Bacteria Flashcards
1
Q
Staphylococcus Aureus
- gram __
- Coagulase + or -?
- TSST-1 causes?
- Protein ___
- what superantigens does it release?
- superantigens bind?
A
- gram positive
- coagulase positive
- TSST-1 causes Toxic Shock Syndrome
- A
- enterotoxins, exfoliative toxin A, TSST-1.
- bind class II major histocompatibility complex molecule on macrophages. the macrophages then interact with T cell receptors and both the macrophage and the Tcells release cytokines
2
Q
- what is the only kind of staphylococcus that is coagulase +
- What is coagulase?
A
- staphylococcus aureus. ALL OTHERS ARE COAGULASE NEGATIVE
2. Coagulase is a protein enzyme produced by a microorganism that enables the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
3
Q
- The coagulase test is used to differentiate between?
A
- Staphylococcus aureus from coagulase-negative staphylococci.
4
Q
- S.aureus produces two forms of coagulase?
2. explain
A
- bound coagulase and free coagulase.
- coagulase is BOUND to s.a cell wall and DIRECTLY converts fibrinogen to INSOLUBLE FIBRIN. this causes the SA to clump together (coagulate)
Free Coagulase: same result, but it reacts with globulin plasma factor (COAGULASE-REACTING FACTOR) to form STAPHYLOTHROMBIN which is a thrombin like factor. this factor catalyzes the conversion of Fibrinogen to fibrin
5
Q
Staphylococcus Aureus contains ___ acid in its cell wall
A
ribotol phosphate teichoic acid
6
Q
Can staph aureus invade intact skin or intact mucous membranes?
A
NO. Infection usually begins with traumatic inoculation of the organism.
7
Q
Are S. Aureus pyogenin or non pyogenic
A
pyogenic
8
Q
S. Aureus cause skin lesions such as boils, carbuncles, impetigo, scaled skin syndrome and what other?
A
food poisoning, acute infective endocarditis, toxic shock syndrome (TSS), sepsis, abscess, osteomyelitis, pneumonia.
9
Q
Name 4 enzymes S. Aureus releases that hydrolyze the host tissue in order to spread bacteria.
A
hyaluronidase = hydrolyzes hyaluronic acids,
fibrinolysin aka staphylokinas - dissolve fibrin clots
lipases = hydrolyze lipids
nucelease = hydrolyze DNA
10
Q
Staph Aureus Protein A action
A
inhibits complement fixation by binding to the Fc portion of IgG
11
Q
Staph Aureus
coagulase action
A
clot blod
12
Q
Staph Aureus
nuclease action
A
hydrolyze dna
13
Q
Staph Aureus
lipase action
A
hydrolyze lipid
14
Q
staphylokinase (fibrinolysin) action (Staph Aureus)
A
dissolve blood clots
15
Q
Hyaluronidase (spreading factor)
Staph Aureus
A
breask down hyaluronic acid
16
Q
beta lactamase (penicillinase) (Staph Aureus)
A
inactivates penicillin
17
Q
(Staph Aureus)
8 enterotoxins cause?
A
food poisoning
18
Q
(Staph Aureus)
5 cytolytic toxins
A
toxic to erythrocytes, leukocytes, hepatocytes, platelets
19
Q
(Staph Aureus)
2 exfoliative toxins (A and B)
A
causes scaled skin syndrome
20
Q
(Staph Aureus)
TSST-1 causes
A
toxic shock syndrome
21
Q
what organism causes botulism and muscle and nerve paralysis
A
clostridium botulism
22
Q
what organism causes gas gangrene
A
clostridium perfringens: destroys cell membrane, breaks down fibrous tissue
23
Q
clostrium perfringens is a potent endo/exotoxin
A
EXOTOXIN
24
Q
which organism causes diphtheria
A
corynebacterium diptheriae (diphtheria toxin). inhibits protein synthesis
25
What does streptococcus pyogenes Exotoxin A cause
streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
26
two organisms that cause toxic shock syndrome?
streptococcal pyogenes
| staphylococcus aureus
27
which organism causes scarlet fever
streptococcal pyogenes
28
therefore streptococcal pyogenes
| causes what 2 diseases
scarlet fever
| streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
29
predominant bacteria on skin (2)
staphylococcus and corynebacteria
30
predominant bacteria in conjunctiva (eye lids and sclera)
gram positive cocci and gram negative rods
31
predominant bacteria in teeth
streptococci and lactobacilli
32
predominant bacteria in mucous membranes
streptococci and lactic acid bacteria
33
predominant bacteria in nares (nasal membranes)
staph and corynebacteria (same as on skin)
34
predominant bacteria in Pharynx (throat)
Strep, Neisseria, gram negative rods and cocci
35
predominant bacteria in in lower respiratory tract
none
36
predominant bacteria in stomach
helicobacter pylori (50% of bacteria)
37
predominant bacteria in small intestine
lactics, enterics, enterococci, bifidobacteria
38
predominant bacteria in colon
Bacteriodes, lactics, enterics, enterococci, clostridia
39
predominant bacteria in urogenital tract: anterior urethra
sparse: staph, corynebacteria, enterics
40
predominant bacteria in urogenital tract: vagina
lactic acid bacteria during child bearing years, otherwise mixed
41
Streptococcus =
1. gram _
2. most are aerobes/anaerobes/facultative anaerobes
3. coagulase +/-
4. clusters/pairs/chains?
1. positive
2. facultative anaerobes
3. negative
4. pairs and chains = streptococcus
(grape clusters = staph)
42
Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are coagulase negative exception is?
Staphylococcus Aureus is positive
43
Lancefield grouping (A-W) are based on the antigenic characteristic of a cell wall ____ called the ___
carbohydrate = C substance
44
the major pathogenic lancefield grouping for humans are
A-D and G
45
Lancefield grouping is a method of grouping ___bacteria based on the carbohydrate composition of bacterial antigens found on their cell walls
beta hemolytic
46
Lancefield grouping: Group A strains are pathogenic for humans. More than 90% of strep diseases in humans is caused by ______
Group A beta hemolytic strep pyogenes
47
Group A strains are further subdivided by Arabic numerals into specific antigenic types based on the cell wall ___ protein
M
48
The M protein is associated with the __ of the bacteria
virulence
49
Lipoteichoic acid and F protein are important components in the wall of which bacteria
Strep pyogenes
50
Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin A (SpeA) is a __ produced by strep pyogenes and is associated with ___ characterized by rash, hypotension, multiorgan failure and HIGH MORTALITY RATE.
superantigen, severe infections
51
Oral Streptococci are usually ___ hemolytic
alpha
52
name the oral streptococci
S. viridans, S. mutans, S. sanguis, S. salivarius - all alpha hemolytic
53
1. ___ are the most common organisms causing SUBACUTE ENDOCARDITIS
2. __ causes acute endocarditis
1. oral streptococci: S. viridans, S. mutans, S. sanguis, S. salivarius - all alpha hemolytic
2. staph aureus
54
when bacteria are placed in a fresh nutrient rich medium they exhibit what 4 characteristic phases of growth that is shown on a bacterial growth curve?
```
A = LAG phase
B = Log (logarithmic or exponential phase)
C = Max stationary phase
D = decline (death) death
```
55
Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram + or gram - bacteria
Gram (-) bacteria only. Think eNdotoxin = Negative
| endotoxin is associated with lipopolysaccharide (LPS).
56
1. toxicity of endotoxins LPS lipopolysaccharide (gram -) are associated with the ___ component.
2. the immunogenicity of endotoxins are associated with
1. lipid component
| 2. polysaccharides
57
the cell wall __ antigens of gram negative bacteria are components of LPS.
O
58
LPS activates __
complement pathway
59
Exotoxin is in gram + or negative
both
60
Exotoxin vs Endotoxin
1. This is found in both gram + and -
2. This is found only in gram -
3. This is made of LPS
4. Exotoxin is made of
5. One of them cannot be denatured by boiling while the other usually can.
6. Which one is more potent?
7. which is more specific
8. which one is released by an organism
9. which has no enzymatic activity
10. which one is pyrogenetic
1. Exotoxin
2. eNdotoxin
3. Endotoxin, LPS/gram -
4. proteins
5. Exotoxin can be denatured. ENDOTOXIN cannot
6. Endotoxin more potent = very high
vs exotoxin = relatively high
7. exotoxin has high degree of specificity, endotoxin has low degree of exotoxin
8. exotoxins are released ENDOTOXINS are part of the cell membrane and not released
9. endotoxin does
10. endotoxin
61
1. endotoxins (LPS) are/are NOT SECRETED by bacterial cells
not
62
For the endotoxin to be released into the bloodstream what must occur
the bacterial cell MUST DIE and the outer membrane be broken down. host response to the endotoxin = chills, fever, weakness, aches, sever cases: shock or death
63
Endotoxins are highly potent __- released from the cell walls of gram negative bacteria
lipopolysaccharides
64
__ endotoxin is present in dental plaque and inflamed gingiva.
free
65
the most likely SOURCE of bacteria found in diseased periodontal tissues is ___
subgingival plaque
66
___ is the protease that degrades collagen
collagenase
67
in patients with periodontal disease, the collagen which forms the periodontium is broken down by
collagenase
68
which bacteria have collagenase
| BOARDS
porphyromonas, clostridium, bacteriodes, actinobacillusactinomycetemcomitans (Aa)
69
endotoxin is composed of lipid __ = portion responsible for __activity.
and a core ___, and an __ side chain
lipid A = toxic
polysachharide
O antigenic side chain.
