⭐️ ANATOMY Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in ⭐️ ANATOMY Deck (202):
1

Layers of the scalp

SCALPskin, connective tissue of superficial fascia, aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, periosteum

2

Danger zone of the scalp

4th layer loose connective tissueD for danger - 4th letter of the alphabetContains potential space that may distend with injury or infection

3

8 bones of the cranium

Frontal, parietal (2), occipital, temporal (2), sphenoid, ethmoid

4

Immovable fibrous joints that connect skull bones

Sutures

5

Thinnest part of the calvariumwhich is superficial to the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery

Pterion

6

Type of injury that arises when rupture of the middle meningela artery happens (pterion)

Epidural hematoma

7

Junction of frontal and sagittal sutures

Bregma

8

Junction of sagittal and lambdoidal sutures

Lambda

9

Separation of external and internal compact bones in the calvarium primarily made of spongy bone

Diploe

10

The cranial base is divided into three compartments namely:

Anterior, middle, and posterior cranial fossa

11

Bones of the cranial base

Mnemonic: STEP OFf my skullSphenoid, temporal, ethmoid, parietal, occipital, frontal

12

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Cribriform plate

AnteriorEthmoidCN 1

13

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Optic canal

MiddleLesser wing of sphenoidCN II and Ophthalmic Artery

14

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Superior orbital fissure

MiddleBetween lesser and greater wingCN III IV VI V1 and Superior ophthalmic vein

15

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen rotundum

MiddleGreater wing of sphenoidCN V2

16

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen spinosum

MiddleGreater wing of sphenoid

CN V3 mandibular branch, lesser petrosal nerve, accessory meningeal artery

17

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen lacerum

MiddlePetrous, temporal, and sphenoidInternal carotid artery

18

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen magnum

PosteriorOccipitalSpinal accessory, medulla, vertebral arteries

19

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Hypoglossal canal

PosteriorHypoglossal nerve

20

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Jugular foramen

PosteriorTemporal and occipitalCN IX X XI, internal jugular vein

21

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Internal acoustic meatus

PosteriorTemporalCN VII VIII

22

Exits of the branches of the trigeminal nerve

Mnemonic: 1, 2, 3 and FRO1 s o F2 f R3 f O

23

Most common facial fracture

Nasal fracture

24

Most common fossa fractured in basilar skull fracture

Middle cranial fossa

25

2 signs in basilar skull fracture

Raccoon eyes- periorbital ecchymosesBattle sign - mastoid ecchymoses

26

Mastoid processes are absent at birth. When do they develop?

First 2 years of life

27

Closure of anterior fontanelle

9-18mos

28

Closure of posterior fontanelle

3-4 mos

29

Meningeal layers from outside to inside

Dura - arachnoid - pia

30

Vessels traversing epidural versus subdural spaces

Epidural - meningeal artery
Subdural - cerebral bridging veins

31

Space where csf circulates

Subarachnoid space

32

Dura matter layers

Outer periosteal layer - closely applied to inner surface of skull and firmly attached to sutures

Inner meningeal layer - continuous with dura of vertebrl canal

Meningeal dural septae - falx, tentorium, diaphragma sellae

33

Innervation of dura matter

Meningeal branches of CN V, C1-C3, vagus nerve (latter 2 innervate posterior cranial fossa dura)

34

Neuroanatomic area: postcentral gyrus (primary somatosensory area)

Name the Brodman area and function.

Brodman 3, 1, 2

Sensory area for pain, temperaturem, touch, and pressure from the contralateral side of the body

35

Neuroanatomic area: precentral gyrus or primary motor area

Name the Brodman area and function.

Brodman 4

Voluntary movements on contralateral side

36

Neuroanatomic area: secondary motor area

Name the Brodman area and function.

Brodman 6

Supplements motor area

37

Neuroanatomic area: Secondary somatosensory area

Name the Brodman area and function.

