Micro Exams Questions (released) Flashcards

1
Q

A patient who has anemia, poorly localized abdominal pain, and wrist and foot drop probably is manifesting a toxic state induced by?

A

Lead = toxic to organs (bones/kidneys/reproductive/nervous system), causes abdominal colic, confusion, anemia (bc hemolysis), hemoglobin in urine, encephalopathy seizures coma or even death. Affects the radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

wrist and foot drop aka

A

radial nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what other things can cause wrist and foot drop

A

stab chest below clavicle, broken humerus (because it runs through the radial groove on the lateral border of this bone along with the deep brachial artery), Persistent injury to the nerve is also a common cause through either repetitive motion or by applying pressure externally along the route of the radial nerve as in the prolonged use of crutches or extended leaning on the elbows.÷

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The radial nerve is the terminal branch of the ___ of the brachial plexus.

A

posterior cord (C6, C7, C8) - to remember radial has 6 letters in it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MYC gene abnormality

A

Lymphoma chromosomal translocation moves an enhancer sequence within the

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

normal human cells contain gene sequences homologous to virus genome sequences known to induce cancer in animals. What term applies to these gene sequences when found in human cells

A

viral oncogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which bacterial vaccines is given routinely to children in the USA

A

Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which virus vaccines is given routinely to children in the USA

A

Measles, mumps, rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

__ is the only known dietary reservoir of C. botulinum spores linked to infant botulism.

A

Honey

For this reason honey should not be fed to infants less than one year of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

flaccid paralysis in USA

A

clostridium botulinum = gram + rod anaerobic spore former, inhibits acetylcholine release from presynaptic vessels = prevents muscle contraction by blocking the release of ACh, thereby halting postsynaptic activity of the neuromuscular junction. If its effects reach the respiratory muscles, then it can cause respiratory failure, leading to death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

acute flaccid paralysis

A

polio (AFP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

__ is a poison that comes from a plant grown in the rainforests of South America that can also cause flaccid paralysis

A

Curare: acts as a neuromuscular blocking agent by binding to (ACh) receptors on the muscle, blocking them from binding to ACh. As a result, ACh accumulates within the neuromuscular junction, but since ACh cannot bind to the receptors on the muscle, the muscle cannot be stimulated. This poison must enter the bloodstream for it to work. If curare affects the respiratory muscles, then its effects can become fatal, placing the victim at risk for suffocation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

BCG vaccine

A

Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) is a vaccine against tuberculosis that is prepared from a strain of the attenuated (virulence-reduced) live bovine tuberculosis bacillus, Mycobacterium bovis, that has lost its virulence in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mycobacterium bovis vs M. tuberculosis

A

Bovis is in cattle, tuberculosis is in humans. M. bovis can also jump the species barrier and cause tuberculosis in humans and other mammals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

polyvalent pneumococcus vaccine is for? Can you give it at any age?

A

prevent infection by pneumococcal bacteria. Immunization (vaccination) against pneumococcal infection is not recommended for infants and children younger than 2 years of age, because these persons cannot produce enough antibodies to the vaccine to protect them against a pneumococcal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MMR given to children at what age

A

1 year with a second dose before starting school (i.e. age 4/5 = attenuated live

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which bacteria is commonly on the dorsum (means superior surface or back of an animal) of the tongue?

A

streptococcus salivarius
Gram-positive bacteria colonizes the mouth + upper respiratory tract few hours after birth, harmless in most circumstances. opportunistic pathogen, rarely finding its way into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Actinomyces israelii

A

A. israelii is a normal colonizer of the vagina, colon, and mouth. Infection is established first by a breach of the mucosal barrier during various procedures (dental, GI), aspiration, or pathologies such as diverticulitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

a painless “lumpy jaw.”

A

Actinomyces israelii

Oral-cervicofacial disease is most common form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment for actinomycosis consists of

A

antibiotics such as penicillin or amoxicillin for six to twelve months, as well as surgery if the disease is extensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae: Diptheria toxin mode of action

A

inhibits protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the ADP-robosylation bacterial exotoxins

A
CHAP D
Cholera toxin
Heat-labile toxin
Anthrax toxin
Pertussis toxin
Diphtheria toxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

exotoxin vs endotoxin

A

exotoxin is in gram + or - and is located outside the cell wall. Endotoxin is located within the cell wall and only gram - bacteria have it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Exotoxin/endotoxins are highly toxic and not heat stable.

