Micro/Path Flashcards
1
Q
Autologous graft
A
your own tissue transferred from one body site to another (same individual) often used in burns
2
Q
Syngeneic graft
A
tissue transferred b/w genetically identical individuals
3
Q
allogeneic graft
A
tissue transferred bw two genetically different people in same species
4
Q
xenogeneic graft
A
tissue transferred between different species
5
Q
___ rejection to a graft occurs within minutes to hours, tissue never becomes vascularized bc there is pre-existing host serum Ab (IgG) specific for Ag in the graft
A
hyperacute
6
Q
__- rejection to a graft occurs days to weeks later, occurs when there are memory CD4 and CD8 T cells from previous graft exposure
A
acute rejection
7
Q
__ rejection occurs months or years after acute rejection has subsided. both humoral and cell mediated. antibody mediated necrosis of graft vasculature
A
chronic rejection
8
Q
the most feared consequence of graft therapy with an immunodeficiency is a
A
graft versus host reaction (GVHR) = transplanted immune cells from donor attack the host. occurs most commonly after bone marrow transplants and can be fatal
9
Q
when a graft is rejected the first time and is tried again from the same donor, it will be rejected more __than the first. this second set rejection occurs bc the individual has been previously sensitized to the graft
A
rapidly
10
Q
what cells elicit most of the destruction in graft rejections
A
CD4 and CD8 T cells
11
Q
the most common types of hyperacute rejection of graft are in __ blood mismatches
A
ABO
12
Q
cellular degradation by enzymes derived from sources extrinsic to the cell is known as
a. necrosis
b. heterolysis
c. autolysis
d. apoptosis
A
b. heterolysis
13
Q
Irreversible damage to the nucleus:
karyolysis, pyknosis, karyorrhexis
- the nucleus shrinks and becomes intensely basophilic, DNA is packed into a solid shrunken mass.
- pyknotic nucleus undergoes fragmentation and completely disappears in 1-2 days
- gradual fading of the basophilic nuclear material as a result of DNases.
A
- pyknosis
- karyorrhexis
- karyolysis
14
Q
___ is death of one or more cells/portion of a tissue/organ. it is the result of irreversible EXOGENOUS injury that results in an insufficient blood supply to the tissue whether from injury, radiation or chemicals
A
necrosis
15
Q
__- aka programmed cell death plays a role in opposing mitosis in regulating the size of cell populations
A
apoptosis
16
Q
Apoptosis vs. Necrosis
- which on causes an acute inflamm reaction elicited by death
- which one does the plasma membrane rupture
- which one is there no breakdown of mechanisms supplying cellular energy
- which one fails to maintain normal cell volume
A
- necrosis not apoptosis
- necrosis not apoptosis
- apoptosis
- necrosis
17
Q
____ are proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, parasites or tumor cells. they promote antiviral/antitumor responses and stimulate immune responses.
A
Interferons
18
Q
- interferons are ___ specific proteins
- are they virus specific?
- are antibodies virus specific/host specific
A
- species (host specific)
- no
- virus specific
19
Q
body’s first active defense against a virus
A
interferon = early warning system
20
Q
- interferons (alpha and beta) have been used to treat various ___ infections like?
- interferon ___ has been used to treat a variety of diseases in which macrophage activation may play a role in recovery, ie leprosy, toxoplasmosis.
- since interferons have ___effects, they have been used to treat certain tumors like melanoma and Kaposi’s sarcoma
A
- viral, chronic hepatitis C and hepatitis B
- gamma
- anti-proliferative
21
Q
interferon, lysozyme, complement are part of ___ immune system and are induced at an early stage in viral infection before the specific immune system has had time to respond
A
non-specific
22
Q
are interferons antiviral antbodies
A
no. they interfere with viral replication and signal neighboring uninfected cells that they should prepare for viral infection.
23
Q
interferons are members of a larger class of proteins called
A
cytokines
24
Q
small polypeptides released by a cell in order to change the function of the same or another cell are called
A
cytokines
25
which pathway is used to convert arachidonic acid into prostaglandins, prostacyclin, or thromboxanes
cyclooxygenase pathway
26
arachidonic acid is a __ carbon saturated/unsaturated fatty acid?
20 carbon UNSATURATED fatty acid
27
what 4 things are derived from arachidonic acid?
prostaglandins, prostacyclin, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes.