5, 7

Supplements somatosensory area

38

Neuroanatomic area: primary visual area

Name the Brodman area and function.

Brodman 17

Receives visual impressions

39

Neuroanatomic area: visual association area

Name the Brodman area and function.

Brodman 18, 19

Supplements primary visual area

40

Neuroanatomic area: superior tempory gyrus of Heschl or Primary auditory area

Name the Brodman area and function.

Brodman 41, 42

Reception and interpretation of sound

41

Neuroanatomic area: broca's speech area

Name the Brodman area and function.

Brodman 44, 45

Controls faculties needed to produce speech

42

Neuroanatomic area: wernicke's area

Name the Brodman area and function.

Brodman 22

Understanding of written and spoken language

43

Neuroanatomic area: angular gyrus

Name the Brodman area and function.

Brodman 39

Involved in language, spatial cognition, calculation, memory retrieval and attention

44

The motor homonculus is a representation of the body wherein the nerves that control the feet are located in the UPPER part and the movements of the face and hands are in the LOWER part.

True or False.

True.

45

The thalamus is a relay station of afferent sensory pathway to the cerebral cortex except the

Olfactory nerve

46

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

Controls endocrine stimulation of the pituitary gland (temperature, thirst, hunger, water balance, sexual function)

47

What structures comprise the limbic system?

Hippocampus
Amygdala
Mamillary bodies
Anterior thalamic nucleus
Sucallosal, cingulate, and parahippocampal gyri

48

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

Controls voluntary movements at subconscious levels

49

What are the parts of the basal ganglia?

Caudate nucleus
putamen
globus pallidus

50

What are the functions of the limbic system?

Mnemonic: 5Fs

Feeding, flight, fight, feelings, fucking (sexual function)

51

Pigmented band of gray matter in the midbrain

Substantia nigra

52

Lateral halves of the midbrain

Cerebral peduncles

53

Anterior part of the midbrain

Crus cerebri

54

Posterior part of the midbrain

Tectum and tegmentum

55

Which part of the brainstem contains the connecting fibers of the two halves of the cerebellum?

Pons

56

Place where the decussation of the corticospinal tracts occur

Medullary pyramids

57

Functions of the medulla oblongata

Controls heart rate, respiration, blood vessel compliance, and swallowing

58

Cerebrum:corpus callosum
Cerebellum:?

Cerebellar vermis

59

Part of the cerebellum that connects with the midbrain

Superior cerebellar peduncle

60

Part of the cerebellum that connects with the pons

Middle cerebellar peduncle

61

Part of the cerebellum that connects with the medulla

Inferior cereballar peduncle

62

Flow of csf

Choroid plexus - lateral ventricles - foramen of monro - 3rd ventricle - aqueduct of sylvius - 4th ventricle - foramina of Luschka (lateral) and Magendie (medial) - subarachnoid space - reabsorbed by arachnoid granulations

63

2 types of hydrocephalus

Communicating and non-communicating

C- concerned with overproduction or defective reabsorption of csf
NC - obstruction

64

Draw the circle of willis

On paper

65

The union of the 2 vertebral arteries form the

Basilar artery

66

The labyrinthine artery is a branch of the

Basilar

67

Draw and enumerate the dural venous sinuses

Use paper

68

What infection is termed as the danger triangle of the face?

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

69

What are the contents of the cavernous sinus

Mnemonic: OTOM CAt

Oculomotor nerve, trochler, ophthalmic nerve, maxilarry nerve, carotid artery, abducens nerve

70

The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint divides it into 2 cavities namely

Superior and inferior part

71

Movements of the superior part of the TMJ

Protrusion and retrusion

72

Movement of the inferior part of the TMJ

Elevation, depression

73

2 muscle groups of the face

Muscles of mastication and muscles of facial expressions

74

All muscles of mastication are found within the infratemporsl fossa except the

Masseter

75

Main branches of the maxillary artery

Middle meningeal
Inferior alveolar
Deep temporal

76

The taste fibers of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is supplied by the

Chorda tympani of CN VII

77

C2 innervtes the angle of the mandible. True or false.