70
1. endotoxin can activate the complement system via the __ pathway
2. __ can be activated by the endotoxin in the absence of preceding activation of C1, 4, and 2.
3. As a result, various complement components ___ are consumed and then their activity disappears or is reduced from serum
1. alternative.
2. C3
3. C3, 5-9
71
nosocomial infection is?
hospital acquired
72
what bacteria is a major cause for nosocomial infections
staphylococcus aureus
73
S. aureus causes food poisoning by releasing ___ into food
enterotoxins
74
S. aureus causes Toxic Shock Syndrome by releasing ___ into blood stream
superantigens
75
1. the surface of S. aureus is coated with protein __
| 2. do the surface of other staphylococcus have protein A?
1. A = because it is coagulase positive
| 2. no the coagulase negative Staph do not have protein A
76
Protein A has an affinity for
binding to the Fc receptor if IgG and inhibiting complement fixation
77
The genus Neisseria contains two important human pathogens name them
N. Gohnorrhoeae and N. meningitides.
78
Nisseria Gonorrhoeae causes
gonorrhea
79
N. meningitis causes
meningococcal meningitis
80
Which Nisseria pathogen has a high mortality and low prevalence
Nisseria meningitis
81
Which Nisseria pathogen has a low mortality and high prevalence
Nisseria gonorrheoeae
82
1. Salmonella is a gram __, __ shaped bacterium
2. it is in the same proteobacterial family as ___
3. Escherichia Coli and Salmonela are trivially known as __ bacteria
1. negative facultative rod shaped
2. Escherichia Coli
3. enteric
83
1. In humans, Salmonella is the cause of what 2 diseases
salmonellosis and acute gastroenteritis
84
salmonellosis is
enteric fever (typhoid) resulting from bacterial invasion of the bloodstream.
85
acute gastroenteritis results from
foodborne infection/intoxication.
86
the most numerous group of organisms in the oral cavity
streptococcus
87
streptococcus can grow and cause caries. the main one is
s. mutans
88
how do strep use air
aerobic
| and facultatively anaerobic gram + bacteria
89
which bacteria causes pneumonia
streptococci pneumoniae
90
which bacteria causes rheumatic fever
streptococci pyogenes
91
which bacteria causes heart valve infections
streptococci viridans
92
Name 3 bacteria used clinically to remove blood clots
1. Staphylokinase (produced by S. Aureus)
2. Streptokinase (produced by hemolytic streptococci)
3. Urokinase
they all cleave plasminogen = producing plasmin which causes liquefaction of fibrin
93
Each of the following bacteria produce hyaluronidase Except which one:
1. staphylococcus aureus
2. streptococcus pyogenes
3. bordetella pertussis
4. clostridium perfringes
bordetella pertussis
94
Name the 3 bacteria that make hyaluronidase
| what does the hyaluronidase do?
Strep, staph, clostridia =
| degrades hyaluronic acid of CT
95
Name the bacteria that makes collagenase
| 2. what does collagenase do?
Clostridium species =
| dissolves collagen of muscles
96
1. Name the bacteria that makes neuraminidase
| 2. what does neuraminidase do?
Vibrio cholera and Shigella dysenteriae
| degrades neuraminic acid of intestinal mucosa
97
Name the bacteria that makes coagulase
staph aureus
| converts fibrinogen to fibrin = causes clotting
98
Name the bacteria that makes kinases
staphylococci and stretptococci
| converts plasminogen to plasmin which digests fibrin
99
Name the bacteria that makes Leukocidin
Staph aureus
| disrupts neutrophil membranes and causes discharge of lysosomal granules
100
1. Name the bacteria that makes streptolysin
| 2. what does it do?
streptococcus pyogenes
| lyse erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets
101
1. Name the bacteria that makes hemolysins
| 2. what does it do?
strep, staph and clostridia (same ones that make hyaluronidase)
phospholipases or lecithinases that destroy red blood cells and other cells by lysis
102
1. Name the bacteria that makes Lecithinases
| 2. what does it do?
1. clostridium perfringes
| destroy lecithin in membranes
103
1. Name the bacteria that makes phospholipases
| 2. what does it do?
1. clostridium perfringes
| destroy phospholipids of membranes
104
1. Name the bacteria that makes anthrax EF
| 2. what does it do?
bacillus anthracis
| one component is adenylate cyclase which causes increased levels of intracellular cyclic AMP
105
1. Name the bacteria that makes pertussis AC
| 2. what does it do?
Bordetella pertussis
adenylate cyclase that acts locally producing increase in
intracellular cyclic AMP
106
Mycobacterium and Nocardia are classified as
a. coagulase positive
b. collagenase positive
c. acid-fast bacteria
d. phospholipase-positive bacteria
c. Acid fast bacteria
107
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not classified as either gram neg or gram pos because?
2. the similarity among them is?
1. they do not have the same chemical characteristics of either
2. they contain peptidoglycan (murein) in their cell wall
108
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a large
a. motile/non-motile
b. __shaped
c. __ fast
d. __ producing bacteria
1. NON MOTILE
2. ROD SHAPE
3. ACID FAST
4. NIACIN
109
Does mycobacterium produce endo or exotoxins?
NEITHER.
110
How does Mycobacterium tuberculosis use oxygen?
OBLIGATE AEROBE. this is why they are found in aerated upper lobes of lungs
111
many non pathogenic Mycobacterium are found in normal human flora.
true or false
true
112
____ is a facultative intracellular parasite usually of MACROPHAGES and has a SLOW GENERATION TIME (15-20HRS).
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
113
how can you diagnose ACTIVE TUBERCULOSIS histologically
acid-fast stain.
114
explain the acid fast stain
smear on the slide is flooded with
carbol-fuchsin stain,
decolorized with acid alcohol
counterstained with methylene blue
115
Acid fast organisms will resist decolorization and appear ___ color against a blue background when viewed under microscope
RED
116
what in the cell wall of organisms stain red in acid fast stain
due to presence of lipids and waxes (MYCOLIC ACIDS) in the cell wall of these bacteria.
117
another test for tuberculosis is
skin test PPD.
118
the ppd skin test for tuberculosis is limited compared to the acid fast stain because
it can indicated an infection but not if it is active or not.
119
how is the skin test for TB done
a purified protein derivative (PPD) extract of mycobacterium tuberculosis is injected subcutaneously and the are is observed for evidence of a DELAYED HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION. a + indicated a hypersensitivity to tuberculosis proteins
120
name the other common acid fast bacteria
MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS
MYCOBACTERIUM LEPRAE
MYCOBACTERIUM AVIUM COMPLEX (MAC) which consists of 2 species: M.AVIUM and M. INTRACELLULARE
121
in addition to peptidoglycan, the acid fast cell wall of Mycobacterium contains a large amount of glycolipids, especially ___ that makes up approximately 60% of the acid-fast cell wall
mycolic acid = waxlike coat of a branched and b branched hydroxyl fatty acids.
122
the coat of mycobacterium is a virulence factor bc it is
antiphagocytic.
```
contains wax D (mycolic acids and sugars)
mycolic acid (large a and b branched hydroxyl fatty acids)
peptidoglycan
cord factor (glycolipid of trehalose and mycolic acid)
```
123
ACID FAST CELL WALL COMPONENTS FUNCTIONS:
1. peptidoglycan prevents?
2. mycolic acids and other glycolipids ___
3. surface proteins
4. periplasm?
1. osmotic lysis
2. impede entry of chemicals = causes them to grow more slowly and be more resistant to chemical agents and phagocytes than most other bacteria.
3. function as enzymes, serve as adhesins -to adhere to host cell/colonize
4. contains enzymes for nutrient breakdown and binding proteins to transfer nutrients across membrane.
124
When will most cidal antibiotics work and staining work best in the bacterial growth curve:
a. lag phase
b. log phase
c. maximum stationary phase
d. decline phase
log phase.
