aircraft and vehicles. When used for hold points, they are co-located with geographic position markings.

Answer 7

Clearance Bar Lights Clearance bar lights are installed at holding positions on taxiways in order to increase the conspicuity of the holding position in low visibility conditions. They may also be installed to indicate the location of an intersecting taxiway during periods of darkness. Clearance bars consist of three in-pavement steady-burning yellow lights

Answer 8

RANGE OF MACH NUMBERS BETWEEN THE BUFFETING AND STALLING BUFFETING AND STALLING MACH NUMBERS APPROACH EACH OTHER WITH ALTITUDE WHEN THEY BECOME THE SAME THE CEILING OF THE AIRCRAFT IS REACHED AIRCRAFT CLIMBING AT A CONSTANT MACH WOUD HAVE DECREASING IAS AND TAS. BETWEEN VS AND VMO

Answer 9

Compass Locator. Compass locators are low-powered NDBs and are received and indicated by the ADF receiver. When used in conjunction with an ILS front course, the compass locator facilities are collocated with the outer and/or MM facilities. The coding identification of the outer locator consists of the first two letters of the three-letter identifier of the associated LOC. For example, the outer locator at Dallas/Love Field (DAL) is identified as “DA.” The middle locator at DAL is identified by the last two letters “AL.”

Answer 10

A Compulsory Reporting Point is represented by a solid black triangle while a Non- Compulsory Reporting Point is a black triangle OUTLINE. Compulsory Reporting points require that pilots report that they have reached them to ATC so ATC does NOT have to constantly remind pilots of positions to contact while they fly their route. They CAN even be placed INSIDE navaid symbols to ensure pilots report reaching a particular navaid.

Answer 11

Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs) CFAs contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The difference between CFAs and other special use airspace is that activities must be suspended when a spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout position indicates an aircraft might be approaching the area. There is no need to chart CFAs since they do not cause a nonparticipating aircraft to change its flight path.

Answer 12

Mach number which produces the first evidence of local sonic flow. Slowest Mach number at which the airflow over a small region of the wing reaches the speed of sound Boundary between subsonic and transonic flight Keystone for all compressibility effects As Critical Mach Number is exceeded as normal shock wave forms and separation begins at trailing edge. Normal shock wave is very wasteful of energy Swept back will delay the onset of compressibility effects. Critical Mach number increases

Answer 13

Dead reckoning is headings and time. “Dead” comes from shortening “deduced” to “ded”

Answer 14

``` CAT I Decision Altitude (DA) Is a specified altitude on a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual references to continue the approach have not been established. Decision altitude is charted in feet above mean sea level and is read on the altitude tape ```

Answer 15

CAT II Decision Height: (DH) Is a specified altitude on a precision approach, charted in height above threshold elevation, radio altitude above ground level at which a decision must be made either to continue the approach or to execute a missed approach. Decision height is read on the radio-altimeter.Decision heights are normally associated with CATII and CATIII approaches.

Answer 16

Destination signs—yellow background with black inscription and arrows. These signs provide information on locating areas, such as runways, terminals, cargo areas, and civil aviation areas.

Answer 17

Direction signs—yellow background with black inscription. The inscription identifies the designation of the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of an intersection.

Answer 18

A displaced threshold is a threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway. Displacement of a threshold reduces the length of runway available for landings. The portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction, or landings from the opposite direction. A ten feet wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold, and white arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold. White arrow heads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar. WHEN I LAND IN PSP I CAN LAND LONG BECAUSE THE DISPLACED THRESHOLD CAN BE USED FOR LANDING IN THE OPPOSITE DIRECTION. WHITE ARROWS!

Answer 19

``` Enhanced Taxiway Centerline Markings At most towered airports, the enhanced taxiway centerline marking is used to warn you of an upcoming runway. It consists of yellow dashed lines on either side of the normal solid taxiway centerline and the dashes extend up to 150 feet prior to a runway holding position marking. [Figure 14-21A and B] They are used to aid you in maintaining awareness during surface movement to reduce runway incursions. -- -- -- -- -- -- ___________ -- -- -- -- -- -- ```

Answer 20

The fundamental difference between SIDs and EOSIDs is that SIDs provides the minimum performance considerations to meet the departure requirements assuming an all engine operation whereas EOSIDs are based upon engine out performance in relation to obstacle clearance. The development of Engine Out Takeoff Procedures is the responsibility of the operator.

Answer 21

FB = FOUR POINTED STAR = ANTICIPATED TURN SO WONT OVERSHOOT NEXT SEGMENT. FO = FOUR POINTED STAR IN CIRCLE = PRECLUDES A TURN TILL OVER FLYING THE WAY POINT A FB waypoint typically is used in a position at which a change in the course of procedure occurs. Charts represent them with four-pointed stars. This type of waypoint is designed to allow you to anticipate and begin your turn prior to reaching the waypoint, thus providing smoother transitions. Conversely, RNAV charts show a FO waypoint as a four-pointed star enclosed in a circle. This type of waypoint is used to denote a missed approach point, a missed approach holding point, or other specific points in space that must be flown over

Answer 22

Geographic position markings—ATC verifies the position of aircraft and vehicles using geographic position markings. The markings can be used either as hold points or for position reporting. These checkpoints or “pink spots” are outlined with a black and white circle and designated with a number or a number and a letter.

Answer 23

The course projected by the glide-slope equipment is essentially the same as would be generated by a localizer operating on its side. The glide-slope projection angle is normally adjusted to 2.5° to 3.5° above horizontal, so it intersects the MM at about 200 feet and the OM at about 1,400 feet above the runway elevation. At locations where standard minimum obstruction clearance cannot be obtained with the normal maximum glide-slope angle, the glide-slope equipment is displaced farther from the approach end of the runway if the length of the runway permits; or, the glideslope angle may be increased up to 4°.

Answer 24

Unlike the localizer, the glide-slope transmitter radiates signals only in the direction of the final approach on the front course. The system provides no vertical guidance for approaches on the back course. The glide path is normally 1.4° thick. At 10 NM from the point of touchdown, this represents a vertical distance of approximately 1,500 feet, narrowing to a few feet at touchdown.