True

78

2 ganglia from the facial nerve

Geniculate - taste fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

Pterygopalatine - parasympathetic fibers to submandibular and sublingul glands via the chorda tympani

79

Differentiate the 3 types of le fort fractures

Le Fort I fractures (horizontal) may result from a force of injury directed low on the maxillary alveolar rim in a downward direction. It is also known as a Guérin fracture or 'floating palate', and usually involves the inferior nasal aperture. The fracture extends from the nasal septum to the lateral pyriform rims, travels horizontally above the teeth apices, crosses below the zygomaticomaxillary junction, and traverses the pterygomaxillary junction to interrupt the pterygoid plates.


LeFort II fracture
Le Fort II fractures (pyramidal) may result from a blow to the lower or mid maxilla and usually involve the inferior orbital rim. Such a fracture has a pyramidal shape and extends from the nasal bridge at or below the nasofrontal suture through the frontal processes of the maxilla, inferolaterally through the lacrimal bones and inferior orbital floor and rim through or near the inferior orbital foramen, and inferiorly through the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus; it then travels under the zygoma, across the pterygomaxillary fissure, and through the pterygoid plates.


LeFort III fracture
Le Fort III fractures (transverse) are otherwise known as craniofacial dissociation and involve the zygomatic arch. These may follow impact to the nasal bridge or upper maxilla. These fractures start at the nasofrontal and frontomaxillary sutures and extend posteriorly along the medial wall of the orbit through the nasolacrimal groove and ethmoid bones. The thicker sphenoid bone posteriorly usually prevents continuation of the fracture into the optic canal. Instead, the fracture continues along the floor of the orbit along the inferior orbital fissure and continues superolaterally through the lateral orbital wall, through the zygomaticofrontal junction and the zygomatic arch. Intranasally, a branch of the fracture extends through the base of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid, through the vomer, and through the interface of the pterygoid plates to the base of the sphenoid. This type of fracture predisposes the patient to CSF rhinorrhea more commonly than the other types.

80

Aperture exits of the facial nerve

1. Hiatus of facial canal
2. Petrotympanic fissure
3. Stylomastoid foramen

81

The corneal reflex is a function of which nerve?

CN VII

82

Movements of the superior part of the TMJ

Protrusion and retrusion

83

Movement of the inferior part of the TMJ

Elevation, depression

84

2 muscle groups of the face

Muscles of mastication and muscles of facial expressions

85

All muscles of mastication are found within the infratemporsl fossa except the

Masseter

86

Main branches of the maxillary artery

Middle meningeal
Inferior alveolar
Deep temporal

87

The taste fibers of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is supplied by the

Chorda tympani of CN VII

88

C2 innervtes the angle of the mandible. True or false.

True

89

2 ganglia from the facial nerve

Geniculate - taste fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

Pterygopalatine - parasympathetic fibers to submandibular and sublingul glands via the chorda tympani

90

Differentiate the 3 types of le fort fractures

Le Fort I fractures (horizontal) may result from a force of injury directed low on the maxillary alveolar rim in a downward direction. It is also known as a Guérin fracture or 'floating palate', and usually involves the inferior nasal aperture. The fracture extends from the nasal septum to the lateral pyriform rims, travels horizontally above the teeth apices, crosses below the zygomaticomaxillary junction, and traverses the pterygomaxillary junction to interrupt the pterygoid plates.


LeFort II fracture
Le Fort II fractures (pyramidal) may result from a blow to the lower or mid maxilla and usually involve the inferior orbital rim. Such a fracture has a pyramidal shape and extends from the nasal bridge at or below the nasofrontal suture through the frontal processes of the maxilla, inferolaterally through the lacrimal bones and inferior orbital floor and rim through or near the inferior orbital foramen, and inferiorly through the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus; it then travels under the zygoma, across the pterygomaxillary fissure, and through the pterygoid plates.