28
arachidonic acid is part of which part of the cell
part of the phospholipids in the plasma membrane
29
when a cell is stimulated by a neurotransmitter or hormone, a plasma membrane enzyme called __ is activated that splits arachidonic acid from the phospholipids
phospholipase A2
30
to form leukotrienes, the ___ pathway utilizes the enzyme ___
lipoxygenase pathway, lipoxygenase
31
to form prostaglandins, prostacyclin, or thromboxanes, the ___ pathway utilizes the enzyme ___
cyclooxygenase, cyclooxygenase
32
the prostaglandins, prostacyclins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes are ___
chemical messengers. they act primarily as local messengers that exert their effect in the tissues that synthesize them
33
Serotonin is present in __ and __ cellls
platelets and in some neuroendocrine cells (ex. gi tract)
34
serotonin is synthesized from what amino acid ___ in two steps.
1. the first step is __ rxn
2. 2nd is a __ rxn
tryptophan
1. hydroxylation (rate limiting)
2. decarboxylation reaction
35
the release of serotonin and histamine from platelets is stimulated when platelets aggregate after contact with
collagen, thrombin, ADP, and antigen-antibody complexes.
36
serotonin is a neurotransmitter believed to play a role in __
temp regulation, sensory perception, and in the onset of sleep
37
chemical name for serotonin is
5-hydroxytryptamine (think it is derived from tryptophan) abbreviated 5 H-T
38
Enterochromaffin cells (EC) are a type of enteroendocrine cell. What do they produce
histamine, gastrin, and serotonin
39
serotonin is produced in the ___ as a precursor to ___
pineal gland, melatonin
40
serotonin is a powerful ___ vasoconstrictor/vasodilator
vasoconstrictor
41
serotonin is secreted in tremendous quantities by __ tumors
carcinoid tumors (tumors composed of chromaffin tissue)
42
serotonin acts as __ in the spinal cord
inhibitor of pain pathways
43
____ interferes with the action of serotonin in the brain
lysergic acid diethylamide
44
histamine is released in large by __ cells
mast cells
45
two important VASOACTIVE amines with important actions on blood vessels are __ and __
histamine and serotonin = they are stored as preformed molecules in cells and therefore among the first to be released during inflammation.
46
what other cells have histamine in them
blood basophils and platelets. but mast cells in CT near BV's have the most
47
Name ways histamine is released
by mast cell degranulation due to :
physical injury, cold, heat, antibody binding to mast cell (allergic reactions), histamine releasing proteins derived from leukocytes, neuropeptides, cytokines (IL-1, IL-8)
48
Histamine is responsible for the principal symptoms of ___
anaphylaxis
49
Histamine causes:
1. __ of arterioles
2. ___ permeability of venules
3. broncho____
1. vasodilate
2. increase permeability
3. bronchoconstrictor
50
histamine is synthesized by the decarboxylation of the amino acid catalyzed by enzyme, _
histidine
| L-histidine decarboxylase
51
histamine is chemically similar to ___
serotonin, epinephrine, and norephinephrine
52
Bradykinin is a vasoactive kinin that mediates vascular permeability, areteriolar____ and ___
dilation and pain
53
pain from inflamed tissues is associated with the release of
bradykinin
54
histamine and serotonin have __ actions
similar
55
bradykinin is a potent
1. vaso___
2. it is produced by the action of ___ generated by active Hageman factor (XIIa) on an alpha-2 globulin.
it may be involved in blood pressure regulation
1. vasodilator
| 2. kallikrein.
56
complement, interferon, and natural killer cells are
| specific/non specific immune system
non specific
57
plasmin is aka ___. what does it do
fibrolysin.
plasmin is an enzyme generated by inactive plasminogen. it is a serine protease. breaks down fibrinogen and fibrin into fibrin degradation products.
58
fibrinogen is a plasma protein that is essential for coagulation of blood and is converted to fibrin by __ and __
thrombin and calcium
59
lysozymes cleaves what part of cell wall
the glycosidic bonds between the N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid (the glycan portion of the cell), between the amino sugars.
