All Weekly Review Questions and Some Flashcards

1
Q

What major lipoprotein location is associated with the apolipoprotein Apo A48

A

Chylo

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2
Q

What major lipoprotein location is associated with the apolipoprotein Apo B100

A

LDL

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3
Q

Visible light falls between the color ______ at 400 nm and _____ at 700 nm

A

violet, red

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4
Q

This type of lamp is used in visible and infrared regions and is the most common type:

A

Tungsten

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5
Q

T/F:

Percent transmittance is the ratio of the radiant energy transmitted, divided by the radiant energy incident on the sample.

A

TRUE

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6
Q

What order does light get converted?

A
  • Electrons
  • Amps
  • Volts
  • Absorbance
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7
Q

Which is not true of amino acid analysis?

A

Correct answer:

Blood samples should be drawn after a 2-3 hour fast

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8
Q

T/F:

When proteins have a more positive charge they are more easily dissolved.

A

TRUE

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9
Q

Which protein has a function to maintain oncotic pressure?

A

Albumin

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10
Q

In cerebral spinal fluid, ______% of protein comes from plasma, while ______% comes from the brain.

A

95%, 5%

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11
Q

Pathological condition in which the proximal tubules in the kidneys do not reabsorb glucose, amino acids, uric acids, and bicarbonates resulting in their loss to the urine concentrate.

A

Fanconi Syndrome

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12
Q

Given the following information, calculate the creatinine clearance:

Urine creatinine: 87 mg/dL

Plasma creatinine: 3.2 mg/dL

Urine volume for 24 hours: 810 mL

Patient BSA: 1.92

A

13.70

(87/3.2)x(810 mL/1440 min)x(1.73/1.92)

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13
Q

Given the following results, determine if the patient is experiencing azotemia and what kind.

BUN: 56 mg/dL

Creatinine: 2.1 mg/dL

A

Pre-renal azotemia

(56/2.1)=26.7

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14
Q

Which of the following serves as the glomerular filtration rate for clinicians?

A

Creatinine

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15
Q

What does an increase in serum enzyme levels indicate?

A

Tissue damage and necrosis

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16
Q

When measuring enzyme activity, if the instrument is operating at 50 C lower than the temperature prescribed for the method, how would the results be affected?

A

Lower than expected

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17
Q

T/F:

The following statement could be used to describe zero-order kinetics:

Substrate is present in excess, rate of reaction is constant with time and dependent only on the concentration of enzyme in the system.

A

TRUE

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18
Q

These type of inhibitors may allow substrate binding but will inhibit the formation of product.

A

Non-competitive inhibitors

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19
Q

High levels of which lipoprotein class are associated with decreased risk of accelerated atherosclerosis?

A

HDL

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20
Q

Which of the following lipid results would be expected to be falsely elevated on a serum specimen from a non-fasting patient?

A

Triglyceride

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21
Q

Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of:

A

Chylomicrons

22
Q

The function of the major lipid components of the very-low density lipoproteins is to transport:

A

Endogenous triglycerides

23
Q

A pregnant patient with a fasting glucose of 101 mg/dL is given a 3 hour glucose tolerance test the next day with a 100 gram glucose load. The results are as follows:

Fasting: 98 mg/dL

1-hr: 190 mg/dL

2-hr: 162 mg/dL

3-hr: 132 mg/dL

What is the patient’s diagnosis?

A

Gestational diabetes

24
Q

A diabetic patient comes into the doctor’s office with a fasting blood sugar of 192 mg/dL and a HbA1c value of 14%. Based on these results, what statement best describes the patient.

A

Diabetes mellitus if not managed

25
Of the following glucose levels, which would you expect to result in glucose in the urine?
193 mg/dL
26
Diabetic condition formed when a person's own immune system destroys the islet cells of the pancreas, resulting in impaired production of insulin.
Type I diabetes
27
CSF total protein is considered to be what percentage of the total blood protein value?
0.5-1.0%
28
A patient goes to the ER with increased fluid retention in the chest and complains of pain when taking a breath (pleuisy). The doctor removes fluid from the chest and it reveals increased white and red cell counts, low protein, and has a notably odor. What procedure was utilized to extract the fluid and what type of fluid resulted from the extraction?
Thorocentesis, exudate
29
A cloudy synovial fluid with a WBC count of 150,000, no viscosity, and monosodium urate crystals noted is consistent with which process?
Crystal induced
30
Which of the following conditions is associated with the formation of an exudate?
Pneumonia
31
Electrolyte essential for myocardial contraction and important to maintain normal levels for critically ill patients.
Calcium
32
A patient presents to the ER with severe dehydration, dilute urine production, and constant "thirst" sensation. It is revealed that the patient had recently (1 week ago) fallen off a ladder and suffered trauma to the head. Given this information, what lab test should be performed?
ADH/AVP
33
Second most abundant anion in extracellular fluid.
Bicarbonate
34
Of the total serum osmolality; sodium, chloride, and bicarb normally contribute what percent?
92
35
What is the best interpretation of the following results? pH=7.33 (7.35-7.45) CO2= 27 (35-45) HCO3= 14 (22-29)
Metabolic acidosis with partial compensation
36
Which parameter on a blood gas analysis is calculated instead of being directly measured.
HCO3
37
T/F: The unique structure of hemoglobin allows it to act as both an acid-base buffer and O2 buffer.
TRUE
38
An increase in H+ ions, a decrease in pH, and a decrease in HCO3 results in what acid-base disorder?
Metabolic Acidosis
39
Which of the following statements is not true concerning testing for drugs of abuse?
Confirmatory testing must use methods with high specificity and low sensitivity
40
T/F: Common routes of exposure to toxins are through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, and skin.
TRUE
41
Which of the following is not true concerning analysis of toxic agents?
Screening tests have good specificity but lack sensitivity
42
Toxic levels of acetaminophen are associated with
Hepatotoxicity
43
Pharmacokinetics and drug concentration are influenced by which of the following factors?
Absorption, distribution, excretion, metabolism
44
A drug's most direct and effective method of delivery to its site of action is:
Intravenous administration
45
A blood draw to determine a peak level of a drug should be drawn:
One hour after an orally administered dose
46
T/F: Cytochrome P450 is an enzyme that influences the effectiveness of a drug in an individual.
TRUE
47
Tumor marker methodology include all of the following except:
Gas chromatography
48
Which of the following tumor markers is classified as an oncofetal antigen?
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
49
Which tumor marker is associated with neuroblastoma?
Homovanillic acid (HVA)
50
T/F: Abnormally low tumor marker concentrations are associated with antigen deficiency and can cause false negative results
FALSE