Answer 25

``` STANDARD GLIDE SLOPE IS 3 DEGREES. BUT IT MAY BE HIGHER DO TO TERRAIN. Glide slope (GS) describes the systems that generate, receive, and indicate the ground facility radiation pattern. The glide path is the straight, sloped line the aircraft should fly in its descent from where the glide slope intersects the altitude used for approaching the FAF, to the runway touchdown zone. ``` The glide-slope equipment is housed in a building approximately 750 to 1,250 feet down the runway from the approach end of the runway, and between 400 and 600 feet to one side of the centerline.

Answer 26

•Great circle and relationship to aircraft navigation Navigating an aircraft along a great circle track. A great circle track is the shortest distance between two points on the surface of a sphere For an RNAV track to a fix (TF) leg: Defines a great circle track over the ground between two known database fixes and the preferred method for specification of straight legs (course or heading can be mentioned on charts but designer should ensure TF leg is used for coding)

Answer 27

The line connecting the object’s consecutive positions on the ground is referred to as the ground track

Answer 28

Heading is the angle between the direction in which the object’s nose is pointing and a reference direction (e.g. magnetic north)

Answer 29

Slow down to hold if no clearance beyond a fix has been given within 3 minutes of the fix Maximum holding speeds< At or below 6,000ft: 200 KIAS< 6,001 to 14,000ft: 230 KIAS< Above 14,000ft: 265 KIAS< Holding time is 1 minute up to 14,000ft, 1.5 minute above 14,000ft Standard hold is a right turn, non-standard is a left turn

Answer 30

Holding Position Markings for Taxiway/Taxiway Intersections Holding position markings for taxiway/taxiway intersections consist of a single dashed yellow line extending across the width of the taxiway. [Figure 14-26] They are painted on taxiways where ATC normally holds aircraft short of a taxiway intersection. When instructed by ATC “hold short of Taxiway X,” you should stop so that no part of your aircraft extends beyond the holding position marking. When the marking is not present, you should stop your aircraft at a point that provides adequate clearance from an aircraft on the intersecting taxiway.

Answer 31

ILS approaches COURSE VARIES FROM 3 TO 6 DEGREES. Service volume 10 degrees either side of the course along a radius 18NM from the antenna 10 to 35 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 10NM GSIA (glideslope intercept altitude) is also the point at which pilot’s operating under part 121 would determine if the approach could be continued if newly reported weather goes below minimums Intercept should be done from below the glideslope. If intercepting the glideslope from above, there is a possibility to intercept a false 6° or 9°glideslope above the actual glideslope. The 6° glideslope might have reverse steering. Both glideslopes would have a substantially higher descent rate than the actual glideslope.

Answer 32

When instructed to “hold short of Runway (XX) ILS critical area,” you must ensure no portion of the aircraft extends beyond these markings. [Figure 14-25] If ATC does not instruct you to hold at this point, then you may bypass the ILS critical area hold position markings and continue with your taxi. Holding Position Signs and Markings for an Instrument Landing System (ILS) Critical Area The instrument landing system (ILS) broadcasts signals to arriving instrument aircraft to guide them to the runway. Each of these ILSs have critical areas that must be kept clear of all obstacles in order to ensure quality of the broadcast signal. At many airports, taxiways extend into the ILS critical area. Most of the time, this is of no concern; however, during times of poor weather, an aircraft on approach may depend on a good signal quality. When necessary, ATC will protect the ILS critical area for arrival instrument traffic by instructing taxiing aircraft to “hold short” of Runway (XX) ILS critical area.

Answer 33

Indicated airspeed, calibrated airspeed, true airspeed, ground speed and Mach number IAS, TAS, MACH or ITM. Now when you go from low (-) to high (+) add a – before ITM and a + after. So –ITM+. If you are climbing at a constant TAS, then everything to the right, M, increase. Everything to the left, I, decreases. If climbing at a constant IAS, then everything right of I, which is T, and M increase. If we are descending then switch the – and + signs.

Answer 34

Information signs—yellow background with black inscription. These signs are used to provide the pilot with information on areas that cannot be seen from the control tower, applicable radio frequencies, and noise abatement procedures. The airport operator determines the need, size, and location of these signs.

Answer 35

THE ICA IS THE SEGMENT OF THE DEPARTURE PROCEDURE THA STARTS AT THE DER AND PROCEEDS ALONG TH RWY CENTERLINE EXTENDED TO ALLOW THE AIRCRAFT SUFFICIENT DISTANCE TO REACH AN ALTITUDE OF 400 FT ABOV DER ELEVATION AND TO ALLOW THE ESTABLISHMENT OF POSITIVE COURSE GUIDANCE BY ALL NAVIGATION SYSTEM. A TYPICAL STRAIGHT DEP. ICA EXTENDS 1-5 MIFROM TH E DER ALONG THE RWY CENTERLINE EXTENDED. IT IS 500 FT. WIDE EACH SIDE OF THE RWY CENTERLINE AT DER, THEN SPREADS OUT 15 DEGREES.

Answer 36

A 1950s inertial navigation control developed at MIT. An inertial navigation system (INS) is a navigation device that uses a computer, motion sensors (accelerometers) and rotation sensors (gyroscopes) to continuously calculate by dead reckoning the position, the orientation, and the velocity (direction and speed of movement) of a moving object without the need for external references.[1] Often the inertial sensors are supplemented by a barometric altimeter and occasionally by magnetic sensors (magnetometers) and/or speed measuring devices. INSs are used on vehicles such as ships, aircraft, submarines, guided missiles, and spacecraft. Other terms used to refer to inertial navigation systems or closely related devices include inertial guidance system, inertial instrument, inertial measurement unit (IMU) and many other variations. Older INS systems generally used an inertial platform as their mounting point to the vehicle and the terms are sometimes considered synonymous.

Answer 37

Both WAAS and LAAS use ground-based stations to monitor and adjust GPS signals, but LAAS is intended to provide “look-alike” ILS signals for terminal operations. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Navigation Aids

Answer 38

Heavy behind Heavy 4 NM Medium behind Heavy 5 NM Light behind Heavy 6 NM Light behind Medium 5 NM Heavy behind A380 6 NM Medium behind A380 7 NM Light behind A380 8 NM

Answer 39