LeFort III fracture
Le Fort III fractures (transverse) are otherwise known as craniofacial dissociation and involve the zygomatic arch. These may follow impact to the nasal bridge or upper maxilla. These fractures start at the nasofrontal and frontomaxillary sutures and extend posteriorly along the medial wall of the orbit through the nasolacrimal groove and ethmoid bones. The thicker sphenoid bone posteriorly usually prevents continuation of the fracture into the optic canal. Instead, the fracture continues along the floor of the orbit along the inferior orbital fissure and continues superolaterally through the lateral orbital wall, through the zygomaticofrontal junction and the zygomatic arch. Intranasally, a branch of the fracture extends through the base of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid, through the vomer, and through the interface of the pterygoid plates to the base of the sphenoid. This type of fracture predisposes the patient to CSF rhinorrhea more commonly than the other types.

91

Aperture exits of the facial nerve

1. Hiatus of facial canal
2. Petrotympanic fissure
3. Stylomastoid foramen

92

The corneal reflex is a function of which nerve?

CN VII

93

Taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is innervated by the

Chorda tympani
Facial nerve

94

Central facial palsy means that the patient cannot wrinkle the forehead. T or F

False. Can still wrinkle forehead despite the rest of the side bing paralyzed.

95

Orbital roof bones

Frontal, lesser wing of the sphenoid

96

Floor of the orbit

Maxilla, zygomatic, palatine

97

Medial wall of the orbit

Ethmoid, maxilla, lacrimal, sphenoid

98

Lateral wall of the orbit

Zygomatic, greater wing of the sphenoid

99

All extraocular muscles originate from the annulus of zinn except the ...? Give origin site.

SO - roof
IO - floor

100

Which ocular smooth muscle elevates the upper eyelid

Superior tarsal

101

Processes in accommodation

Pupillary constriction
Lens accommodation
Convergence

102

In pupillary light testing, absence of consensual reflex means that ... while absence of direct reflex is ...

Consensual- motor connection problem
Direct - sensory input problem

103

Which part of the eye is most responsible for the refraction of light

Cornea - 2/3
Lens 1/3

104

The cornea has no vessels, lymphatics, or nerves. T or F.

True

105

Maintains the shape of the globe and provides attachment for extraocular muscles

Sclera

106

Parts of the uveal tract

Choroid, ciliary body, iris

107

Layers of the retina

Inner limiting membrane, nerve fiber layer, ganglion cell layer, inner plexiform, inner nuclear, outer plexiform, outer nuclear, exteral limiting, photorceptor layer, RPE

108

The sternum is made up of 3 bones namely:

Manubrium, body, xiphoid process

109

The manubrium articulates with the costal cartilages of ___ ribs.

First 2

110

The manubrium overall has how many joints?

7

111

The body of the sternum articulates with _____ ribs

Ribs 3-7

112

True ribs (vertebrocostal)

Ribs 1-7

113

False ribs (vertebrochondral)

8-10

114

False floating ribs

11-12

115

Part of the rib where most fractures tend to occur

Anterior to the angle

116

Broadest, shortest, and most sharply curved rib

Rib 1

117

Grooves of rib 1

Groove for subclavian vessels and scalene tubercle

118

Which rib contains the tuberosity for serratus anterior?

Rib 2

119

Which ribs has only 1 facet and articulate with a single vertebrae?

10-12

120

Which ribs have no tubercle and neck?

11-12

121

Ribs with 2 facets and attaches below to numerically corresponding vertebra and vertebra above

2-9

122

Intercostal spaces are named according to...

Rib forming the SUPERIOR BORDER OF THE SPACE

123

Syndrome due to the compression of the subclavian artery and or brachial plexus

Thoracic outlet syndrome

124

Bone compression causing thoracic outlet syndrome is due to a...