60
two parts of peptidoglycan wall
protein portion: short cross linked peptide chains containing amino acids
glycan portions: forms the backbone of the molecule: repeating units of amino sugars NAM and NAG
61
1. Lysozyme is a component of the __immune system b/c its action on peptidoglycans is immediate and not pathogen specific.
innate
62
lysozyme functions as a non-specific innate ___ by binding to the bacterial cell surface and enhancing phagocytosis
opsonin,
63
PROTOPLASTS are cells that have had their cell walls and capsules removed by ___
enzymatic (lysozyme) or antibiotic penicillin treatment
64
where in the cell are carbs synthesized
golgi
65
where is the digestive system of the cell:
| lysosome or peroxisome
lysosomes
66
peroxisomes contain enzymes that
detoxify harmful substances
67
mitochondria is a ___ membrane
double/
| power plant
68
do ribosomes have membranes
no
69
in prokaryotes, the __ plays an essential role in the formation of ribosomes
nucleolus
70
cotton wool bone
paget's disease (osteitis deformans)
71
melanosis in the mouth
Addison's Disease
72
the spherical body produced under appropriate conditions from certain bacilli by the action of lysozyme or penicillin
protoplast
73
tetanus and diphtheria are similar in nature with respect to production of
exotoxins
74
An a___ is a sheet of microtubules found in certain microbial eukaryotes. It arises from the bases of the flagella, sometimes projecting beyond the end of the cell, and is often flexible or contractile, and so may be involved in movement and provides support for the cell
axostyle
75
1. An ___ is an organism that can NOT synthesize a particular organic compound required for its growth..
1. auxotroph
76
Auxotrophy is the opposite of ____, which is characterized by the ability to synthesize all the compounds needed for growth.
prototroph
77
A mucoprotein is a glycoprotein composed primarily of mucopolysaccharides. It can be found in the ___of the ___
in the synovial fluid of the knees
78
Magnesium ribonucleate is a protein in the cell membrane of gram +/- bacteria
positive only! It helps gram positive bacteria retain the primary dye.
gram negative do not have this.
79
which part of the bacteria gets stained? the cell wall or cytoplasm
cytoplasm. the wall does not get stained.
80
name the bacteria that cannot be stained with gram stain
chlamydia
treponema
rickettsia
mycobacteria (impermeable to the stain)
81
in __ the final electron acceptor is an organic compound
fermentation
| BOARDS
82
glossodynia
burning mouth
83
the most common agent of septic arthritis in adults
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
| BOARDS
84
the initial bacteria observed in dental plaque is
streptococci
| BOARDS
85
dextrans are extracellular polysaccharides produced by
streptococcus mutans
86
in a normal healthy mouth the microflora tends to be
aerobic, anaerobic, faculatative, acidogenic, proteolytic
ANAEROBIC
ACIDOGENIC
FACULTATIVE
(note it is NOT aerobic)
BOARDS
87
which of the following microorganisms is the most important causative agent of dental caries:
aciduric/acidogenic/basophilic/proteolytic/gram negative rods
acidogenic
88
which species is found consistently in saliva and oral soft tissues
strep salivarius
| BOARDS
89
the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valve abnormality is
penicillin
| BOARds
90
a benign glandular neoplasm is called
adenoma
| BOARDS
91
1. Nevus is the medical term for sharply circumscribed and chronic lesions of the ___ or __.
2. These lesions are commonly named __
1. skin or mucosa
| 2. birthmarks or beauty marks
92
1. Papilloma refers to a benign ___growing exophytically (outwardly projecting) in nipple-like and often finger-like fronds.
2. When used without context, it frequently refers to infections (squamous cell papilloma) caused by __
1. epithelial tumor
| 2. human papillomavirus (HPV), such as warts
93
what antibody receptors found on B cells
IgG and IgM
94
Are T cells involved in phagocytosis or antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity?
no
95
Do T cells have IgG receptors
no. They have CD3-associated T cell receptors (TCR) which recognize a unique antigen in conjunction with MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins
96
1. B and T cells are derived from the ___
2. T cells mature in the __ and become thymocytes
3. B cells mature in the _ and migrate to __
1. bone marrow
2. thymus gland (T = thymus)
3. B cells mature in bone marrow,
migrate to lymph organs
97
B cells have a short life span (days to weeks). They differentiate into antibody producing plasma cells. How are they activated
when an immature b cell is exposed to a specific antigen (they recognize antigen by membrane bound immunoglobulin) the cell is activated. It then goes to the spleen or lymph nodes, differentiates, and produces memory B cells and plasma cells
98
T cells have a long life span (months to years). Important in cell-mediated immunity, type 4 hypersensitivity reactions (contact dermatitis) and in the modulation of antibody-mediated immunity. name the different classes of t cells
helper t cells (type 1 and 2 = TH1, TH2)
cytotoxic t cells (CD8+ lymphocytes)
memory t cells
suppressor t cells
99
CD8+ lymphocytes release ___ and induce apoptosis
Perforin = is a cytolytic protein found in the granules of Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) and NK cells. Upon degranulation, perforin inserts itself into the target cell's plasma membrane, forming a pore.