AS SENSITIVE AS AN ILS BUT OFFSET FROM THE RUNWAY. THEY MAY OR MAY NOT BE ASSOCIATED WITH A GLIDE SLOPE. 1. The LDA is of comparable use and accuracy to a localizer but is not part of a complete ILS. The LDA course usually provides a more precise approach course than the similar Simplified Directional Facility (SDF) installation, which may have a course width of 6 or 12 degrees. 2. The LDA is not aligned with the runway. Straight-in minimums may be published where alignment does not exceed 30 degrees between the course and runway. Circling minimums only are published where this alignment exceeds 30 degrees. 3. A very limited number of LDA approaches also incorporate a glideslope. These are annotated in the plan view of the instrument approach chart with a note, “LDA/Glideslope.” These procedures fall under a newly defined category of approaches called Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV) described in paragraph 5-4-5 of the AIM,

Answer 40

For computing lead radial: Turn radius = TAS/60 – 2 Turn radius = 1% of GS Standard rate turns are 3 degrees per second, 2 minutes for 360. ½ standard rate turns are 1.5 degrees per second

Answer 41

GROUND IN-FLIGHT CLEARED TO TO CLEARED TO LAND CLEARED TO TAXI RETURN FOR LANDING ( TO BE FOLLOWED BY A STEADY GREEN AT THE PROPER TIME STOP GIVE WAY CONTINUE TO CIRCLE CLEAR TAXI WAY OR AIRPORT UNSAFE DO NOT RUNWAY. LAND RETURN TO STARTING POINT NOT APPLICABLE EXERCISE EXTREME CAUT EXCERCISE EXTREME CAUT

Answer 42

Local Airport Advisory (LAA) An advisory service provided by Flight Service Station (FSS) facilities, which are located on the landing airport, using a discrete ground-to-air frequency or the tower frequency when the tower is closed. L A A services include local airport advisories, automated weather reporting with voice broadcasting, and a continuous Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS)/Automated Weather Observing Station (AWOS) data display, other continuous direct reading instruments, or manual observations available to the specialist.

Answer 43

COURSE VARIES WITH 3 TO 6 DEGREES Localizer. The localizer (LOC) ground antenna array is located on the extended centerline of the instrument runway of an airport, remote enough from the opposite (approach) end of the runway to prevent it from being a collision hazard. This unit radiates a field pattern, which develops a course down the centerline of the runway toward the middle markers (MMs) and outer markers (OMs), and a similar course along the runway centerline in the opposite direction. These are called the front and back courses, respectively. The localizer provides course guidance, transmitted at 108.1 to 111.95 MHz (odd tenths only), throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of 18 NM from the antenna to an altitude of 4,500 feet above the elevation of the antenna site.

Answer 44

Location signs—black with yellow inscription and a yellow border, no arrows. They are used to identify a taxiway or runway location, to identify the boundary of the runway, or identify an instrument landing system (ILS) critical area.

Answer 45

Lost Communications in Instrument Conditions: If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if lost communications in VFR conditions (above) cannot be complied with, each pilot must continue the flight according to the following Fly the AVEnue of FAME Route: A: Route assigned in last ATC clearance received; V: If being vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance; E: By the route that ATC has advised you may be expected in an EFC; F: By the route filed on the flight plan Fly the HIGHEST of the following altitudes for the FOR THE ROUTE SEGMENT BEING FLOWN: M: Minimum altitude for IFR operations (MEA) (as prescribed in 19.121(c)) E: The altitude ATC has advised you may expect in an EFC A: Last assigned

Answer 46

Low Level Wind Shear Alert System (LLWAS) generates a warning whenever a difference in excess of 15kts is detected. The LLWAS may not detect downbursts with a diameter of 2NM or less

Answer 47

Flying a WAAS LPV approach requires an aircraft with WAAS-LPV avionics. If for some reason the WAAS service becomes unavailable, all GPS or WAAS equipped aircraft can revert to the LNAV MDA and land safely using GPS only, which is available nearly 100 percent of the time. Localizer performance with vertical guidance (LPV) are the highest precision GPS (WAAS enabled) aviation instrument approach procedures currently available without specialized aircrew training requirements, such as required navigation performance (RNP). Landing minima are usually similar to those of a Type I instrument landing system (ILS), that is, a decision height of 200 feet (61 m) and visibility of 1/2 mile.[1] Although precise and accurate, it is still considered a Non-Precision approach. According to the Instrument PTS, you may use a GPS approach down to LPV minimums to substitute a precision approach

Answer 48

Localizer performance with vertical guidance (LPV) are the highest precision GPS (WAAS enabled) aviation instrument approach procedures currently available without specialized aircrew training requirements, such as required navigation performance (RNP). Landing minima are usually similar to those of a Cat I instrument landing system (ILS), that is, a decision height of 200 feet (61 m) and visibility of 800 m.[1] Lateral guidance is equivalent to a localizer, and uses a ground-independent electronic glide path. Thus, the Decision Altitude, DA, can be as low as 200 feet. An LPV approach is an approach with vertical guidance, APV, to distinguish it from a precision approach, PA, or a non-precision approach, NPA. WAAS criteria includes a vertical alarm limit more than 12 m, but less than 50 m, yet an LPV does not meet the ICAO Annex 10 precision approach standard.[2]

Answer 49

Diving moment as CP moves aft Aerodynamic effect whereby the nose of an aircraft tends to pitch downwards as the airflow around the wing reaches supersonic.

Answer 50

Mandatory instruction signs—red background with white inscription. These signs denote an entrance to a runway, critical area, or prohibited area.

Answer 51

The inner marker (IM), where installed, is located on the front course between the MM and the landing threshold. It indicates the point at which an aircraft is at the decision height on the glide path during a Category II ILS approach. The back-course marker, where installed, indicates the back-course FAF.

Answer 52

The MM is located approximately 3,500 feet from the landing threshold on the centerline of the localizer front course at a position where the glide-slope centerline is about 200 feet above the touchdown zone elevation.

Answer 53

The OM is located on the localizer front course 4 to 7 miles from the airport to indicate a position at which an aircraft, at the appropriate altitude on the localizer course, will intercept the glide path

Answer 54

Marking and Lighting of Permanently Closed Runways and Taxiways For runways and taxiways that are permanently closed, the lighting circuits are disconnected. The runway threshold, runway designation, and touchdown markings are obliterated and yellow “Xs” are placed at each end of the runway and at 1,000-foot intervals

Answer 55

Maximum Authorized Altitude is a published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment.

Answer 56