A

exotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Exotoxin/endotoxins have low toxicity and are heat stable.
endotoxin
26
heat-labile exotoxin released by what bacteria? Mode of action? Classification?
E. Coli = increase adenylate cyclase activity (increases cAMP) = ADP Ribosylation
27
what does ADP Ribosylation mean
ADP-ribosylation is the addition of one or more ADP-ribose moieties to a protein
28
anthrax exotoxin released by what bacteria? Mode of action? Classification?
bacillus anthracis | increase adenylate cyclase activity (increases cAMP) = ADP Ribosylation
29
exotoxins are released, endotoxins are not secreted, but released when bacteria die T/F
true
30
diphtheria toxin released by what bacteria? Mode of action? Classification?
Cornybacterium diphtheria: inhibits protein synthesis
31
Name the two superantigen exotoxins
TSST and Erythrogenic toxin
32
all superantigens mode of action
they bind the MHC II and T cell receptors =stimulates release of cytokines from T helper cells
33
TSST superantigen is released by what bacteria
exotoxin released by staph aureus
34
erythrogenic toxin superantigen is released by what bacteria
streptococcus pygogenes
35
Name the 4 exotoxins that are proteases
``` "BEAT" botulinum toxin exfoliatin anthrax toxin (lethal factor) tetanus toxin ```
36
tetanus toxin is the exotoxin released by __ ? mode of action?
clostridium tetani | neurotoxin inhibits glycine NT
37
botulinum toxin is the exotoxin released by __ ? mode of action?
clostridium botulinum | neurotoxin inhibits glycine NT
38
anthax toxin is the exotoxin released by __ ? mode of action?
bacillus anthracis, cleaves phosphokinase
39
exfoliatin toxin is the exotoxin released by __ ? mode of action?
staph aureus cleaves desmoglein
40
name the two exotoxins released by staph aureus
superantigen TSST and exfoliatin
41
alpha toxin is classified as a __. Action?
lechitinase = cleaves lecithin in cell membrane
42
alpha toxin released by what bacteria
clostridium perfringes
43
exotoxins can be detected by
ELISA
44
enterotoxins are endotoxin or exotoxin?
exotoxin
45
rapidly occurring cellulitis involving submandibular, sublingual, and submental fascial spaces, bilaterally. can cause airway obstruction, emergency treatment essential. cellulitic facial infection
Ludwig's angina connective tissue infection, of the floor of the mouth, usually occurring in adults with concomitant dental infections and if left untreated, may obstruct the airways, necessitating tracheotom
46
cellulitis
a bacterial infection involving the skin. It specifically affects the dermis and subcutaneous fat.
47
___ account for approximately 80% of cases of Ludwig's angina
Dental infections The route of infection in most cases is from infected lower molars or from pericoronitis, which is an infection of the gums surrounding the partially erupted lower (usually third) molars
48
sepsis most commonly caused by (3)
staph aureus klebsiella sp. E. Coli
49
acute inflammatory lesion with localized pus surrounded by a cell wall
abscess
50
chronic inflammatory lesion consisting of granulation tissue (fibrosis-fibroblasts, angiogenesis-new capillaries, inflammatory cells-macrophages,lymphocytes plasma cells, multinucleated giant cells, epitheliod cells)
granuloma
51
an epithelial lined sac filled with fluid or air
cyst
52
name the infectious states:
acute/chronic/subclinical/latent/carrier
53
carrier state
active growth of microoganisms with or without symptoms
54
latent state
no active growth but potential for reactivation
55
chronic infectious state
long term active infection WITH SYMPTOMS
56
acute infectious state
short term active infection with symptoms
57
surface M protein prevents? what bacteria?
phagocytosis = group A streptococci
58
surface protein A prevents? what bacteria?
Prevents opsonization and phagocytosis staph aureus
59
lipid A?
be careful this is not the same thing as protein A!!! Lipid A is the toxic portion of LPS
60
3 evaders that that degrade IgA (have IgA protease enzymes)
Strep pneumonia, H influenza, Neisseria sp.
61
coagulase enzyme?
promotes fibrin clot formation
62
Leukocidins?
destroy PMNs and macrophages
63
collagenases (metalloproteinases)
degrade collagens
64
hyaluronidase
degrades hyaluronic acid
65
lecithinase
hydrolyzes lecithin to destroy plasma membranes = gas gangrene
66
streptolysin O
streptococcal hemolytic exotoxin causes beta hemolysis and is oxygen labile
67
oxygen labile means
inactivated by oxygen
68
streptolysin S
streptococcal hemolytic exotoxin causes beta hemolysis and is oxygen STABILE (not inactivated by oxygen)
69
pneumolysin
causes beta hemolysis
70
streptokinase/staphokinase
activates plasminogen to dissolve closts
71
exfoliatin
epidermolytic protease cleaves desmoglein causes scalded skin syndrome
72
positive heterophile antibody test
Epstein barr virus
73
patient allergic to penicillin what do you give them to treat an infection caused by bacteria sensitive to penicillin?
erythromycin
74
a patient with rheumatic heart disease is most likely to develop congestive heart failure due to
valvular insufficiency bc causes fibrosis of the heart valves
75
cor pulmonale
pulmonary heart disease = enlargement or failure of right ventricle due to increased pressure or resistance in the lungs -pulmonary hypertension
76
abnormally low C1 esterase inhibitor
hereditary angioedema = autosomal dominant
77
mutations in certain genes of the major histocompatibility complex.
Bare lymphocyte syndrome = no MHC class I/II antigens expressed. recessive genetic condition result is that the immune system is severely compromised and cannot effectively fight infection
78
bronchiectasis
permanent enlarged airways = freq lung infections
79
pneumoconiosis
occupational lung disease from inhaling dust = restrictive lung disease
80
acute pseudomembranous candidiasis
white pseudomembrane sloughs off easily, cottage cheese like, aka thrush
81
chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
white pseudomembrane doesn't slough off easily aka leukoplakia
82
acute atrophic candidiasis
red patch erythematous, raw painful mucosa, little to no white pseudomembrane. burning mouth, bad taste sore throat
83
chronic atrophic candidiasis
includes denture stomatitis (denture sore mouth), angular cheilitis, and median rhomboid glossitis
84
astrocytoma
brain cancer | forms in astrocytes (glia in brain)
85
glioblastoma multiforme
most common type of astrocytoma
86
glioblastoma multiforme risk factors
white, male, over 50.