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Internal Medicine > Assignments Test 2 > Flashcards

Assignments Test 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

In what stage of cancer is the cancer usually localized to the primary organ

A

Stage 1

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2
Q

A history of obesity or type 2 diabetes is a risk factor for which of the following cancers

A

All of the above

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3
Q

______ can be generated by translocation in which part of one gene moves to a different chromosomes and recombines with another gene

A

Fusion proteins

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4
Q

Approximately what percent of clients with newly diagnosed cancers have clinically detectable metastasis

A

30%

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5
Q

What is the first level of dysplasia ?

A

Metaplasia

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6
Q

What type of malignant tumor originates from adipose tissue

A

Liposarcoma

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7
Q

Using TNM staging system what would be the grade If the cancer has no distant metastasis

A

M0

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8
Q

What gene appears to be the trigger of programmed cell death as a way of regulating uncontrolled cellular proliferation

A

P53

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9
Q

Which of the following organs is the most likely location of primary metastasis of bone cancer

A

Lungs

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10
Q

What are the most common of all metastatic tumors

A

Lung

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11
Q

What is the primary indication of theophylline

A

Bronchodilation

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12
Q

What is the drug class for albuterol

A

Bronchodilators
(Andrenergic)

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13
Q

If a patient has a tumor in the pancreas what would it be the most common site of pain referral for this tumor ?

A

Shoulder,midthoracic,or low back

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14
Q

Cells are most sensitive to radiation therapy in the _____ phase

A

G2

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15
Q

What is the last step in the mitotic cycle before cell division

A

G2

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16
Q

Which chemotherapy agent bind to DNA and prevent DNA replication

A

Alkylating agents

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17
Q

Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen hormonal agent is used in ______ to block estrogen receptors in the tumor cells that require estrogen to thrive

A

Breast cancer

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18
Q

Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs

A

Bind to antigens on the surface of a particular type of cancer

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19
Q

A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels, thus imparting tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients. Drugs that use this strategy are known as

A

Angiogenesis inhibitors

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20
Q

Most cancer chemotherapy agents exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because

A

Most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissue and cancerous cell

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21
Q

Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they

A

Encourage the body’s immune system to fight cancerous cells

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22
Q

The drug subclass of cytarabine is antimetabolites. What is the mechanism of action of cytarabine?

A

Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis

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23
Q

Which of the following healthcare professionals determines the delivery method and dosage of radiation therapy to be provided to a patient ?

A

Radiation oncologist

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24
Q

Which of the following therapy options is considered as nonpharmacological modality for cancer pain