``` The MCA (Minimum Crossing Altitude) is related with signal reception and obstacle clearance; this will be indicated by a flagged [X] on NOS and Jeppesen charts as an airway number and altitude. The pilot should climb to the MCA before reaching the intersection; in that way the MCA will not be violated. ```

Answer 57

Military Training Routes (MTRs) MTRs are routes used by military aircraft to maintain proficiency in tactical flying. These routes are usually established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. Some route segments may be defined at higher altitudes for purposes of route continuity. Routes are identified as IFR (IR), and VFR (VR), followed by a number. [Figure 15-7] MTRs with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by four number characters (e.g., IR1206, VR1207). MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by three number characters (e.g., IR206, VR207). IFR low altitude en route charts depict all IR routes and all VR routes accommodate operations above 1,500 feet AGL. IR routes are conducted in accordance with IFR regardless of weather conditions. VFR sectional charts depict military training activities, such as IR, VR, MOA, restricted area, warning area, and alert area information.

Answer 58

OBSTRUCTION, NAVIGATION BUT POSSIBLY NO COMMUNICATION. MEAs are printed in red and simply show the MEA altitude along an airway.Minimum en route altitude (MEA),alternately spelled as Minimum enroute altitude,is the lowest published altitude between radio navigation fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes. Pilots should know that MEA will assure •proper reception of navigation aids •two-way communication not necessarily guaranteed with ATC * safe clearance or margin from obstacles * adherence to ATC or local procedures

Answer 59

Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude named MOCA is the minimum altitude for a defined segment that provides the required obstacle clearance.The MOCA is determined and published for each segment of the route. Charts will provide the proper horizontal and vertical separation at those areas where the existence of obstacles could be a factor for the safety of flights. Pilots flying in the USA should know that the MOCA assures also 22NM VOR reception range At the same time, certain aspects could affect this value, factors like terrain or mountainous areas could change this value according to the following circumstances. The MOCA will specify minimum vertical separation: 1000ft (300m) separation when the obstacle elevations is below 3000ft (900m) 1500ft (450m) separation when the obstacle elevations is between 3000ft (900m) to 5000ft  (1500m). 2000ft (600m) separation when the obstacle elevations is greater than 5000ft (1500m or more

Answer 60

An off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) is an off-route altitude that provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 foot buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and a 2,000 foot buffer in designated mountainous areas within the United States. This altitude may not provide signal coverage from ground-based NAVAIDs, ATC radar, or communications coverage.

Answer 61

Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA) is determined by FAA flight inspection traversing an entire route of flight to establish the minimum altitude the navigation signal can be received for the route and for off-course NAVAID facilities that determine a fix. When the MRA at the fix is higher than the MEA, an MRA is established for the fix and is the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined

Answer 62

Minimum Sector Altitude named MSA is the lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 300 m (= 1000ft) above all objects located in the area contained within a sector of a circle of 46 km (=25 NM) radius centered on a radio navigation aid .

Answer 63

Minimum Turning Altitude (MTA) is a charted altitude providing vertical and lateral obstruction clearance based on turn criteria over certain fixes, NAVAIDs, waypoints, and on charted route segments. [Figure 2-59] When a VHF airway or route terminates at a NAVAID or fix, the primary area extends beyond that termination point.

Answer 64

MORAs are printed with an “a” following the altitude. 10 NM EITHER SIDE OF ROUTE CENTERLINE An off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) is an off-route altitude that provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 foot buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and a 2,000 foot buffer in designated mountainous areas within the United States. This altitude may not provide signal coverage from ground-based NAVAIDs, ATC radar, or communications coverage.

Answer 65

Grid MORAs provide an obstacle clearance altitude within a latitude and longitude grid block, usually of one degree by one degree. They are presented in feet (ft), omitting the last two figures. Example: 7,600 feet is given as 76. Grid MORA values clear all terrain and obstructions by 1000 feet in areas where the highest elevations are 5000 feet MSL or lower. MORA values clear all terrain by 2000 feet in areas where the highest elevations are 5001 feet MSL or higher.

Answer 66

MORA’s give at least 1,000 feet altitude clearance above terrain, and 2,000 feet in mountainous (an area of changing terrain were the changes of terrain elevation exceed 3000 feet within a distance of 10NM) terrain. Route MORAs provided an obstacle clearance within 10 nautical miles (19 km) on both sides of the airways and within a 10-nautical-mile (19 km) radius around the ends of the airways.

Answer 67

Wavelike effect, characterized by updrafts and downdrafts Occurs above and behind a mountain range when rapidly flowing air encounters the mountain range's steep front. Tends to push aircraft into backside of mountain

Answer 68

Minimum Vectoring Altitudes (MVA) are established for use by ATC when radar ATC is exercised. Each sector boundary is at least 3 miles from the obstruction determining the MVA. To avoid a large sector with an excessively high MVA due to an isolated prominent obstruction, the obstruction may be enclosed in a buffer area whose boundaries are at least 3 miles from the obstruction.

Answer 69

National Security Areas (NSAs) NSAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 99, and prohibitions are disseminated via NOTAM. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through these depicted areas.

Answer 70

Navigational aids and distance scales Deviations VOR: 2 degrees per dot with full scale deflection equal to10 degrees ILS localizer: 0.5 degrees per dot with full scale deflection 2.5 degrees ILS glidepath: 0.14 degrees per dot with full scale deflection 0.7 degrees ILS localizer ROT: 50’/NM per dot deviation ILS glidepath ROT: 24’/NM per dot deviation off glidepath

Answer 71

A Non-Compulsory reporting Point is a point that is used for a Non-radar environment, (such as a power failure at the tower, radar facility malfunction, etc.) to control aircraft. These were designed to help the ATC function during failure of radar facilities to control, separate, and sequence aircraft. Non-Compulsory reporting points are named (5) Letters such as KWANG in this example. Pilots are NOT required to report to ATC when they reach these points, thus Non-Compulsory reporting.

Answer 72

An off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) is an off-route altitude that provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 foot buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and a 2,000 foot buffer in designated mountainous areas within the United States. This altitude may not provide signal coverage from ground-based NAVAIDs, ATC radar, or communications coverage.

Answer 73

Omnidirectional Omnidirectional taxiway lights outline the edges of the taxiway and are blue in color. At many airports, these edge lights may have variable intensity settings that may be adjusted by an ATC when deemed necessary or when requested by the pilot. Some airports also have taxiway centerline lights that are green in color.

