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USCG > Ast2 E-5 Common Qualifications > Flashcards

Ast2 E-5 Common Qualifications Flashcards

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0
Q

What is the manual for preservation/depreservation?

A

NAVAIR 15-01-500

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1
Q

What is the number for the Aeronautical Engineering Maintenance Management Process Guide?

A

CGTO PG-85-00-110

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2
Q

What is the basic foundation of level one preservation?

A

To ensure all systems are kept free of water and fluids are topped off. Corrosion preventative on the bare surfaces. Water and foreign object intrusion areas are sealed with tape and barrier material and other protective covers

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3
Q

Level I preservation protect idle/inactive aircraft for a maximum of?

A

90 days

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4
Q

Level II preservation provides a minimum protection for idle/inactive aircraft and components stored for maximum of?

A

One year

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5
Q

Level II preservation consist of?

A

Level 1 plus the addition of longer-lasting protection to selected systems and components, a broader use of T&B(tape and barrier) material to the application of a top cover.

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6
Q

Level III preservation provides what?

A

Optimum protection

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7
Q

Level III protection requires what?

A

Modified level II procedures with the addition of dehumidification.

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8
Q

Level III preservation includes what?

A

A flexible bag, the drop shroud, and the rigid shelter.

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9
Q

What is the time limitation for level III preservation?

A

Depends on the barrier system renewal requirement.

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10
Q

State the items that should always be removed during the preservation.

A

Deteriorated lubricants, CPCs, barrier material, plastic coatings, and tapes.

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11
Q

State the three steps of depreservation.

A

Clean, inspect, and control corrosion.

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12
Q

What is the mandatory source of supply?

A

GSA(General services administration) supply service

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13
Q

To determine if an exception to the mandatory source is applicable refer to what?

A

Simplified acquisition procedures handbook, COMDTINST M4200. 13 (series)

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14
Q

Which publication lists aircraft parts by number?

A

Illustrated parts breakdown manual (IPB) 400 series

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15
Q

What form is used for requisitioning parts, tools, and other materials?

A

CG-4940 or units equivalent

16
Q

CG-4940 surf requisition form is a what?

A

A multipurpose form and must be used by unit personnel to advise the store keeper of the units material requirements.

17
Q

What is a CG-22 used for?

A

To recommend changes to correct errors which affect the meaning of instructional, informational, or procedural text/graphics contained in technical publications and aviation computerized maintenance system cards such as the mandatory special requirements or maintenance procedure cards

18
Q

Who signs the CG 22 first?

A

QA officer

19
Q

The CG-22 is forwarded to the units ____ for approval.

A

Engineering officer

20
Q

The ____ generates the control number for the CG-22.

A

ACMS program

21
Q

After the control number is entered on the CG 22, it is returned to QA for submission to?

A

Appropriate aircraft prime unit

22
Q

____ is used to correct errors which affect the meaning of instructive information or procedures and all Coast Guard aircraft flight manuals.

A

The recommendation for change of publication (AF Form 847)

23
Q

After the AF Form 847 is signed by the originator and the QA officer, it is then forwarded to____ for local approval.

A

Engineering officer

24
Q

After approved the AF Form 847 is returned to QA for submission to____ ____ ____ ____.

A

Aircraft prime unit, headquarters office of aeronautical engineering, office of aviation operations, and the appropriate aircraft standardization unit.

25
Q

What is the process guide for unsatisfactory reports (UR’s)?

A

CGTO PG-85-00-130

26
Q

The unsatisfactory report(UR)form is what?

A

CG-4010

27
Q

What is the tag color and number for an unsatisfactory report(UR)?

A

Red white and blue. CG-1577–A

28
Q

How are unsatisfactory reports numbered?

A

By calendar year

29
Q

Composite panels require what to support them?

A

Special carrying cradles that provide edge support as well as side protection.

USCG (56 decks)

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