Lag phase: no dividing, cells are metabolically active and getting ready for next phase
Log phase = growing and dividing phase
maximum stationary phase: rate of cells dying is equal to rate of production = total # viable cells are constant
decline (death stage) = # cells dying > production
125
Isoniazid
inhibits mycolic acid biosynthesis and is an efficient antimycobacterial agent
126
The primary lung lesion of pulmonary TB is small rounded nodule produced by infectious M. tuberculosis, called a
tubercle or Ghon focus
127
____ is the result of ghon focus that has healed, fibrosed, and is sometimes calcified
Ranke complex
128
a major factor in the cariogenicity of S. mutans is the ability to adhere to the tooth surface. this attachment is achieved largely in part due to the presence of extracellular glycocalyx, or
a. plasma membrane
b. capsule
c. pellicle
d. reticulum
b. capsule
Functions:
protects against phagocytosis
mediates adherence
identification purposes.
129
Name 4 bacteria that have capsules
streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenza
Klebsiella pneumonia
Cryptococcus neoformans
130
70% of the plasma membrane is made of
proteins embedded in it
131
is the cell wall on the outside or inside of plasma membrane
outside
132
role of cell wall
rigidity, strength, protection. osmtic protection, plays a role in cell division and primer for its own biosynthesis
133
which of the following are associated with a gram negative cell wall.
a. thick murein layer
b. thin murein layer
c. mycolic acids
d. teichoic acids
e. lipopolysachharide
b. thin murein layer
| e. lipopolysaccharide
134
1. Gram __ cell wall is thick
| 2. Gram __ cell wall is thin
1. + thick
| 2. (-) thin
135
1. Gram __ cell wall has a thick murein layer that makes up __ % of its cell wall
Gram + has a thick cell wall and a thick murein layer that takes up 90% of the cell wall.
136
1. Gram __ cell wall has a THIN murein layer that makes up __ % of its cell wall
Gram - has a THIN cell wall and a THIN murein layer that takes up 10% of the cell wall.
137
Gram __ cell wall has teichoic acids, polysaccharides that serve as attachment sites for bacteriophages
+ = teichoic acid
138
murein is a
unique type of peptidoglycan: sugars (glycan) cross linked by short chains of amino acids (proteins)
139
Gram negative bacteria has proteins, lipolysacharide layers and phospholipids that make up the ____ of the cell wall
cell envelope
140
all bacterial peptidoglycans contain __ acid which is the definite component in murein
N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)
141
How to distinguish archaebacteria from other bacteria: the cell walls of archae may composed of protein, polysaccharides or peptidoglycan like molecules but will never contain __.
murein.
142
most species of lactic acid bacteria ferment glucose into
lactate
ie lactobacillus
143
T/F lactobacillus species are frequently found in association with dental caries
true
144
the most common application of lactobacillus is in
industrial to make dairy products
145
lactobacillus also is part of normal flora found in the
vagina
146
bc of lactobacillus ability to derive lactic acid from glucose these bacteria species create an acidic environment which inhibits growth of many other bacteria which can lead to __
urogenital infections
147
Although lactobacillus species are normally present in __ numbers in the oral cavity, they are frequently found in association with __ most probably as
low, caries
especially Lactobacillus casei
secondary invaders
148
lactic acid bacteria include?
lactobacillus and streptococcus
149
lactic acid bacteria use the lactic acid fermentation pathway in which __ is reduced to __
pyruvate
| lactic acid
150
1. lactobacillus and streptococcus are referred to as __ meaning they can tolerate an acid environment.
2. they are also _ which means they are acid forming
1. aciduric
| 2. acidogenic
151
1. Is lactobacillus generally harmful or harmless to humans
2. they are resistant to which antibiotic
3. we treat them with high doses of __ in combo with _
1. harmless, rarely inciting harmful infections/diseases
2. vancomycin
3. penicillin
152
the main culprit in dental caries =
streptococcus mutans
153
__ have been found to be a causative agent of root surface caries
actinomyces
154
the 2 organisms most commonly associated with LOCALIZED AGGRESSIVE PERIODONTITIS
a. capnocytophaga ochraceus
b. wolinella rects
c. porphyromonas gingivalis
d. actinomyces Israeli
e. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)
a. capnocytophaga ochraceus
| e. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)
155
1. aggressive periodontitis aka juvenile periodontitis occurs in what two forms
1. generalized (rapidly progressive periodontitis)
| and localized form
156
in ___ form of aggressive periodontitis, prevotella intermedia and eikenella corrodens predominate
generalized
| to remember: think g looks like p backwards, and GEneralized
157
generalized form of aggressive periodontitis occurs between what ages? characterized by
12-25, rapid, sever periodontal destruction around most teeth. episodic, rapid, and sever attachment loss
158
localized form of aggressive periodontitis main bacteria?
capnocytophaga ochraceus
actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)
(to remember think loC-Alized)
prevotella intermedia and eikenella corrodens are present at lesser extent
159
localized form of aggressive periodontitis occurs between what ages? characterized by
12-19, rapid and sever attachment loss confined to the INCISORS AND 1ST MOLARS
also relatively plaque is absent to explain the severe attachment loss. Could be a GENETIC disposition or dysfunction of NEUTROPHILS
160
Name 2 disease that the following 2 bacteria are part of:
capnocytophaga ochraceus
actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)
localized aggressive periodontitis and periodontitis in juvenile diabetes
161
streptococcus mutans grows OPTIMALLY at a pH well below 7.0. From this statement, it can be reasoned that strep mutans is
a. acidophilic
b. acidogenic
c. aciduric
d. alkaliphilic
e. neutrophilic
acidophilic
optimum ph is the ph it grows best in.
162
1. bacteria that grow best at pH 7.0 are called__
2. those which grow best below neutral are called
3. those that grow best under alkaline conditions are called
4. most bacteria are which one
1. neutrophils
2. acidophiles
3. alkaliphiles
4. neutrophils
163
nitrobacter and streptococcus pneumoniea are?
1. neutrophils
2. acidophiles
3. alkaliphiles
alkaliphiles
164
```
pseudomonas aeruginosa
clostridium sporogenes
proteus species are
1. neutrophils
2. acidophiles
3. alkaliphiles
```
neutrophils
165
thiobacillus thiooxidans, sulfolobus acidocaldarius, bacillus acidocaldarius are
1. neutrophils
2. acidophiles
3. alkaliphiles
acidophiles
166
which one is an obligate acidophile:
| thiobacillus thiooxidans, sulfolobus acidocaldarius, bacillus acidocaldarius
thiobacillus thiooxidans
| require low pH for growth since their membrane dissolve and the cells lyse at neutral
167
__ means bacteria is capable of or can TOLERATE living under acidic conditions
aciduric
168
__ means bacteria can produce high concentrations of acid
| 2 examples
acidogenic
| s.mutans and lactobacillus
169
__ are the primary acidogenic microorganism in the oral cavity
streptococci
170
___ is the MAIN CAUSE of enamel decalcification
lactic acid
171
E. Coli is the bacterial family Enterobacteriaceae. all of the following are characteristics of the family except one:
a. capnophilic
b. facultative anaerobes
c. gram negative
d. rod shaped
e. flagellated
a. capnophilic
172
___ is an inflammatory disorder of the intestine, especially of the colon, that results in severe diarrhea containing blood and mucus in the feces with fever
Dysentery
173
name 3 enteric bacteria
Shigella
Salmonella
Escherichi coli (E.coli)
174
enteric bacteria means
they live in the intestinal tract
175
Which enteric bacteria causes typhoid fever
Salmonella
176
which enteric bacteria causes dysentery
Shigella
177
E. Coli is not usually considered a pathogen
| true or false
true
178
E.Coli is responsible for what 3 infections
urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, intestinal diseases
179
capnophilic bacteria require _for growth
CO2
180
the capsule of strep mutans is an important virulence factor that (BOARDS)
a. prevents phagocytic digestion
b. enhances oral accumulation
c. has proteolytic activity
d. causes circulatory collapse
b. enhances oral accumulation
181
an enterotoxin formed by staph aureus causes (BOARDS)
a. food poisoning
b. rash on skin
c. neuromuscular paralysis
d. spasms of voluntary muscles
a. food poisoning
182
The basic chemical structure of endotoxins includes which of the following: (BOARDS)
a. capsular polysaccharide
b. acid stable peptidoglycan
c. H and L chain glycoproteins
d. lipoteichoic acid, polysaccharide, protein
e. somatic O polysacharride, core polysaccharide, lipid A
e. e. somatic O polysacharride, core polysaccharide, lipid A
183
Which of the following causes whooping cough: BOARDS
a. haemophilus influenze
b. strep pneumonia
c. bordetella pertussis
d. brucella melitensis
e. klebsiella pneumoniae
c. bordetella pertussis
184
BOARDS
| Dimorphism in microorganisms is characterized by the capability to produce
both yeast phase and a mycelial phase
185
BOARDS
| During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, leukotrienes and prostaglandin D2 are generated from
arachidonic acid
186
BOARDS
Neisseria gonorrheae has affinity for which of the following structures:
```
skin
nerve cells
plasma cells
muscle fibers
mucous membrane
```
mucous membrane (VAGINA)
187
BOARDS
Obesity, striae, moon face, buffalo hump and osteoporosis are manifestations of what disease?