Cervical rib from c7

125

Excessive muscle growth of the scalene can cause

Scalenus anticus syndrome (thoracic outlet)

126

Thoracic outlet syndrome due to narrowing of the 1st ICS is called

Costoclavicular syndrome

127

The apex of the axillary fossa is found in which axillary line?

Mid

128

The inferolateral border of the pectoralis major is found in which axillary line?

Anterior axillary line

129

The latissimus dorsi and teres major is found in which axillary line?

Posterior

130

Taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is innervated by the

Chorda tympani
Facial nerve

131

Central facial palsy means that the patient cannot wrinkle the forehead. T or F

False. Can still wrinkle forehead despite the rest of the side bing paralyzed.

132

Orbital roof bones

Frontal, lesser wing of the sphenoid

133

Floor of the orbit

Maxilla, zygomatic, palatine

134

Medial wall of the orbit

Ethmoid, maxilla, lacrimal, sphenoid

135

Lateral wall of the orbit

Zygomatic, greater wing of the sphenoid

136

All extraocular muscles originate from the annulus of zinn except the ...? Give origin site.

SO - roof
IO - floor

137

Which ocular smooth muscle elevates the upper eyelid

Superior tarsal

138

Processes in accommodation

Pupillary constriction
Lens accommodation
Convergence

139

In pupillary light testing, absence of consensual reflex means that ... while absence of direct reflex is ...

Consensual- motor connection problem
Direct - sensory input problem

140

Which part of the eye is most responsible for the refraction of light

Cornea - 2/3
Lens 1/3

141

The cornea has no vessels, lymphatics, or nerves. T or F.

True

142

Maintains the shape of the globe and provides attachment for extraocular muscles

Sclera

143

Parts of the uveal tract

Choroid, ciliary body, iris

144

Layers of the retina

Inner limiting membrane, nerve fiber layer, ganglion cell layer, inner plexiform, inner nuclear, outer plexiform, outer nuclear, exteral limiting, photorceptor layer, RPE

145

The sternum is made up of 3 bones namely:

Manubrium, body, xiphoid process

146

The manubrium articulates with the costal cartilages of ___ ribs.

First 2

147

The manubrium overall has how many joints?

7

148

The body of the sternum articulates with _____ ribs

Ribs 3-7

149

True ribs (vertebrocostal)

Ribs 1-7

150

False ribs (vertebrochondral)

8-10

151

False floating ribs

11-12

152

Part of the rib where most fractures tend to occur

Anterior to the angle

153

Broadest, shortest, and most sharply curved rib

Rib 1

154

Grooves of rib 1

Groove for subclavian vessels and scalene tubercle

155

Which rib contains the tuberosity for serratus anterior?

Rib 2

156

Which ribs has only 1 facet and articulate with a single vertebrae?

10-12

157

Which ribs have no tubercle and neck?

11-12

158

Ribs with 2 facets and attaches below to numerically corresponding vertebra and vertebra above

2-9

159

Intercostal spaces are named according to...

Rib forming the SUPERIOR BORDER OF THE SPACE

160

Syndrome due to the compression of the subclavian artery and or brachial plexus

Thoracic outlet syndrome

161

Bone compression causing thoracic outlet syndrome is due to a...

Cervical rib from c7

162

Excessive muscle growth of the scalene can cause

Scalenus anticus syndrome (thoracic outlet)

163

Thoracic outlet syndrome due to narrowing of the 1st ICS is called

Costoclavicular syndrome

164

The apex of the axillary fossa is found in which axillary line?

Mid

165

The inferolateral border of the pectoralis major is found in which axillary line?

Anterior axillary line

166

The latissimus dorsi and teres major is found in which axillary line?