100
which interleukin potentiates growth of NK cells
IL-2
101
a surgical wound closed by a sterile suture would heal by:
1st intention/2nd intention/3rd intention/keloid formation
1st intention = aka primary adhesion/union: healing that occurs in wounds that have been closed with sterile suture. clean wounds, aseptic -no infection
102
healing by ___ intention = no surgical closure. the wound is allowed to GRANULATE IN, wound closes by contraction and filling with CT
healing by 2nd intention/secondary adhesion/secondary union
103
healing by __ intention - slow filling of a wound cavity or ulcer by granulations with cicatrization (scar formation)
third intention
104
diff bw 1st and 2nd intention wound healing:
__ are more open and more prone to infection and much more granulation tissue needed to close the wound. also it takes longer to heal bc larger wound to fill
secondary
105
the tensile strength (the maximum stress that a material can withstand while being stretched or pulled before failing or breaking) of healing wound depends upon the formation of
collagen fibers
106
___ have the greatest effect on granulation tissue
glucocorticoids
107
whether a wound heals by primary/secondary intention is determined by the nature of the wound/healing process itself
nature of wound
108
what is the mnemonic for maternal infections that are teratogenic
```
TORCH:
toxoplasmosis
other agents
rubella
cytomegalovirus
herpes simplex
```
109
what physical agents are teratogenic
radiation, hypoxia, excessive CO2, mechanical trauma
110
what vitamin deficiencies are teratogenic
vit. E, riboflavin, niacin, folic acid. (FERN)
Remember:
B TRN: B1 = thiamine
B2: riboflavin
B3: niacin
111
3 teratogenic antibiotics
mitomycin, dactinomycin, puromycin
= chemo agents
112
what 2 conditions must be met for tertogenesis to occur
teratogen must contact the fetus
time it contacts must be during phase where the organ systems are in process of being formed.
critical phase = first 3 month (1st trimester)
113
severe bacterial infections can lead to
sepsis = Sepsis is a potentially life-threatening complication of an infection. Sepsis occurs when chemicals released into the bloodstream to fight the infection trigger inflammation throughout the body. This inflammation can trigger a cascade of changes that can damage multiple organ systems, causing them to fail
114
in sepsis what 2 cytokines are notably made
TNF and IL-1
115
main culprits of sepsis (3)
staph aurues
klebsiella
Escherichia coli
116
Bacteremia = bacteria in blood cannot occur in healthy individuals t/f
false. they can occur in healthy individuals. = after oral prophylaxis and extractions, bleeding gums = transient systemic bacteremia.
117
are clinical signs and symptoms present in bacteremia
usually not
118
what organ has a remarkable capacity to regenerate
liver
119
in liver regeneration do the liver lobes regrow after resected in operation?
no! we get liver mass back by ENLARGEMENT OF THE LOBES THAT REMAIN AFTER SURGERY
120
enlargement of liver lobes is called
compensatory growth or compensatory hyperplasia = hepatocytes replicate during liver regeneration after partial hepatectomy
121
can striated muscle (skeletal, voluntary, cardiac)/smooth muscle/neurons of CNS regenerate
no
122
___ tissue has a lesser capability for regeneration.
highly specialized tissue: ex. surface epithelium has a marked capacity for regeneration while neurons in CNS have NO POWER of regeneration
123
name the 3 organs that are VERY VULNERABLE to hypoxia and anoxia
heart, brain, lungs.
124
which organ undergoes hypertrophy in response to injury: heart, brain, lungs.
heart
125
name places in body that are able to regenerate
cartilage, intestinal mucosa, liver cells, skin cells
126
Reticular connective tissue is a type of connective tissue. It has a network of reticular fibers, made of __-
type III collagen
127
the reticuloendothelial system aka mononuclear phagocyte system consists of bone marrow origin cells of monocytes and macrophages. they constitute all phagocytic cells of the body EXCEPT
granulocytes (WBC's w/granules aka polymorphonuclear leukocytes ) = neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells
128
1. mononuclear are granulocytes/agranulocytes.
| 2. polymorphonuclear leukocytes are?