What is the cause of the disease
Cushing's Syndrome (think cushion = cushing, buffalo hump, obese, upper body obesity, abnormal fat deposition)
high levels of cortisol.
188
BOARDS
| which genera of fungi is MOST frequently recovered from HEALTHY mucous membranes?
candida
189
BOARDS
in which of the following organs/tissues are ascending infections common:
a. bone
b. heart
c. kidney
d. peritoneum
e. subcutaneous CT
c. kidney
190
BOARDS
Candidiasis in the adult oral cavity may signify a change in the balance of oral microbiota. this particular change is often seen in persons who are taking which of the following drugs:
a. antiviral
b. antifungal
c. antibacterial
c. antibacterial (think antibiotics, which are for BACTERIAL INFECTIONS)
191
BOARDS
| In addition to Kaposi's sarcoma, which other malignant neoplasm is often observed with AIDS?
Non-Hodkin's lymphoma
192
1. A ___ is a cancer (malignant tumor) that arises from transformed cells of MESENCHYMAL origin.
1. sarcoma
Thus, malignant tumors made of cancerous bone, cartilage, fat, muscle, vascular, or hematopoietic tissues are, by definition, considered sarcomas
193
2. A malignant tumor originating from EPITHELIAL cells, which are termed _____. .
carcinoma
194
which are more common carcinoma or sarcoma
carcinoma >>>>>> sarcoma
195
Common malignancies, such as breast, colon, and lung cancer, are almost always carcinoma/sarcoma?
carcinoma
196
is a BENIGN tumor of epithelial tissue with glandular origin, glandular characteristics, or both is called
ADENOMA
Adenomas can grow from many glandular organs, including the adrenal glands, pituitary gland, thyroid, prostate, and others
197
Mesenchyme is a type of tissue characterized by loosely associated cells that lack polarity and are surrounded by a large extracellular matrix. Mesenchymal cells are able to develop into the tissues of the ___
lymphatic
circulatory systems,
connective tissues: bone and cartilage
= sarcoma.
198
1. if lung/breast/colon cancer =
2. If prostate/pituitary/thyroid/pancreas cancer =
3. if blood/bone/cartilage cancer
1. carcinoma (epithelial)
2. adenocarcinoma
3. sarcoma (mesenchyme origin)
199
A ____ is a benign, focal malformation that resembles a neoplasm in the tissue of its origin. This is NOT a malignant tumor, and it grows at the same rate as the surrounding tissues. It is composed of tissue elements normally found at that site, but which are growing in a disorganized mass. They occur in many different parts of the body and are most often asymptomatic and undetected unless seen on an image taken for another reason.
hamartoma
(BOARDS)
Put simply, a hamartoma is an excess of normal tissue in a normal situation (e.g. a birthmark on the skin), and a choristoma is an excess of tissue in an abnormal situation (e.g. pancreatic tissue in the duodenum).
200
1. ____,= These tumors also contain normal tissues but are found in abnormal locations
2. a ___is an excess of normal tissue in a normal situation
1. Choristomas
2. hamartoma
BOARDS
201
1. what is suppuration?
2. certain enzymes are responsible for suppuration. These enzymes derive chiefly from?
BOARDS
1. = Pus = an exudate, typically white-yellow, yellow, or yellow-brown, formed at the site of inflammation during infection
2. neutrophils
202
BOARDS:
The classic microscopic lesion for __ is Pannus?
rheumatoid arthritis
203
BOARDS
The classic microscopic lesion for __ is Tophus?
A tophus (Latin: "stone", plural tophi) is a deposit of monosodium urate crystals in people with longstanding high levels of URIC ACID in the blood.
204
BOARDS:
| The classic microscopic lesion for __ is Aschoff Bodies?
rheumatic fever.
Aschoff bodies are nodules found in the hearts of individuals with rheumatic fever. They result from inflammation in the heart muscle and are characteristic of rheumatic heart disease
205
BOards:
wire-loop lesion can be found in people with?
Lupus nephritis
206
A women shows radiographic evidence of osteolytic lesion of humerus. her serum calcium is elevated. the bone lesion show numerous giant cells. which is the most probable cause? (BOARDS)
HYperparathyroidism
207
```
Rheumatic fever can be a sequelae to which of the following streptococcal infections:
A. pyoderma
B. Diptheria
C. Scarlet Fever
D. Dental caries
E> Stretococcal gangrene
```
C. Scarlet Fever
208
Pyoderma means any __ disease that is __
skin disease that is pyogenic
209
1. Diphtheria = is an ____ (where) illness caused by ____, a facultative anaerobic, Gram-___ bacterium.
1. upper respiratory tract
2. Corynebacterium diphtheria
3. positive
210
___ is characterized by sore throat, low fever, and an adherent membrane (a pseudomembrane) on the tonsils, pharynx, and/or nasal cavity
Diphtheria
211
```
BOARDS:
which of the following represents the epithelial change most predictive of cancer
a. dysplasia
b. metaplasia
c. acanthosis
d. parakeratosis
e. hyperkeratosis
```
a. dysplasia
212
•
1. __: an initial change from normal cells to a different cell type (such as chronic irritation of cigarette smoke causing ciliated pseudostratified epithelium to be replaced by squamous epithelium more able to withstand the insult).
2. ___: an increasing degree of disordered growth or maturation of the tissue (often thought to precede neoplasia) such as cervical dysplasia as a result of human papillomavirus infection.
3. Dysplasia is still a reversible process. However, once the transformation to ___ has been made, the process is not reversible.
1. Metaplasia
2. Dysplasia
3. neoplasia
213
which comes first neoplasia/dysplasia/metaplasia?
| which one is reversible
metaplasia to dysplasia to neoplasia.
| neoplasia is not reversible
214
Patients with which of the following malignancies have the poorest prognosis:
a. lung cancer
b. malignant melanoma
c. pancreatic carcinoma
d. carcinoma of the colon
e. squamous carcinoma of the tongue
BOARDS
c. pancreatic carcinoma
215
asymptomatic carriers are a major hazard of which of the following:
a. plaque
b. shigellosis
c. salmonellosis
d. typhoid fever
e. legionnaires disease
d. typhoid fever
(REMEMBER TYPHOID MARY)
BOARDS
216
BOARDS:
| acid phosphatas is elevated in which malignancy
metastatic carcinoma of the prostate
217
The most numerous group in oral cavity is ___
Beta hemolytic streptococci (BOARDS)
218
Name the 2 bacteria that cause meningitis
Strep pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis
219
most bacterial endotoxins are composed of (BOARDS)
Lipoprotein polysaccharide complexes
220
BOARDS: A 17 year old patient has periodontitis involving the anterior teeth with sparse plaque. what is the primary pathogen
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
| LOCALIZED Aggressive periodontitis
221
BOARDS: IN myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies are directed against which structure
acetylcholine receptors
222
BOARDS: most antibiotic resistance in bacteria is caused by
genes that are carried on plasmids
223
BOARDS: Gout results in a metabolic defect in
purine
224
Name the second invader of carious lesions in the oral cavity (BOARDS)
lactobacillus casei
225
Which component of Staphylococcus is antiphagocytic, elicits hypersensitivity, and causes platelet injury
PROTEIN A
226
BOARDS
| A collagenase producing microorganism which has been associated with periodontal disease:
bacteriodes melaninogenicus
227
BOARDS: The components in the cell wall of mycobacteriaceae responsible for acid fastness
lipids and waxes
228
BOARDS: Massive accumulation of glycogen in the liver and the kidney is characteristic of
von Gierke's disease
229
Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the __
2. People with Marfan tend to be unusually __, with ___ limbs and long, thin fingers.
3. Marfan syndrome is an autosomal ___ disorder
1. misfolding of the protein fibrillin-1.
2. tall, long,
3. dominant
230
Streptococcus pyogenes:
a. is it mobile
b. group _ streptococcus
c. gram __
d. catalase positive/negative
e. chains/pairs/clusters
f. alpha or beta hemolytic?
a. non motile
b. group A streptococcus
c. positive
d. catalase negative
e. chains/pairs = all kinds of strep
f. Beta
231
How do most streptococcus and E.Coli use oxygen?
facultative ANAEROBES.
| some strep are capnophilic
232
1. A ___ is an organism that makes ATP by aerobic respiration if oxygen is present, but is capable of switching to fermentation or anaerobic respiration if oxygen is absent.