Answer 74

The visual glidepath will be at least 1 degree above all obstacles in the final approach area. The VGSI must provide clearance above all obstacles within the commissioned operational service volume. Flight inspection does verify that specific VGSI below path indications clear all obstacles within the commissioned operational service volume. When VGSI and electronic glide path information serve the same runway, the visual approach path will coincide with the one produced electronically The default PAPI glidepath angle is 3 degrees. The PAPI glidepath for the typical Air Carrier airport with a TCH of 50 ft, will produce a touchdown point at 954 feet from the threshold regardless of runway length, assuming no flare maneuver is used.

Answer 75

The precision approach path indicator (PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI but is installed in a single row of either two or four light units. These systems have an effective visual range of about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night

Answer 76

PAPI Sytems This system uses light units installed in a single row of either two or four light units. Lights are visible from about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. The visual glide path of the PAPI provides in most cases safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 SM from the runway threshold. Descent, using the PAPI, should not be initiated until the aircraft is visually aligned with the runway. PAPI’s are usually situated around 1000’ from the threshold of the runway. Regardless of the placement of the PAPIs it will always provide obstruction clearance. This also happens to be in the general vicinity of the visual aim point and the ILS/GS installation, give or take a few feet. If there is an alignment issue between the ILS/GS or Non‐ILS descent angle and the PAPI glidepath you will see the following note: “VGSI and descent angles not coincident” or “VGSI and ILS glidepath not coincident on an approach plate”.

Answer 77

Highest intensity available Medium or lower intensity (Lower REIL or REIL off) Lowest intensity available (Lower REIL or REIL off)

Answer 78

Navigation referencing the ground is called? | A: Pilotage

Answer 79

PITOT TUBE BLOCKED BUT DRAIN WHOLE OPEN = Airspeed will indicate 0 PITOT TUBE AND DRANE WHOLE BLOCKED = Act as Altimeter = Climb Airspeed increases, Descend Airspeed decreases. STATIC PORT BLOCKED (PITOT AND DRANE OPEN) Descend = slightly higher speed Climb = lower speed.

Answer 80

A CONTINUES DISPLAY OF NAVIGATIONAL DATA THAT ENABLES AN AIRCRAFT TO BE FLOWN ALONG A SPECIFIC COURSE LINE. (RADAR VECTOR, RNAV, GROUND BASED) MUST BE ACQUIRED WITH IN 10 MI OF A STRAIGHT OUT DEP AND 5 MI OF A TURN

Answer 81

Prohibited Areas Prohibited areas contain airspace of defined dimensions within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare. These areas are published in the Federal Register and are depicted on aeronautical charts. The area is charted as a “P” followed by a number (e.g., P-40). Examples of prohibited areas include Camp David and the National Mall in Washington, D.C., where the White House and the Congressional buildings are located.

Answer 82

Published VFR Routes Published VFR routes are for transitioning around, under, or through some complex airspace. Terms such as VFR flyway, VFR corridor, Class B airspace VFR transition route, and terminal area VFR route have been applied to such routesThese routes are generally found on VFR terminal area planning charts.

Answer 83

REL provide a warning to aircraft crossing or entering a runway from intersecting taxiways that there is conflicting traffic on the runway.

Answer 84

It is sometimes necessary, due to construction or runway maintenance, to close only a portion of a runway When the threshold is relocated, the closed portion of the runway is not available for use by aircraft for takeoff or landing, but it is available for taxi. When a threshold is relocated, it closes not only a set portion of the approach end of a runway, but also shortens the length of the opposite direction runway. Yellow arrow heads are placed across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar. WATCH OUT CAN ONLY BE USED FOR TAXI. YELLOW ARROWS!

Answer 85

Other Reporting Points: Required Reporting Points in Radar Contact: HUMANSS [H]old (entering, leaving) [U]nable (to climb or decend at 500 ft/min) [M]issed Approach [A]ltitude change (ifr or vfr on top) [N]avigational Capability Lost [S]peed change of 5% or 10 knots, whichever is greater [S]afety of flight (anything) Other reports, including non-radar: TUF [T]ime estimate change of more than 3 minutes [U]nforcast Weather [F]inal Approach Fix

Answer 86

Restricted Areas Restricted areas are areas where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft and contain airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Activities within these areas must be confined because of their nature, or limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities, or both.

Answer 87

RNAV (GPS) approach charts presently can have up to four lines of approach minimums: LPV, LNAV/VNAV, LNAV, and Circling. This enables as many GPS equipped aircraft to use the procedure as possible and provides operational flexibility if WAAS becomes unavailable. Some aircraft may only be equipped with GPS receivers so they can fly to the LNAV MDA. Some aircraft equipped with GPS and FMS (with approach-certified barometric vertical navigation, or Baro-VNAV) can fly to the LNAV/VNAV MDA.