A

Relaxation training

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25
Which of the following concepts describe the theory that each round of chemotherapy will affect a certain percentage of cancerous cells and the chemotherapuetic regimen can never completely eliminate the tumor ?
Cell kill hypothesis
26
Tumor lysis syndrome is a serious complications of chemotherapy that has significant adverse effects on the _________
Kidney
27
A 37 yr old female has breast cancer. She is receiving FAC chemotherapy: Flouracil, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide. What is the drug class of Fluorouracil?
Antimetabolites
28
What is the trade name of doxorubicin ?
Adriamycin
29
What is the drug class of cyclophosphamide ?
Alkylating agents
30
What are the common adverse affects of cyclophosphamide (cytoxan)?
All of the above
31
A 68 yr old pt presents with a history of chronic cough weight loss and hemostasis. Chest x ray reveals a mass in the right lung. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis of non small cell lung cancers. Given the patients diagnosis which of the following imaging studies would be most appropriate to stage the tumor and assess for metastasis
Positron emission tomography
32
The pt in the previous case received chemotherapy which includes a combination of agents such as doxorubin, bleomycin,vinblastine,and dacarbazine To help the patient recover from chemotherapy induced Neutropenia, which of the following medications might the physician consider
Granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF)
33
Which of the following is the Secondary prevention of cancer
Pap smear for cervix
34
Which of the following test are useful for early detection and staging of tumors
CT scan and mri Tissue biopsy laboratory values
35
In the mitotic phase when are cells Most susceptible to chemotherapy
Synthesis and mitosis
36
Which of the following is used to preoperative true for irradiation therapy
It can be used preoperatively to shrink a tumor making it operable while preventing further spread of the disease
37
Which class of chemotherapy agents disrupt cellular mitosis by inhibiting microtubules assembly or disassembly
Microtubules targeting agents
38
Monoclonal antibodies may be especially effective in treating certain cancers because these drugs
Bind to antigens on the surface of a particular type of cancer cells
39
Most cancer chemotherapy agents exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because
Most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissue and cancerous cells
40
Which of the following is true for myelosuppression after chemotherapy
Patient may easily get infected due to fewer white blood cells
41
What are the adverse affects of chemotherapy
Fatigue Pulmonary toxicity Renal toxicity
42
What can be the cause of cancer related fatigue
Emotional distress
43
When tumors produce signs and symptoms at a site distant from the tumor or its metastatized sites, these remote effects of malignancy are collectively referred to as
Paraneoplastic syndromes
44
Which of the following are large granular lymphocytes cells that do not express antigen specific receptors ?
Natural killer cells
45
Which of the following membrane proteins function to present antigens peptides for recognition by t cells
Major histocompatibality complex molecules
46
What type of immunity used by the body adapts to recognize eliminate and establish long term memory against a threat
Acquired immunity
47
Which of the following is an example of active artificial acquired immunity
Vaccination
48
Which of the following cells live the longest
Monocytes
49
Which immuniglobulin is the predominant immuniglobulin on mucus membrane surfaces and is found in secretions such as saliva breast milk urine and tears
IgA
50
What type of major histocompatibility molecule combines fragments of proteins that have been phagocytized pinocytised or endocytosed from the extracellular environment
MHC Class II
51
Which of the following is not involved in the humeral immune response ?
Urine
52
Which of the following is TRUE for antibodies ?
The fragment antigen biding (Fab fragment ) is the portion of an antibody that binds to antigens
53
Which of the following is called CD8+T cells
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
54
Which phase of the immune response is characterized by the removal of antigens by many different mechanisms
Effector phase
55
After intense exercise of long duration the concentration of natural killer cells and natural cytolytic activity decline below preexercise values.Maximal reductions in natural killer cell concentrations and lower natural killer cells activity occur _____ hours after exercise
2-4 hrs
56
When HIV enters the body what cells serve as receptors for the HIV retrovirus allowing direct passage of the infection into other target cells
CD4 and macrophages
57
At what stage will an individual with HIV disease develop Kaposi sarcoma
Advanced HIV disease
58
Which of the following is true when describing the factors affecting the immunocompromised person?
Reusable equipment can be one of the common reservoirs
59
What type of hypersensitivity is characterized by a delayed response to the allergen
Type IV( cell mediated immunity) hypersensitivity
60
What type of immunology hypersensitivity would cause the symptoms of seasonal allergic rhinitis
Type I (Ig E mediated or immediate type) hypersensitivity
61
Which of the following is true for systemic lupus erythematosus(SLE)?
Mild symptoms can be mamanged with nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory drugs to relieve muscle and joint pain while reducing tissue inflammation
62
Which of the following is the avenue for HIV transmission ?
All of the above
63
CD4 + T cells produce different cytokines that modulate the immune system and help it mount effective responses against foreign invaders. Which of the following is NOT the primary functions of CD4+ T cells ?
Produce antibodies
64
What is the term for the period of time between when the pathogen enters the host and the appearance of clinical symptoms?
Incubation period
65
______ are primarily animal pathogens that generally produce disease in humans through the bite of an insect vector
Ricketssia
66
Which of the following is an example of an airborne disease
Measles
67
_ ____ are unusual self-replicating bacteria that have no cell wall components and very small genomes.
Mycoplasmas
68
What size of disease-causing organism would be most likely to be transmitted through the air
4 μm
69
Which of the following precautions do not require a patient to have a private room
Standard precautions
70
What vaccine is recommended for all adults with a booster every 10 years
Tetanus and diphtheria
71
What is the recommendation for work restrictions in an individual who has active measles
Exclude from duty
72
What is the duration of an uncomplicated case of influenza type A or B
3 to 7 days
73
Antibacterial drugs work by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT inhibition of
bacterial intracellular calcium release
74
Penicillin, cephalosporins, and several other commonly used antibacterial drugs exert their antibacterial effects by inhibiting the function of ______, which results in impaired production of _________ that are essential for normal membrane structure and function.
penicillin-binding proteins; peptidoglycans
75
Aminoglycosides, erythromycin, the tetracyclines, and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______, thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell
ribosome; messenger RNA translation
76
Certain antibacterial drugs such as trimethoprim and the sulfonamide drugs (e.g., sulfadiazine, sulfamethoxazole) selectively inhibit the synthesis and function of nucleic acids and certain essential amino acids by impairing the production of ______ in bacterial cells
folic acid
77
Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by
developing enzymes that destroy the drug modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell
78
Viral infections are often more difficult to treat than other types of infections because
viruses penetrate into human cells, and cannot be easily killed without harming the human cell
79
Certain anti-HIV drugs (e.g., zidovudine, didanosine, and zalcitabine) are known as reverse transcriptase inhibitors because they
inhibit transcription of viral RNA to viral DNA
80
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine, didanosine, and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
peripheral neuropathy myopathy joint pain
81
Interferons are small proteins that
exert nonspecific antiviral activity control cell differentiation limit excessive cell proliferation modify certain immune processes
82
Which of the following medications is an antibiotic
Ampicillin
83
What is the drug class of Doxycycline
Tetracycline antibiotics

Internal Medicine (6 decks)

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