1. facultative anaerobe
233
An ___, by contrast, cannot make ATP in the absence of oxygen,
obligate aerobe
234
1. Staphylococcus are catalase __
| 2. Streptococcus are catalase __
1. Staph = catalase +
| 2. Strep = catalase -
235
Streptococcus ___ (Group __ streptococcus) is one of the most frequent pathogens of humans.
pyogenes, A
236
The most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis (strep throat) is ___
Strep pyogenes
237
Strep pyogenes __ protein causes Pharyngitis (Strep throat)
M protein
238
Strep pyogenes exotoxins (Spe) cause what 3 diseases
necrotizing fasciitis, scarlet fever (rash), Toxic shock syndrome
239
1. Enterococci cause what disease?
2. they are __ hemolytic
3. do they have virulent factors?
1. urinary tract infections
2. gamma
3. no
240
1. streptococcus bovis cause what disease?
2. they are __ hemolytic
3. do they have virulent factors?
1. infective endocarditis
2. gamma
3. no
241
1. streptococcus agalactiae cause what disease?
2. they are __ hemolytic
3. do they have virulent factors?
```
1. neonatal meningitis
neonatal sepsis
neonatal pneumonia
2. Beta
3. polysaccharide capsule
```
242
1. streptococcus viridans cause what disease?
2. they are __ hemolytic
3. do they have virulent factors?
1. endocarditis and caries
2. alpha
3. none
243
1. streptococcus pneumoniae cause what disease?
2. they are __ hemolytic
3. do they have virulent factors?
1. pneumonia, meningitis, otitis media
2. alpha
3. polysacc capsule, pneumolysin, IgA protease
244
1. streptococcus pyogenes cause what disease?
2. they are __ hemolytic
3. do they have virulent factors?
1. Pharyngitis (strep throat)
| necrotizing fasciitis, scarlet fever, toxic shock syndrome, cellulitis, acute rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis
245
post strep pyogenes sequelae (2)
acute rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis
246
Explain phagocytosis steps
1. chemotaxis, phagocyte adheres to microbe
2. phagocyte ingests the microbe
3. formation of phagosome ( = vesicle formed around a particle absorbed by phagocytosis = phagocytic vesicle)
4. phagasome fuses with lysosome = forms phagolysosome
5. digestion of microbe by enzymes
6. formation of RESIDUAL BODY CONTAINING UNDIGESTED MATERIAL
7. discharge of waste material
247
Reticuloendothelial cells are ____.
| Fixed phagocytes do not circulate. they are fixed macrophages and cells of the reticuloendothelial system
phagocytic
248
Free phagocytes circulate in the bloodstream and include __ and the free macrophages
leukocytes (WBC)
249
Five different and diverse types of leukocytes exist, and several types (including __ and __ ) are phagocytic.
monocytes and neutrophils
250
All leukocytes are produced and derived from a ___cell in the __known as a hematopoietic stem cell.
multipotent,
| bone marrow
251
which of the following is the process in which DNA is transferred from a bacterial donor cell to a recipient cell by cell to cell contact:
translation
transduction
transcription
conjugation
conjugation: .
252
1. Conjugation is a form of sexual reproduction in which ___ is transferred from one live bacterium to another through ___
2. contact is established through
1. DNA
DIRECT CONTACT
2. pili
253
bacteria's ability to transfer DNA by CONJUGATION is dependent on the presence of a cytoplasmic entity termed the __
fertility factor (F)
254
1. Cells carrying the fertility factor (F) are called
| 2. cells that don't are called
1. F+
| 2. F-
255
Fertility factor is a?
F is a small CIRCULAR DNA element that acts like a mini chromosome. it is a PLASMID, which are self-replicating extrachromosomal DNA molecules
256
Which process transfers the GREATEST amount of genetic information:
transduction/transformation/conjugation
conjugation
257
Which occurs more frequently conjugation or transformation?
conjugation
258
conjugation takes place within members of the ___ genera
DIFFERENT
259
Conjugation can result in the passage of genes for __ from one bacterium to another = increases pathogenicity
antibiotic resistance
260
F factors are plasmids transferred from a donor cell, __ to a recipient cell, __ during ___
F+ to F-
| conjugation
261
An _____is a cell with an F plasmid incorporated into the chromosome
Hfr (high freq of recombination)
262
during conjugation portions of Hfr chromosome are transferred from the ___ to __
Hfr bacterium to the F- bacterium
263
Transfer of DNA WITHIN bacterial cell occurs via ____ which are portions of DNA that move from one site on the chromosome to another or to a plamid
transposons
264
transcription occurs in the:
a. cytoplasm of prokaryotes, and nucleus of eukaryotes
b. cytoplasm of euk and nucleus of prok
c. nucleus of both prok and euk
d. cytoplasm of both prok and euk
a.
265
transcription is the transfer of the genetic info from the DNA to the
short lived messenger RNA
266
The enzymes___ needed for transcription
DNA gyrase and RNA polymerase.
DNA gyrase unzips DNA
RNA polymerase binds to one strand of DNA and makes mRNA with base seq complementary to the DNA template that is downstream to the polymerase binding site.
267
the mRNA molecule is used for
translation
268
___ is the transfer of DNA via a PHAGE particle. It does NOT REQUIRE cell-to cell contact
transduction
269
___ is the formation of DNA from an RNA template
reverse transcription
270
____ use reverse transcription
| give two examples of them
retroviruses
| HIV and tumor viruses
271
Retroviruses:
1. enveloped/non enveloped
2. linear/circular RNA/DNA genome
3. double stranded or single stranded
4. positive sense or negative sense
enveloped
| linear single stranded + sense RNA genome
272
enzyme used in retrovirus to make DNA from RNA?
reverse transcriptase
273
The attachment of microbes and other foreign cells to phagocytes by antibody molecules such as IgG and complement proteins such as C3b is called
opsonization aka enhanced attachment
274
opsonization/enhanced attachment: refers to the antibody molecules: __ or __ and the complement proteins __ and __ attaching antigens to phagocytes. the result is more efficient phagocytosis.
IgG or IgM
| C3b and C4b
275
Prokaryotes have ___ DNA (circular/linear), eukaryotes have__
```
prok = circular
euk = linear
```
276
bacteria replicate via
binary fission = one parent divides into 2 progeny cells. Bacterial growth is exponential
277
viruses replicate via
within host
278
fungi: yeast replicate by__
| mold replicate by ___
```
yeast = budding
mold = mitosis
```
279
eukaryotes replicate by ___
mitosis
280
parasites replicate by
mitosis
281
infectious states:
1. ___ short term active infection with symptoms
2. ___ long term active infection with symptoms
3. ___infection is detectable only by serological test
4. __ NO ACTIVE GROWTH of microorganisms but potential for reactivation
5. ___ active growth of micoorganisms with or without symptoms
carrier/latent/subclinical/chronic/acute
1. acute
2. chronic
3. subclinical
4. latent
5. carrier
282
Symbiosis: the essential association b/w two ___ organisms that live close to each other with or without mutual benefit
different
283
Abscess = a ___ (acute/chronic) inflammatory lesion consisting of a localized collection of __ surrounded be a cellular wall
acute, pus
284
Granuloma = a ___(acute/chronic) inflammatory lesion consisting of granulation tissue: fibrosis (fibroblasts), angiogenesis (new capillaries) and inflammatory cells (macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells, epitheliod cells, multinucleated giant cells)
chronic
285
Cyst = an ___ lined sac filled with fluid or air
epithelial
286
cellulitis = an __acute/chronic) diffuse swelling located __
acute, along fascial planes that separate muscle bundles
287
1. Ludwig's angina is a rapidly occurring ____.
2. It involves the __ and __ and __ spaces
3. why is emergency treatment crucial
1. cellulitis
2. submandibular, sublingual, submental fascial spaces bilaterally
3. b/c it can cause airway obstruction
288
Sepsis is commonly caused by what 3 bacteria
S. aureus, Klebsiella sp, E.coli
289
Sepsis of bloodstream by toxin producing bacteria: common signs and symptoms:
fever, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, chills, and __constipation or diarrhea?
diarrhea
290
All bacteria except ____ contain a plasma membrane surrounded by peptidoglycan cell wall
mycoplasma = don't have a cell wall
291
1. Mycoplasma refers to a genus of bacteria that lack a __.
| 2. Without a cell wall, they are unaffected by many common ___
1. cell wall
| 2. antibiotics such as penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis.