Answer 88

``` An ANP value of 0.6 indicates that the navigation equipment is confident of its own actual position to within .6nm. Essentially, this means that if the equipment puts a point on the map of where it thinks it is, there is a circle around that point with a .6nm radius and the aircraft is somewhere within that circle. RNP is an airspace requirement. ANP is the aircraft’s adherence to that requirement.SAME AS ON RNAV BUT BETTER FOR NON RADAR AREAS. ANP IS ACTUAL NAVIGATION PERFORMANCE. RNP REFERS TO ACCURACY REQUIRED FOR A GIVEN BLOCK OF AIRSPACE OR A SPECIFIC INSTRUMENT PROCEDURE. Area navigation (RNAV) and RNP systems are fundamentally similar. The key difference between them is the requirement for on-board performance monitoring and alerting. A navigation specification that includes a requirement for on-board navigation performance monitoring and alerting is referred to as an RNP specification. One not having such a requirement is referred to as an RNAV specification. Therefore, if ATC radar monitoring is not provided, safe navigation in respect to terrain shall be self-monitored by the pilot and RNP shall be used instead of RNAV. ``` RNP also refers to the level of performance required for a specific procedure or a specific block of airspace. An RNP of 10 means that a navigation system must be able to calculate its position to within a circle with a radius of 10 nautical miles. An RNP of 0.3 means the aircraft navigation system must be able to calculate its position to within a circle with a radius of 3/10 of a nautical mile.[1] The differences in these systems are typically a function of on-board navigational system redundancies. A related term is ANP which stands for "actual navigation performance." ANP refers to the current performance of a navigation system while "RNP" refers to the accuracy required for a given block of airspace or a specific instrument procedure.

Answer 89

Runway centerline lighting system (RCLS)—installed on some precision approach runways to facilitate landing under adverse visibility conditions. They are located along the runway centerline and are spaced at 50-foot intervals. When viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000 feet. For the remaining 1,000 feet of the runway, all centerline lights are red.

Answer 90

Runway Designation Marking Runway numbers and letters are determined from the approach direction. The runway number is the whole number nearest one-tenth the magnetic azimuth of the centerline of the runway, measured clockwise from the magnetic north. In the case where there are parallel runways, the letters differentiate between left (L), right (R), or center (C). [Figure 14-16] For example, if there are two parallel runways, they would show the designation number and then either L or R beneath it. For three parallel runways, the designation number would be presented with L, C, or R beneath it.

Answer 91

Runway distance remaining signs—black background with white numbers. The numbers indicate the distance of the remaining runway in thousands of feet.

Answer 92

Runway Distance Remaining Signs Runway distance remaining signs have a black background with a white number and may be installed along one or both sides of the runway. [Figure 14-15] The number on the signs indicates the distance, in thousands of feet, of landing runway remaining. The last sign, which has the numeral “1,” is located at least 950 feet from the runway end.

Answer 93

Runway edge lights are used to outline the edges of runways at night or during low visibility conditions. [Figure 14-33] These lights are classified according to the intensity they are capable of producing: high intensity runway lights (HIRL), medium intensity runway lights (MIRL), andlow intensity runway lights (LIRL). The HIRL and MIRL have variable intensity settings. These lights are white, except on instrument runways where amber lights are used on the last 2,000 feet or half the length of the runway, whichever is less. The lights marking the end of the runway are red.

Answer 94

Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) Runway end identifier lights (REIL) are installed at many airfields to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway. The system consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold. REILs may be either omnidirectional or unidirectional facing the approach area.

Answer 95

Runway Entrance Lights and Takeoff Hold Lights are in-pavement light fixtures that are directly visible to pilots and surface vehicle operators.

Answer 96

Runway guard lights are installed at taxiway/runway intersections. They are primarily used to enhance the conspicuity of taxiway/runway intersections during low visibility conditions, but may be used in all weather conditions. Runway guard lights consist of either a pair of elevated flashing yellow lights installed on either side of the taxiway, or a row of in-pavement yellow lights installed across the entire taxiway, at the runway holding position marking.

Answer 97

Runway guard lights—either elevated or in pavement, may be installed at all taxiways that provide access to an active runway. They consist of alternately flashing yellow lights. These lights are used to denote both the presence of an active runway and identify the location of a runway holding position marking.

Answer 98

``` Runway Holding Position Marking Noncompliance with a runway holding position marking may result in the FAA filing a Pilot Deviation against you. Runway holding position markings consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, that are painted on the surface and extend across the width of the taxiway to indicate where the aircraft should stop when approaching a runway. These markings are painted across the entire taxiway pavement, are in alignment, and are collocated with the holding position sign as described above. RUNWAY -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- _________ _________ TAXI WAY ```

Answer 99

Runway Holding Position Sign Noncompliance with a runway holding position sign may result in the FAA filing a Pilot Deviation against you. Arunway holding position sign is an airport version of a stop sign. [Figure 14-9] It may be seen as a sign and/or its characters painted on the airport pavement. The sign has white characters outlined in black on a red background. It is always collocated with the surface painted holding position markings and is located where taxiways intersect runways. On taxiways that intersect the threshold of the takeoff runway, only the designation of the runway may appear on the sign

Answer 100

Runway Safety Area Boundary Sign Some taxiway stubs also have a runway safety area boundary sign that faces the runway and is visible to you only when exiting the runway. This sign has a yellow background with black markings and is typically used at towered airports where a controller commonly requests you to report clear of a runway. This sign is intended to provide you with another visual cue that is used as a guide to determine when you are clear of the runway safety boundary area. The sign shown in Figure 14-8 is what you would see when exiting the runway at Taxiway Kilo. You are out of the runway safety area boundary when the entire aircraft passes the sign and the accompanying surface painted marking.

Answer 101

Runway Status Lights tell pilots and vehicle operators to stop when runways are not safe. Embedded in the pavement of runways and taxiways, the lights automatically turn red when other traffic makes it dangerous to enter, cross, or begin takeoff. The lights provide direct, immediate alerts and require no input from controllers. Runway Status Lights are operational at 17 airports across the US and three additional airports (BOS, DFW, and SAN) are scheduled to transition from RWSL prototype sites to RWSL production systems over the next two years. Additional airports will be considered in the near future for runway safety enhancements.

Answer 102

Runway Status Lights is a fully automated system that provides runway status information to pilots and surface vehicle operators to indicate when it is unsafe to enter, cross, or takeoff from a runway. The Runway Status Lights system processes information from surveillance systems and activates Runway Entrance Lights and Takeoff Hold Lights in accordance with the motion and velocity of the detected trafficRunway Entrance Lights and Takeoff Hold Lights are in-pavement light fixtures that are directly visible to pilots and surface vehicle operators. Runway Status Lights is an independent safety enhancement that does not substitute for an Air Traffic Control clearance. Clearance to enter, cross, or takeoff from a runway must still be issued by Air Traffic Control. Although Air Traffic Control has limited control over the system, personnel do not directly use, and may not be able to view, light fixture output in their operations.

Answer 103

Runway status lights only indicate the status of the runway and do not provide a clearance to cross the runway. RELs go off just prior to the aircraft reaching the intersection so that ATC can use anticipated separation RELs do not act as a substitute for an ATC clearance, only provide visual verification of the clearance If ATC issues a clearance and the RELs remain illuminated, DO NOT PROCEED ONTO THE RUNWAY. Contact ATC and advise that you are stopped due to red lights and confirm the clearance.