Posterior

167

Needle thoracostomy is usually done in the

2nd ICS MCL or AAL

168

Chest tube thoracostomy is usually done on the

5th ICS ANterior axillary line, superior border of lower rib

169

Thoracentesis is done at the

9th ICS, midaxillary line during expiration

170

Structures the needle/tube passes through during thoracostomy

Skin - superficial fascia - serratus anterior - external intercostals - internal intercostals - innermost intercostals - endothoracic fascia - parietal pleura

171

Most important muscle of inspiration

Diaphragm

172

Level of the diaphragm (R and L) on expiration

R 4th ICS
L 5th ICS

173

Origin and insertion of the diaphragm

ORIGIN
Sternal part: posterior surface of the xiphoid
Costal part: posterior surface of lower 6 ribs
Vertebral part: vertebral columns

INSERTION
Central tendon

174

A classic diaphragmatic hernia is called what and where is its usual location?

bochdalek

Left posterolateral area

(Defect in pleuroperitoneal membrane) in developing embryonic diaphragm

175

An anteromedial hernial defect in the diaphragm is called

Morgagni

176

Diaphragm

Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Septum transversum

Central tendon

177

Diaphragm

Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Pleuroperitoneal membrane

Bulk of muscular part of the diaphragm

178

Diaphragm

Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Body wall mesenchyme

Peripheral muscular part

179

Diaphragm

Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Dorsal mesentery of the esophagus

Diaphragmatic crura

180

Apertures of the diaphragm

Caval, esophageal, aortic

181

Level of the different apertures if the diaphragm

Caval T8
Esophageal T10
Aortic T12

182

Contents of the caval aperture of the diaphragm

IVC, Phrenic nerve

183

Contents of the esophageal aperture of the diaphragm

Esophagus, r vagus, l gastric vessels, lymphatics from lower 3rd of esophagus

184

Contents of the aortic aperture of the diaphragm

Aorta, thoracic duct, azygos vein

185

Motor and sensory nerve supply of the diaphragm

Motor: Phrenic nerve
Sensory: Central - phrenic nerve, Peripheral - T7-T11, subcostal nerve

186

Blood supply of the diaphragm

Superior surface:
1. Pericardiphrenic, musculophrenic (internal thoracic artery (first branch of subclavian)
2. Superior phrenic arteries (thoracic aorta)

Inferior surface:
Inferior phrenic artery (abdominal aorta)

187

Difference in nucleus of prokaryotic cells vs eukaryotic cells

Prokaryotic- nucleoid with nonclear nuclear membrane
Eukaryotic- true nucleus with nuclear membrane

188

Difference in DNA and RNA of prokaryotic vs eukaryotic cells

Prokaryotic - circular DNA and RNA
Eukaryotic - linear DNA and RNA

189

Replication differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes

Pro- continuous replication, asexual reproduction (binary fission)
Euk- G and S phase, cytokinesis with mitosis/meiosis

190

Prokaryotes vs Eukaryotes (ribosomes)

Pro- 70s ribosomes (50s and 30s)
Euk- 80s ribosomes (60s and 40s)

191

All prokaryotes have no sterol in their membranes except

Mycoplasma

192

What antibiotics target the 50s and 30s of bacteria?

Mnemonic: buy AT 30, CELLS at 50

30s
Aminoglycosides
Tetracycline

50s
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin (Macrolides)
Lincosamides (Clindamycin)
Linezolid
Streptogramins

193

The outer nuclear membrane is continuous with what structure in the cell?

ER

194

This form of chromatin is most abundant.

Euchromatin

195

Site of DNA transcription

Nucleus

196

Responible for ribosomal synthesis

Nucleolus

197

This is a complex of DNA, histone and non-histone proteins

Chromatin

198

Site of DNA replication

Nucleus

199

Where can you find Barr bodies?

Heterochromatin

200

Allows passage of nucleus to nucleus

Nuclear pore

201

Structure of the nuclear envelope

Double membrane and continuous with the ER

202

3 zones of the nucleolus (ribosomal production)

Granular zone- maturing ribosomes
Dense fibrillar zone - active zone
Fibrillar center - inactive DNA