292
____ are the smallest living cells yet discovered, and can survive without oxygen
Mycoplasma
293
Peptidoglycan is a cross linked polysaccharide of alternating __
N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
294
Salivary ___ cleaves the glycosidic bods of the peptidoglycan molecule
lysozome
295
All bacterial capsules are made of ____ except ____ which is made of __
polysaccharides,
Bacillus anthracis,
protein containing D-glutamate
296
The M protein prevents ___ and is seen in ___
phagocytosis
| group A streptococci
297
Protein A prevents __ and is seen in
opsonization and phagocytosis
| S. Aureus
298
IgA protease: degrades __. seen in (3)
IgA, Strep. pneumonia, H. influenza, Neisseria sp
299
Leukocidins destroy ___
PMN's and macrophages
300
1. collagenase (metalloproteinases) degrades
| 2. coagulase ___
1. collagen
| 2. promotes clotting
301
lecithinase: ___ causes
hydrolyzes lechitin to destroy plasma membranes, causes ganggrene
302
streptodornase (DNase)
depolymerizes DNA
303
streptolysin O
causes beta hemolysis (oxgen labile)
304
streptolysin S
causes Beta hemolysis (oxygen stable)
305
pneumolysin
beta hemolysis
306
streptokinase and staphylokinase
activates plasminogen to dissolve clots
307
exfoliatin
protease that cleaves desmoglein. causes scaled skin syndrome
308
Exotoxin/endotoxin is within the cell wall
endotoxin
309
Exotoxin/endotoxin is outside the cell wall
exotoxin
310
endotoxin is found in gram negative bacteria and
listeria bacteria
311
the most toxic portion of LPS is
lipid A
312
which one is heat stable: exotoxin or endotoxin
endotoxin is heat stable, exotoxin is not
313
Enterotoxins are ___ that affect intestinal endothelial cells
exotoxins
314
exotoxins or endotoxins can be detected by ELISA
exotoxin
315
1. When an antibody finds an antigen, the __portion of antibody (IgG) reacts with epitopes of the antigen.
2. The _ portion of IgG can then bind to neutrophils and macrophages thus sticking the antigen to the phagocyte.
3. binding of IgG to the Fc receptor also activates the __
1. IgG--FAB -------------antigen
2. Fc
3. phagoctye
316
opsonization is especially important against microorganisms with antiphagocytic structures like
capsules
317
Name the two major opsonins
IgG and C3b
318
For each of the following streptococcus pyogenes virulence factor list the function:
1. M protein
2. DNases A to D
3. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (Spe A, B, C and F)
4. Streptolysin O and S
5. Streptokinase A and B
6. Hyaluronidase
7. Exotoxin A (SpeA)
8. Exotoxin B (SpeB)
1. resistance to phagocytosis
2. DNases A to D = Cleaves DNA
3. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins = responsible for many clinical manifestations of severe strep diseases
4. Streptolysin O and S: lysis of red and white blood cells
5. Streptokinase A and B: Dissolves Fibrin in clots to assist in invasion of wounds
6. Hyaluronidase = breaks down hyaluronic acid
7. Exotoxin A (SpeA) Toxic Shock Syndrome
8. Exotoxin B (SpeB) rapidly dissolves tissues
319
Streptococcus Pyogenes is a gram ___, ____ (utilize oxygen) bacteria.
Is it motile? does it produce spores
positive
facultative anaerobic
non motile and does not produce spores
320
Strep pyogenes occurs in __of cocci and occasionally in __
long chains, occasionally in pairs
321
1. Strep pyogenes is a Group _ strep
| 2. what does Group A mean?
1. A
| 2. means they have a capsule composed of hyaluronic acid and are beta hemolytic
322
1. Beta hemolytic means they produce a toxin that forms a ___zone on blood agar, demonstrating its ability to __
2. this hemolysis is attributed to toxins formed by Group A strep called ___
3. streptolysins can destroy?
1. clear, destroy red blood cells
2. streptolysins
3. white and red blood cells and other cells
323
Strep pyogenes produces three kinds of exotoxins. These are responsible for causing
fever and scarlet fever rashes and increase risk for endotoxic shock and depress antibody synthesis.
324
M proteins resistance of phagocytosis seen in strep pyogenes: it is also __ and __ resistant and helps?
heat and acid, aids in attachment to host tissues
325
The hyaluronic capsule of strep pyogenes is similar to human ___
CT = therefore it can go around unrecognized as an antigen by the host body = helping resist phagocytosis
326
Strep pyogenes is considered a ___ pathogen
opportunistic pathogen because it is part of normal flora of respiratory tract but usually doesn't cause complications until person's natural defenses to disease are compromised.
327
Impetigo is a contagious ___ infection. what bacteria causes it?
skin infection that usually produces blisters or sores on the face, neck, hands, and diaper area
strep pyogenes
328
Name the mild diseases caused by strep pyogenes and the severe.
2 mild: impetigo and soar throat
| 2 severe: strep Toxic shock syndrome and necrotizing fascitis
329
what kind of bacteria are the principal etiologic factor in necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)
Spirochetes.
330
ANUG is an ___ recurring gingival infection characterized by?
acute
| necrosis of papillae, spontaneous bleeding and pain.
331
1. Name the 2 principal bacteria associated with ANUG
| 2. what other bacteria may be seen
1. Prevotella Intermedia and Spirochetes: Treponema denticola is the intermediate sized spirochete associated with ANUG.
2. Fusobacterium and Selenomonas
332
NUG aka __ or _
trench mouth/Vincent's infection
333
Signs and symptoms unique/pathognomonic to NUG?
a. is there pain
b. is there attachment loss
c. papilla look __
d. psuedomembrane formation?
e. ___fever
f. __ taste
g. gingival bleeding?
h. fetor oris = ?
a. painful
b. NO ATTACHMENT LOSS
c. punched out papilla = interproximal gingival necrosis
d. yes
e. low grade fever
f. metallic taste
g. spontaneous gingival bleeding
h. foul smell
334
Which immunoglobin is found in highest concentration in serum in patients with periodontal disease
IgG
335
Name the predominant subgingival bacteria associated with gingival health
```
strep mitis and strep sanguis
actinomyces viscosus and naeslundii
rothia dentocariosus
staphylococcus epidermidis
small spirochetes
```
336
Are protozoa eukaryotes or prokaryotes
eukaryotes
337
eukaryotes have the __ S ribosome
80S
prokaryotes (70S)
338
1. eukaryotes do not have peptidoglycan or cell walls. T/F
True
339
The cell membrane of ___ contain sterols
Eukaryotes and Mycoplasma bacteria!!!
340
Prokaryotes do not have sterol in their cell membranes. THE ONLY PROKARYOTE THAT DOES is the?
IMPT!!! Mycoplasma do not have cell walls and have sterol in their membranes
341
Are viruses cells
no. THEY ARE ACELLULAR PARTICLES
342
__ are obligate intracellular parasites
viruses
343
Do viruses contain RNA and DNA?
NO! They contain EITHER DNA OR RNA NOT BOTH!!!! unlike bacteria and eukaryotes
344
do viruses contain organelles?
no
345
viruses have a ___ capsid and a ___ envelope
protein capsid and lipoprotein envelope
346
do prokaryotes have a nuclear membrane
NO. only eukaryotes have nucleus and nuclear membranes. prok don't have either
347
in ____ DNA is a SINGLE closed looped chromosome
prokaryotes
348
In ___ DNA is in multiple chromosomes that are linear
eukaryotes
349
Are there proteins in prokaryotic/eukaryotic chromosomes
ONLY IN EUKARYOTE DNA. Prok don't have protein in their DNA
350
Do prokaryotes undergo mitosis
no = binary fission
351
Rickettsia, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia are prokaryote/eukaryote
bacteria = prokaryote.
352
In aerobic respiration we use an electron transport chain that is located in the
inner mitochondrial membrane
353
aerobic respiration has 4 stages name them
glycolysis, formation of acetyl coA, citric acid cycle, electron chain and chemiosmosis
354
Fermentation = __ molecules are both electron donors and electron acceptors. The molecule being metabolized is not completely __
1. organic
| 2. oxidized. - all its potential energy is not extracted
355
1. In fermentation, ___ is reduced to ___
2. results in excess of __
3. __ is an important intermediate
4. Energy is derived from __ phosphorylation
5. Oxygen is __
6. Energy yield is __
1. NAD+ reduced to NADH
2. NADH
3. pyruvate
4. substrate level
5. not involved
6. low
356
in respiration we use ___ phosphorylation
oxidative
357
periodontal health is characterized by the presence of what bacteria
gram + strep sanguis, strep mitis, actinomyces viscosus, actinomyces naeslundii, and a few gram - bacteria: veillonella parvula and capnocytophaga ochracea.