1. agranulocytes
| 2. granulocytes
129
histiocytes
(FIXED) macrophages in CT
130
alveolar macrophages
aka dust cells = macrophages fixed in alveolar lining of the lungs aka reticulum cells
131
kupffer cells
line blood vessels of the liver
132
microglia
macrophage of cns
133
Gaucher's disease (most common)
Niemann Pick disease
Tay Sachs disease
Fabry's disease
1. these are all ___ disroders of the reticuloendothelial system classified as ___ diseases
2. most common in __ ancestory
3. caused by incomplete lysosomal breakdown of _
4. they are all autosomal __ diseases except __ which is X linked
1. inherited, lipid storage
2. Ashkenazi Jewish
3. sphingolipids
4. autosomal recessive, Fabry's = x linked
134
this disease is caused by deficiency in alpha-glactosidase
Fabry's disease
135
this disease is caused by deficiency in hexosaminidase A
Tay-Sachs disease = rapidly fatal
136
this disease is caused by deficiency in sphingomyelinase
Niemann-Pick disease
| die within a few years
137
this disease is caused by deficiency in beta glucocerebrosidase
Gaucher's disease
138
1. Tay–Sachs disease (also known as GM2 gangliosidosis or hexosaminidase A deficiency ) is a rare autosomal ____ genetic disorder. In its most common variant (known as infantile Tay–Sachs disease), it causes a progressive deterioration of nerve cells and of mental and physical abilities that commences around six months of age and usually results in death by the age of four. The disease occurs when harmful quantities of cell membrane components known as gangliosides accumulate in the brain's nerve cells, eventually leading to the premature death of the cells. A ganglioside is a form of sphingolipid, which makes Tay–Sachs disease a member of the sphingolipidoses. There is no known cure or treatment.
1. recessive
| 2.
139
1. ___disease is a genetic disease in which a fatty substance (lipid) accumulates in cells and certain organs. The disorder is characterized by bruising, fatigue, anemia, low blood platelets, and enlargement of the liver and spleen. It is caused by a hereditary deficiency of the enzyme glucocerebrosidase. This enzyme acts on the glycolipid glucocerebroside. When the enzyme is defective, glucosylceramide accumulates, particularly in white blood cells, most often macrophages (mononuclear leukocytes). Glucosylceramide can collect in the spleen, liver, kidneys, lungs, brain and bone marrow.
1. Gaucher's disease or Gaucher
140
____ disease refers to a group of inherited severe metabolic disorders that allow sphingomyelin to accumulate in lysosomes, which are organelles in animal cells. The severe form is fatal in toddlerhood; people with milder forms may live into their teens or young adulthood. This disease involves dysfunctional metabolism of sphingolipids, which are fats found in cell membranes, so it is a kind of sphingolipidosis. Sphingolipidoses, in turn, are included in the larger family of lysosomal storage diseases
Niemann–Pick
141
Fabry disease Fabry's disease, Anderson-Fabry disease, angiokeratoma corporis diffusum and alpha-galactosidase. A deficiency) is a rare genetic lysosomal storage disease, inherited in an ____manner.
X-linked
142
healing by 1st intention steps
1. within 24 hours clotted blood covers the incision and NEUTROPHILS accumulate
2. 24-48 hours EPITHELIAL BRIDGES cross the wound
3. 3 days: MACROPHAGES are dominant inflammatory cell
4. 5 days: epithelium reaches full thickness and CT bridges the wound
5. 2 weeks: inflammation subsides, blanching begins as increased collagenizaiton of wound progresses and vascularity lessens
6. 1month: inflammatory cells entirely absent
143
healing by 2intention
1. immediately hemostasis occurs and blood clot covers the surface allowing formation of scab
2. immediately- acute inflammatory response begins, including neut migration during first 24-48 hours. macrophages become dominant after. major phagocytes debride the wound. this acute response lasts until wound is completely debrided
3. days to 6 weeks, wound contraction occurs as myofibroblasts contract. wound contracts 5-10% of its size
4. days to weeks epithelim bridges surface
5. weeks to month- scar tissue continues to develop, collagenizaiton and remodeling and blanching
144
1. Dermatophytosis is a clinical condition caused by ___ infection of the skin in humans, pets such as cats, and domesticated animals such as sheep and cattle.