Answer 104

The Runway Status Lights (RWSL) System is designed to provide a direct indication to you that it is unsafe to enter a runway, cross a runway, or takeoff from or land on a runway when the system is activated.Runway status lights are red in color and indicate runway status only; they do not indicate clearance to enter a runway or clearance to takeoff. The RWSL system provides warning lights on runways and taxiways, illuminating when it is unsafe to enter, cross, or begin takeoff on a runway. Currently, there are two types: Runway Entrance Lights (REL) and Takeoff Hold Lights (THL). [Figures 14-35 and 14-36]

Answer 105

REL= ON WHENEVER IT IS UNSAFE TO ENTER OR CROSS RUNWAY THL = ON WHEN IT IS UNSAFE TO DEPART FROM RUNWAY RIL = ON WHEN IT IS UNSAFE TO CROSS RUNWAY INTERSECTION.

Answer 106

NO GLIDE SLOPE, LESS PRECISION 6 TO 12 (INSTEAD OF 3 TO 6), MAY NOT BE ALIGNED WITH RWY. SDF approaches: a. The SDF provides a final approach course similar to that of the ILS localizer. It does not provide glide slope information. A clear understanding of the ILS localizer and the additional factors listed below completely describe the operational characteristics and use of the SDF. b. The SDF transmits signals within the range of 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. c. The approach techniques and procedures used in an SDF instrument approach are essentially the same as those employed in executing a standard localizer approach except the SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider, resulting in less precision. d. Usable off-course indications are limited to 35 degrees either side of the course centerline. Instrument indications received beyond 35 degrees should be disregarded. e. The SDF antenna may be offset from the runway centerline. Because of this, the angle of convergence between the final approach course and the runway bearing should be determined by reference to the instrument approach procedure chart. This angle is generally not more than 3 degrees. However, it should be noted that inasmuch as the approach course originates at the antenna site, an approach which is continued beyond the runway threshold will lead the aircraft to the SDF offset position rather than along the runway centerline. f. The SDF signal is fixed at either 6 degrees or 12 degrees as necessary to provide maximum flyability and optimum course quality. g. Identification consists of a three-letter identifier transmitted in Morse Code on the SDF frequency. The appropriate instrument approach chart will indicate the identifier used at a particular airport.

Answer 107

The semicircular canals consist of three tubes at approximate right angles to each other, each located on one of three axes: pitch, roll, or yaw. Each canal is filled with a fluid called endolymph fluid. Reference: Instrument Procedures Handbook, Chapter 3