358
in periodontal disease the bacterial balance shifts to
gram negative, motile, strictly anaerobic bacteria. inflammatory disease and injury cant develop without these bacteria
359
Aa - actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans associated with
aggressive periodontal disease (aka early onset periodontitis) and localized aggressive periodontitis (aka localized juvenile periodontitis)
360
tannerella forsythia aka bacteriodes forsythus linked to
perio disease
361
treponema denticola, sokranskii associated with
deep pockets and chronic periodontitis and NUG
362
prevotella intermedia associated with
deep pockets and chronic periodontitis and NUG
363
All dental plaque induced perio disease are __ infections
mixed. none of them caused by single pathogen
364
Most bacteria grow in the presence or absence of oxygen this is called
facultative anaerobes: oxygen not required but they will use it when it is present. They grow in both oxygen/no oxygen
365
1. Superoxide dismutases (SOD) are enzymes that catalyze the dismutation of ___ into __ and __
2. Catalase catalyzes the decomposition of __ to __ and __
1. superoxide (O2−) into oxygen and hydrogen peroxide
| 2. hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
366
Aerotolerant anaerobes:
1. can they grow in aerobic and anaerobic?
2. do they require/use oxygen?
1. they can grow in both environments
2. do not require or use oxygen.
Fermentation only!
367
Facultative anaerobes:
1. can they grow in aerobic and anaerobic?
2. do they require/use oxygen?
1. yes in both
2. do not require oxygen, but they will use it if it is present
Fermentation/aerobic respiration/anaerobic respiration
368
The only two kinds of bacteria that can grow in both oxygen and non oxygen environments are?
aerotolerant and facultative anaerobes
369
Obligate aerobes grow only in __ and no growth in __
grow in aerobic
no growth in anaerobic.
oxygen is required
370
Obligate anaerobes: __ growth in aerobic and __ growth in anaerobic
no growth = aerobic
growth - anaerobic
oxygen is toxic
371
1. Anaerobic respiration is a form of respiration using electron acceptors other than ___.
2. Although oxygen is not used as the final electron acceptor, the process still uses a respiratory electron transport chain; it is respiration without oxygen. In anaerobes, other less-oxidizing substances such as ___are used as final electron acceptor
1. oxygen
| 2. sulfate (SO42-), nitrate (NO3-), sulphur (S), or fumarate
372
obligate aerobes and facultative anaerobes:
1. do they have catalase
2. do they have superoxide dismutase
3. peroxidase
1. yes
2. yes
3. no
373
aerotolerant anaerobes:
1. do they have catalase
2. do they have superoxide dismutase
3. peroxidase
1. yes
2. no (they do not use oxygen -only fermentation)
3. yes
374
obligate anaerobes:
1. do they have catalase
2. do they have superoxide dismutase
3. peroxidase
1. no
2. no
3. no
375
name two obligate anaerobes
clostridia and bacteriodes
376
bacteria that rely entirely on INORGANIC chemicals for energy are called
autotrophs (aka lithotrophs)
377
bacteria that require ORGANIC CARBON sources are known as
heterotrophs (organotrophs)
378
Spore (aka endospores) formers are NEVER gram ___
negative!
379
name two genera of spore formers
bacillus and clostridium
380
spores contain a complete copy of the chromosome, the bare minimum concentration of essential proteins and ribosomes, and a high concentration of
calcium bound to dipicolinic acid
381
under harsh environments such as loss of nutrition, bacteria such as Clostridium tetani, or Clostridium botulinum, or Bacillus anthracis can convert from __ to __
vegetative state to a dormant state (spore)
382
Bacterial endospore is a __resistant spore formed inside a cell.
heat
383
the endospore is multilayered with peptidoglycan coat and __ core
calcium dipicolinate
384
which is harder to destroy: HIV HBV TB or spores
spores
385
the greatest risk for bloodborne infection in healthcare workers is
HBV
386
to destroy spores it must be autoclaved at the proper temp of -_ FOR __ MINUTES
121degrees Celcius for 20 minutes
387
active spores/dormant spores have thin walls.
active have thin walls.
| dormant have thick, strong walls
388
anthrax is caused by
bacillus anthracis
389
Identify the spore forming bacteria
1. botulism
2. gas gangrene
3. tetanus are caused by
1. Clostridium botulism
2. Clostridium perfringens
3. Clostridium tetani
390
one of the most common forms of traveler's diarrhea is caused by
Escherichia coli
| produces an enterotoxin which causes traveler's diarrhea and important in infantile diarrhea in developing countries.
391
1. E. Coli enterotoxin can be detected using the
| 2. what other disease is commonly used with elisa
ELISA = enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
| HIV
392
Can ELISA provide qualitative (YES/NO) or quantitative (how much) info on euk/prok antibodies?
both.
The sample with an unknown amount of antigen is immobilized on a solid support Then, a further specific antibody is applied over the surface so it can bind to the antigen. This antibody is linked to an enzyme, and, in the final step, a substance containing the enzyme's substrate is added. The subsequent reaction produces a detectable signal, most commonly a color change in the substrate.
393
1. Eliza uses ___ and color change to identify a substance
| 2. Name 4 bacteria/virus that can be detected by ELISA
1. antibodies
| 2. S. Aureus, Vibrio Cholerae, HIV, E. Coli
394
Inclusion bodies = ___
storage sites for nutrients. Inclusion bodies are nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates of stainable substances, usually proteins. They typically represent sites of viral multiplication in a bacterium or a eukaryotic cell and usually consist of viral capsid proteins
395
protoplasm is aka
cytoplasm
396
obligate anaerobic cant live in oxygen because they lack
superoxide dismutase (rids O2 radicals) and catalase (rids H2O2)
397
Transformation is DNA transfer by?
uptake (no requirement for cell to cell contact)
398
Conjugation is DNA transfer by?
conjugation tube (sex pilus)
399
Transduction is DNA transfer by
bacteriophage (VIRUS) - lytic or lysogenic bacteriophage pathways
400
in a gram stain, gram __ stains purple
positive
401
in a gram stain gram __ stains pink
negative
402
1. gram + wall is made of
| 2. gram - wall is made of
1. lipoteichoic acid
| 2. LPS
403
1. In transformation, the DNA picked up must be __ stranded.
2. the DNA enters the cell and an __ degrades one of the strand = single stranded
3. uptake is dependent on the presence of what protein
1 double
2. intracellular DNAse (endonuclease)
3. competence facotr
404
Regardless of the mode of exchange of DNA, DNA becomes integrated in the cell host cell by
recombination
405
Sexduction is genetic transfer mediated by _ cells
F negative prime cells
406
pseudomonas aeruginosa are
1. motile/non motile
2. gram _
3. shape and oxygen use
4. ___ pathogen
1. motile
2. negative
3. aerobic rods
4. opportunistic pathogen
407
the presence of __ in pseudomonas species are used to differentiate them from enterobacteriaceae
cytochrome oxidase
408
One of the most important virulent factor in pseudomonas aeruginosa is __
```
Exotoxin A (ETA)
disrupts protein synthesis by blocking peptide chain elongation in euk. like diphtheria toxin and corynebacterium
```
409
A blue pigment called ___ is produced by pseudomonas aeruginosa, which catalyzes the production of superoxide and hydrogen peroxide. the pigment also stimulates interleukin 8 release leading to enhanced attraction of neutrophils
pyocyanin
410
a yellow green pigment called ___ is a siderophore that binds iron for use in metabolism. this pigment also regulates secretion of other virulence factors, including exotoxin A
pyoverdin
411
LasA (serine protease) and LasB (zinc metalloprotease) acts synergistically to ___
degrade elastin
412
phospholipase C is a __
heat labile hemolysin that breaks down lipids and lecithin
413
pseudomonas aeruginosa is inherently __ to many antibiotics. Name the few that work against it
resistant.
fluoroquinolones,
gentamicin
imipenem
414
1. Prokaryotic cells consists of a single, circular molecule of ___ organized DNA lacking a nuclear membrane and mitotic apparatus
loosely
415
Do viruses contain organelles
no
416
Viruses have a protein ___ and a lipoprotein __
capsid, envelope
417
endotoxins exert pathological effects by activating
complement cascade
418
LPS is not toxic unless
released from the cell (death of gram negative bacteria cells release the LPS)
419
1. which is more toxic, exotoxin or endotoxin
| 2. which has high specificity?
exotoxin is more toxic
exotoxin has high specificity
(endotoxin is less toxic with less specificity)
420
which are used as vaccines: exotoxin or endotoxin
exotoxins only. (they are more toxic, highly specific and used as vaccines)
421
Name 3 organisms who's exotoxins are neurotoxins
1. clostridium botulinum (neurotoxin A, B, E)
causes botulism = paralysis/block nerve transmission
2. Clostridium tetani = neurotoxin tetanospasm = tetanus = spastic paralysis interferes with motor neurons
3. Shigella Dynsenteriae = neurotoxin = bacterial dysentery = hemorrhage and paralysis
422
___ exotoxin is an enterotoxin that causes food poisoning and intestinal inflammation
staphylococcus aureues
423
___ causes rheumatic fever and scarlet fever
Strep Pyogenes (Group A)
424
___ causes gas gangrene
clostridium perfringes = a toxin (lechthinase) and K toxin - collagenase
425
1. Does Neisseria gonorrhoeae have a capsule
| 2. Neisseria meningitdes?