2. The term "ringworm", commonly used to refer to such infections, is a misnomer, since the condition is caused by __ of several different species and not by parasitic worms.
3. The fungi that cause parasitic infection (dermatophytes) feed on __, the material found in the outer layer of skin, hair, and nails.
1. fungal
2. fungal
3. keratin
145
Microporum
trichophyton
epidermophyton are __genera that cause ___
fungal, dermatophytosis
146
in dermatophytes: the pathogenic members of the keratinophilic soil fungi, infection occurs by contact with arthrospores which are___ or conidia which are
1. arthrospores = sexual/asexual spores formed in hyphae of the parasitic stage
2. conidia - sexual/asexual spores formed in free living stage
147
in humans dermatophytoses are referred to as __ infections
tinea
can spread to different locations: tinea corporis in children is result of tinea capitis that has spread to face
148
Tinea corporis is a ___ infection due to ___. It is also called ___ of the body
skin, fungi, ringworm
149
Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the ___. most often seen in
scalp,
| children
150
tinea barbae
fungal infection hairs and skin in beard and mustache
151
tinea faciei
non bearded parts of face
152
tinea cruri
infection of groin = jock itch
153
tinea pedis
athelete's foot - infection of foot
154
tinea manuum
dermatophyte infection of one or both hands
155
tinea unguium
dermatophyte infection of the nail
156
what is Griseofulvin
the most effective anti myotic-fungal agent used to treat skin infections such as jock itch, athlete's foot, and ringworm; and fungal infections of the scalp, fingernails, and toenails
157
fungi are eukaryotic and have a complex ___
cell wall
158
1. can fungi be gram stained? if so are they gram + or -.
| 2. they grow in __ medium
gram +
| Sabouraud's
159
fungi contain DNA or RNA?
BOTH DNA AND RNA.
160
Two types of fungi:
1. __ grow as single cells that reproduce by asexually budding.
2. __ are long filaments (hyphae) which from a mat-like structure referred to as mycelium
1. yeast
2. mold
Mycelium is the vegetative part of a fungus, consisting of a mass of branching, thread-like hyphae
161
1. some fungi are __ which means they form different structures at different temperatures
2. they exist as __ in the saprophytic, free living state at ambient temp
3. exist as __ In host tissue at body temperature
1. dimorphic
2. mold
3. yeast
162
Saprotroph?
a term used for organisms which obtain nutrients from dead organic matter
163
name the dimorphic fungi
blastomyces, histoplasma, coccidioides, sporothrix schenckii
Mnemonic: Body Heat Changes Shape
164
most fungi reproduce ASEXUALLY by forming asexual spores called ____ form the sides of structures called ___
conidia, conidiophores
165
zygospores, ascospores and basidiospores are sexual or asexual spores (conidia)
sexual
(some fungi reproduce by sexually mating and forming sexual spores)
ZAB
166
arthrospores, chlamydospores, blastospores, and sporangiospores are sexual or asexual fungal spores
asexual = (conidia)
CArBS
167
all fungi except zygomycetes are
septated
168
the cells of most fungi contain __ and _
chitin and b-1-3 linked glucan
169
Sterols (ergosterol) are found in the membrane of
fungi
170
most antifungals target the sterol (ergosterol) in cell membranes of fungus or the chitin/b-1:3 linked glucan of their cell wall
sterol
171
Sterols, are a subgroup of the steroids and an important class of organic molecules. They occur naturally in plants, animals, and fungi, with the most familiar type of animal sterol being cholesterol. Cholesterol is vital to animal cell membrane structure and function and a precursor to fat-soluble vitamins and steroid hormones. Sterols of plants are called phytosterols and sterols of animals are called zoosterols. The most important zoosterol is cholesterol. ___ is a sterol present in the cell membrane of fungi, where it serves a role similar to cholesterol in animal cells.