Answer 108

``` Special use airspace or special area of operation (SAO) is the designation for airspace in which certain activities must be confined, or where limitations may be imposed on aircraft operations that are not part of those activities. Prohibited areas • Restricted areas • Warning areas • Military operation areas (MOAs) • Alert areas • Controlled firing areas (CFAs) ```

Answer 109

Standard taxi routes improve ground management at high density airports, namely those that have airline service. At these airports, typical taxiway traffic patterns used to move aircraft between gate and runway are laid out and codedThe ATC specialist (ATCS) can reduce radio communication time and eliminate taxi instruction misinterpretation by simply clearing the pilot to taxi via a specific, named route. An example of this would be Los Angeles International Airport (KLAX), where North Route is used to transition to Runway 24L. These routes are issued by ground control, and if unable to comply, pilots must advise ground control on initial contact. If for any reason the pilot becomes uncertain as to the correct taxi route, a request should be made for progressive taxi instructions

Answer 110

Stop Bar Lights Stop bar lights, when installed, are used to confirm the ATC clearance to enter or cross the active runway in low visibility conditions (below 1,200 ft Runway Visual Range (RVR)). A stop bar consists of a row of red, unidirectional, steady- burning in-pavement lights installed across the entire taxiway at the runway holding position, and elevated steady-burningred lights on each side. A controlled stop bar is operated in conjunction with the taxiway centerline lead-on lights which extend from the stop bar toward the runway. Following the ATC clearance to proceed, the stop bar is turned off and the lead-on lights are turned on. The stop bar and lead-on lights are automatically reset by a sensor or backup timer.

Answer 111

Stop bar lights—required at intersections of an illuminated (centerline or edge lighted) taxiway and an active runway for operations less than 600 feet RVR. These lights consist of a row of red unidirectional, in- pavement lights installed along the holding position marking. When extinguished by the controller, they confirm clearance for the pilot, or vehicle operator, to enter the runway. Controlled stop bars operate in conjunction with green/yellow centerline lead-on lights that extend from the stop bar location onto the runway.

Answer 112

The Surface Movement Guidance Control System (SMGCS) was developed in 1992 to facilitate the safe movement of aircraft and vehicles. This program was designed to provide guidelines for the creation of low visibility taxi plans for all airports with takeoff or landing operations using visibility minimums less than 1,200 feetRVR. The SMGCS low visibility taxi plan includes the improvement of taxiway and runway signs, markings, and lighting, as well as the creation of SMGCS visual aid diagrams. The plan also clearly identifies taxi routes and their supporting facilities and equipment. SMGCS program includes:

Answer 113

What does a TACAN measure: Slant/horizontal range, statute/nautical miles, 199 or 230 miles? A: Slant range in nautical miles. TACAN DME has reliable signals that may be up to distances up to 199 nm at line-of-sight altitude with an accuracy of better than ½ miles or 3 percent of the distance, whichever is greater. (AIM)

Answer 114

Part 121 operators are required by their OpSpecs and 14 CFR Part 121, sections 121.617 and 121.625 to have a takeoff alternate airport for their departure airport in addition to their airport of intended landing if the weather at the departure airport is below the landing minimums in the certificate holder’s OpSpecs for that airport The airport of intended landing may be used in lieu of an alternate provided that it meets all the requirements

Answer 115

Takeoff Hold Lights (THL) indicate if it is NOT safe to takeoff or if crossing traffic is downfield. If you are issued a takeoff clearance and the THLs are illuminated, DO NOT BEGIN YOUR TAKEOFF. You should advise ATC that you are holding for red lights and confirm the clearance. If you have begun your takeoff roll and then the THLs illuminate, you should ABORT THE TAKEOFF if it is safe to do so. If it is unsafe to abort the departure, proceed according to your best judgement

Answer 116

Sidebar on Takeoff Mins: The FAA establishes takeoff minimums for every airport that has published Standard Instrument Approaches. These minimums are used by commercially operated aircraft, namely Part 121 and Part 135 operators. At airports where minimums are not established, these same carriers are required to use FAA designated standard minimums: 1 statute mile (SM) visibility for single- and twin-engine aircraft 1⁄2 SM for helicopters and aircraft with more than two engines

Answer 117

Medium behind Heavy 2 minutes Light behind Heavy 3 minutes Light behind Medium 3 minutes Medium behind A380 3 minutes Light behind A380 4 minutes

Answer 118

Taxiway centerline lead-on lights—guide ground traffic under low visibility conditions and at night. These lights consist of alternating green/yellow inpavement lights.

Answer 119

Temporarily Closed Runways and Taxiways For temporarily closed runways and taxiways, a visual indication is often provided with yellow “Xs” or raised lighted yellow “Xs” placed at each end of the runway. Depending on the reason for the closure, duration of closure, airfield configuration, and the existence and the hours of operation of an ATC tower, a visual indication may not be present. As discussed previously in the chapter, you must always check NOTAMs and ATIS for runway and taxiway closure information.

Answer 120

Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFR) A flight data center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) is issued to designate a TFR. The NOTAM begins with the phrase “FLIGHT RESTRICTIONS” followed by the location of the temporary restriction, effective time period, area defined in statute miles, and altitudes affected. The NOTAM also contains the FAA coordination facility and telephone number, the reason for the restriction, and any other information deemed appropriate. The pilot should check the NOTAMs as part of flight planning.

Answer 121

Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSAs) TRSAs are areas where participating pilots can receive additional radar services. The purpose of the service is to provide separation between all IFR operations and participating VFR aircraft.

Answer 122

The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) or Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is a specified altitude or height in a Non-Precision Approach or Circling Approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference. MDA is referenced to mean sea level and MDH is referenced to the aerodrome elevation or to the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. An MDH for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.

Answer 123

The Minimum Vectoring Altitude named MVA is the lowest altitude, expressed in feet AMSL, to which a radar controller may issue aircraft altitude clearances during vectoring/direct routing except if otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures and missed approachesIn some sources this altitude is also referred to as Minimum Flight Altitude (MFA), Minimum Radar Vectoring Altitude (MRVA) or ATC Surveillance Minimum Altitude (ASMA). The minimum vectoring altitude in each sector provides 1000ft above the highest obstruction in non- mountainous areas and 2000ft above the highest obstacle in designated mountainous areas.

Answer 124

THL provide a warning signal to aircraft in position for takeoff that the runway is occupied and it is unsafe to take off. As of 2016, the RWSL system is operational at 14 of the nation’s busiest airports with 3 more airports scheduled to receive the system by 2017.

Answer 125

WHITE ARROWS POINTING TO RUNWAY = AREA FIT FOR AIRPLANE MOVEMENT

Answer 126

PRE-THRESHOLD WITH X = NOT FIT FOR AIRCRAFT MOVEMENT.

Answer 127

PRE-THRESHOLD WITH YELLOW CHEVRONS = CAN ONLY BE USED AS STOPWAY OTHER DIRECTION

Answer 128

WHITE ARROWS POINTING TO CHEVRONS AND RUNWAY = RUNWAY DESIGNATOR IS NOT MOVEMENT.

Answer 129

Touchdown zone lights (TDZL)—installed on some precision approach runways to indicate the touchdown zone when landing under adverse visibility conditions. They consist of two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline. The system consists of steady- burning white lights that start 100 feet beyond the landing threshold and extend to 3,000 feet beyond the landing threshold or to the midpoint of the runway, whichever is less.

Answer 130

TRANSITION ALT OR QNE = 29.92 CLIMBING TRANSITION LEVEL OR QNH = LOCAL DESCENDING Transition altitude: Altitude while CLIMBING where you set your altimeter to QNE (29.92) Memory aid…QNE (everywhere), QNH (here…local) Transition level: Altitude while DESCENDING where you set QNH Going up thru TA (“A” points up), going down thru TL (“V” in “level” points down)

Answer 131

These lights are visible from 3-5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles or more at night. The visual glide path of the VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 NM from the runway threshold. Descent, using the VASI, should not be initiated until the aircraft is visually aligned with the runway.

Answer 132

Two-bar VASI installations provide one visual glide path which is normally set at 3 degrees. Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glide paths. The lower glide path is provided by the near and middle bars and is normally set at 3 degrees while the upper glide path, provided by the middle and far bars, is normally 1/4 degree higher. This higher glide path is intended for use only by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing height

Answer 133

Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) VASI installations are the most common visual glidepath systems in use. The VASI provides obstruction clearance within 10° of the extended runway centerline and up to four nautical miles (NM) from the runway threshold.The VASI consists of light units arranged in bars. There are 2-bar and 3-bar V ASIs. The 2-bar V ASI has near and far light bars and the 3-bar VASI has near, middle, and far light bars. Two-bar VASI installations provide one visual glidepath that is normally set at 3°. The 3-bar system provides two glidepaths, the lower glidepath normally set at 3° and the upper glidepath 1⁄4 degree above the lower glidepath.

Answer 134

Visual approaches The FAA defines a visual approach as one conducted under instrument flight rules (IFR), which authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport The pilot must, at all times, have either the airport or the preceding aircraft in sight Reported weather at the airport must be ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility of 3-miles or greater

Answer 135

Warning Areas Warning areas are similar in nature to restricted areas; however, the United States government does not have sole jurisdiction over the airspace. A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the United States, containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such areas is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both. The airspace is designated with a “W” followed by a number

Answer 136

Both WAAS and LAAS use ground-based stations to monitor and adjust GPS signals, but LAAS is intended to provide “look-alike” ILS signals for terminal operations. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Navigation Aids

Answer 137

Winds in flight •Evaluating the effect of wind on the path of an aircraft over the ground The rule of sixths Relative to the runway 10deg=1/6, 20deg=2/6, 30deg=3/6, 40deg=4/6 50deg=5/6 60deg-90deg=6/6 For example, RWY 09, wind 050/30. So 4/6 of the wind is crosswind. 4/6 x 30 =20kts Headwinds: Increase speed in a headwind to maximize range. Climbing usually helps too, but only up until the isotherm (about 36,000ft) where it starts taking more fuel to fly higher

Answer 138

``` Other indications: Airspeed changes of 15kts or more VSI excursions of 500fpm or more Pitch changes of 5 deg or more Glideslope deviations of 1 dot or more Heading variations of 10 degrees or more ```

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