1. no
| 2. yes
426
capsules play an important part in what diseases
haemophilus meningitis, haemophilus influenza, Klebsiella pneumonia, Neisseria meningitdes cryptococcses, pneumococcal pneumonia, and meningococcemia
427
Does Strep pneumonia have a capsule
yes = well known for its large capsule
428
In the mouth, obligate anaerobes are part of ___ and are __
normal flora = opportunistic
429
2 pathways that metabolize glucose:
1. anaerobic cycle occurs in ___ and is moderately efficient
2. aerobic cycle occurs in the __ and is greatest release of energy
1. cytoplasm
| 2. mitochondria
430
1. Respiration is the method of obtaining energy involving _
2. Respiration can be aerobic = __ is terminal e/H+ acceptor
3. or anaerobic = __ final e/H+ acceptor
1. oxidative phosphorylation
2. oxygen
3. nitrate or sulfate
431
in fermentation, __ is the final hydrogen acceptors
pyruvate (intermediate product of glucose)
432
In saliva, the members of the viridans streptococci group are predominant. name them.
name the other two present
strep salivarius, mitis, sanguis
| gram + actinomyces and gram - veillonella
433
where in the body are no normal microbata found
upper urinary tract (kidneys and bladder) and lower respiratory tract
434
strep, lactobacillus, bacteriodes, and clostridium found in
genitourinary tract (urethra and vaginal tracts)
435
strep, staph, moroxella, Neisseria, heamophilis, bacteriodes, and fusobacterium found
upper respiratory tract (nasal cavity and nasopharynx)
436
strep, lactobacillus, clostridium, veillonella, bacteriodes, fusobacterium, Escherichia, proteus, klebsiella and enterobacter found
GI tract.
437
strep, veillonella, bacteriodes, fusobacterium, actinomyce, peptostreptococcus found in
oral cavity (saliva, tongue, palate)
438
(Hansen's bacillus) is aka
leprosy
439
cause of leprosy (Hansen's bacillus)
Mycobacterium leprae
440
tuberculosis formed by what bacteria
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
441
primary lesion of pulmonary TB
Tubercle (GHON FOCUS) = nodule
442
___ causes bovine tuberculosis and can infect people who drink unpasteurized milk
Mycobacterium bovis
443
mycobacterial and actinomycetes cell walls contain __ that aid them to
waxy mycolic acids = acid fast. resistant to phagocytosis, allow these bacteria to persist inside macrophages and neutrophils as intracellular parasites
444
most common used test in examining sputum (mucous) for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
acid fast stain
445
Vibreo cholera grows well at what pH
alkaline (alkalophile)
446
Nitrosomonas species grows well at what pH
alkaline (alkalophile)
447
Thiobacillus grows well at what pH
pH of 2.o = acidophile = bacteria that can only grow at low pH
448
Clostridium grows well at what pH
neutral = neutrophile
449
Proteus grows well at what pH
neutral
450
Lactobacilli grows well at what pH
neutral = neutrophile
451
Pseudomonoas grow well at what pH
neutral = neutrophile
452
lactobacillus:
1. gram +/-
2. shape
3. occurs in __ to aid__
1. positive
2. rod
3. human GI tract to aid in milk digestion
453
___ are initial colonizers in the intestinal tract
lactobacillus.
454
Lactobacillus found in __ numbers in oral cavity and assoc with
low, freq found in assoc with caries esp lactobacillus casei
455
___ causes progression of existing lesion in coronal caries
lactobacilli
456
lactobacillus ___ is added to commercial milk products to aid individuals unable to digest milk products/lactose intolerance. enzymes produced by the bacteria help covert the milk sugars to products that do not cause GI probs
acidopholus
457
1. main culprit in dental caries
2. main culprit in smooth surface caries
3. main culprit in root surface caries
1. strep mutans
2. strep mutans
3. actinomyces (viscous and naeslundii)
458
which is more virulent coagulase + staph or negative
coagulative + is only staph aureus - most virulent
459
staphylococci epidermis - coagulase negative and most frequent cause of
infections associated with medical devices
460
staphylococci saprophyticus - coagulase negative and most freq cause of
acute urinary tract infections in women
461
Which strep causes:
1. pneumonia
2. rheumatic fever
3. heart valve infections
1. s. pneumonia
2. s. pyogenes
3. s. viridans
462
Do bacteriodes produce a toxin detectable by ELISA
no
463
what 3 bacteria produce toxins detectable by ELISA
E.Coli, vibreo cholera, staph aureus
464
Disseminated candidiasis (widely distributed) is treated with
amphotericin B
465
___ is the antifungal drug of choice for treating candidiasis
Nystatin
466
nystatin and amphotericin B are antifunal and fungistatic. mechanism?
bind to sterols in the fungal membrane = increasing permeability and permitting leakage. they impair erogsterol synthesis
467
Chronic hyperplastic is a type of __ that produces a firmly ____ on __
treated with?
1. oral candidiasis that produces a firmly adherent white plaque on oral mucosa. treat with nystatin
468
penicillinase is an enzyme produced by certain strains of ___ that inactivates penicillin
Staphylocococcus
469
Penicillinase degrades the __ structure of penicillin
beta lactam ring
470
structural modification to penicillin G such as ____ renders the molecule resistant to staph penicillinases but also narrows the spectrum of action to only against staph
methicillin
471
name 5 types of penicillins that are penicillinase resitant
```
methicillin
cloxacillin
dicloxacillin
nafcillin
oxacillin
```
472
penicillin only works on __ cells that contain __ in their wall
growing, peptidoglycan
473
penicillin shows its greatest bactericidal activity against growing gram __ bacteria
positive = bc have a thick murein wall!
474
penicillin inhibits the __ step in peptidoglycan synthesis
terminal
| affects the bacterial cell wall
475
penicillin is non toxic to humans because human cell
lacks peptidoglycan
476
penicillin inhibits
cell wall synthesis (peptidoglycan synthesis)
477
what genera of bacteria most frequently develops resistance to penicillin
staphylococcus = produces penicillinase
478
Name the three B vitamins
B vitamins 1-3, "take the B train" - TRN.
B1 = thiamine
B2 = riboflavin
B3 = niacin
479
name the gram positive bacteria
Corny Actors Knock Back Listerine in the Closet - the gram positive bacteria are Corynebacteria, Actinomyces, Nocardia, Bacillus, Listeria, and Clostridium. (plus Staph, and Strep - the t looks like a + sign)
480
strep pyogenes virulence factors
```
Streptococcus pyogenes: virulence factors are SMASHED:
Streptolysins
M protein
Anti-C5a peptidase
Streptokinase
Hyaluronidase
Exotoxin
DNAses
```
481
mnemonic for bacilli
Remeber... All bacilli are gram negative except "L.DATTA"
```
L - Listeria
D - Diphtheria
A - Actinomycetes
T - Tetani Clostridium
T - TB Mycobatcterium
A - Anthrax bacillus
```
482
strep pyogenes diseases
```
Streptococcus pyogenes: diseases causes NIPPLES:
Necrotising fasciitis and myositis
Impetigo
Pharyngitis
Pneumonia
Lymphangitis
Erysipelas and cellulitis
Scarlet fever/ Streptococcal TSS
```
483
Staph aureus diseases
```
Staphylococcus aureus: diseases causes SOFT PAINS:
Skin infections
Osteomyelitis
Food poisoning
Toxic shock syndrome
Pneumonia
Acute endocarditis
Infective arthritis
Necrotizing fasciitis
Sepsis
```
484
The most appropriate alternative for treating patients with penicillin allergy
erythromycin
485
if a patient is infected by a bacteria susceptible to both penicillin and erythromycin what should you do
give them both at same time because penicillin is only effective against growing cells
486
the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering procedures in a patient with heart valve abnormality or who is allergic to penicillin
erythromycin. inhibits protein synthesis
487
Rickettsial diseases:
1. gram __
2. aerobic/anaerobic
3. contain dna/rna
4. human rickettsial disease results from
5. human target cell for rickettsiae
6. rickettsia destroys
7. symptoms
1. negative
2. aerobic
3. both dna and rna
4. insect bites
5. endothelial cell of capillaries and small bv's
6. endothelial cells
7. headache, myalgia, fever, followed by a rash
488
what antibiotic is used to treat rickettsia disease
tetracycline and chloramphenicol
489
ectoparasite
live on outside of host
| ex lice, fleas, ticks,
490
endoparasites
live on inside of host
| ex. malaria, tape worm, schistosomiasis (bilharzias)
491
streptococcus shapes
pairs or chains
492
most strep are facultative anaerobes
| T/F
true