Ergosterol
172
Fungal infections initiate a type _ hypersensitivity reaction
4 delayed
173
T/F the formation of granulomas in response to fungal infection is common
true:
| Body Heat Changes Shape (dimorphic fungi) blastomyces, histoplasma, coccidiodes, sporothrix
174
telemorph
fungi form that forms sexual spores
175
unlike bacterial spores, most fungal spores are COMPLETELY KILLED when heated at __ degrees C for __ minutes
80C for 30 minutes
176
how do you convert degrees Fahrenheit (°F) or Celsius (°C aka centigrade)
°C x 9/5 + 32 = °F
177
the form of fungus producing sexual spores is teleomorph or anamorph
teleomeorph
178
anamorph
the form of fungus producing asexual spores
179
Fungi that produce BOTH SEXUAL AND ASEXUAL spores end in?
mycetes
ex zygomycetes
archiasomycetes etc
180
1. Asexual spore fungi?
| 2. sexual spore fungi?
1. CArBS and all end in spores: chlamydospores, arthrospores, blastospores, sporangiospores
2. ZAB and all end in "spore"
zygoSPORe ASCOspore BASIDIOspore
181
sporangiospores and conidia are asexual/sexual spores
asexual
182
conidia/sporangiospores are asexual spores produced in a structure call SPORANGIA and are characteristic of Zygomycetes class such as Rhizopus and Mucor
sporangiospores
183
conidia/sporangiospores are asexual spores borne naked as seen in Aspergillus, Penicillum and dermatophyts
conidia
184
(of a disease or condition) regularly found among particular people or in a certain area. found in a certain place and is ongoing
is called an endemic/epidemic
endemic
185
A disease that is endemic is found in a certain geographic region or in a specific race of people. Malaria is endemic to parts of Africa because it's hot and skeeters love it. Tay-Sachs is a genetic disease endemic to ___
Jews and French Canadians
186
1. An ___ disease is restricted to a place, as with malaria, or a people, as with Tay-Sachs. 2. An ___ disease may happen in a specific place, but it can spread beyond that place, as with asthma or AIDS
1. endemic
2. epidemic
Epidemic describes a disease that is widespread, affecting an "atypically large number of individuals within a population, community, or region at the same time
187
1. pandemic is an epidemic of infectious disease that has spread through human populations across a large region; for instance multiple continents, or even worldwide. NAME 2 PANDEMICS
Throughout history there have been a number of pandemics, such as smallpox and tuberculosis. More recent pandemics include the HIV pandemic as well as the 1918 and 2009 H1N1 pandemics. CURREN PANDEMIC: AIDS/HIV
188
1. Endemic mycoses are fungal infections caused by classic dimorphic fungal pathogens: histoplamsa, blastomyces, coccidiodies, paracoccodiodes. All of these dimorphic pathogens produce a primary infection in the --- with subsequent dissemination to other organs and tissues
lung.
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Coccidiodomycosis - infectious disease caused by inhaling spores of a fungus called
coccidiodies immitis AKA VALLEY FEVER OR SAN JOAQUIN FEVER starts off as respiratory illness - progresses to a persistent infection
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amphotericin fluconazole ketoconazole and itraconazole are
antifungals
note the azoles and amphotericin
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Blastomyces dermatitidis causes
blastomycosis aka Gilchrist's disease of north American blastomycosis
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Histoplasmosis caused by histoplasma capsulatum is found throughout the world and is an endemic in __
ohio and mississippi
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which dimorphic fungal pathogen infection is usually asymptomatic, can cause granulomatous, tuberculosis like infection
histoplasmosis
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in infected tissues, yeast cells of histoplasma capsulatum are found within what cells
macrophages
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Histoplasmosis resembles __ both clinically and pahtologically
TB
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histoplasma capsulatum produce what kind of spores?
chlamydospores (asexual)
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Histoplasmosis and blastomycosis are ___rarely/often acquired from another individual
rarely
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in humans, Malaria is caused by one of four protozoan species of the genus:
trichomonas
plasmodium
cryptosporidium
toxoplasma
plasmodium.
malaria is infectious disease caused by parasite plasmodium which infects red blood cells
The parasite always has two hosts in its life cycle: a mosquito vector and a vertebrate host.
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the most serious type of malaria:
Plasmodium falciparium
P. vivax
P. maleriae
P. ovale
Plasmodium Falciparium
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Amebiasis is illness of the __ caused by a __
1. intestines, parasite
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Entamoeba histolytica causes
amebiasis
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dysentery
bloody mucus containing diarrhea
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AMEBIC DYSENTERY (Amebiasis): parasite is ENTAMOEBA HISTOLYTICA
1. Intestinal illness
Most common mode of spreading: ___.
Presents as dysentery (bloody, mucus containing diarrhea) also produces abscess of ___.
Treated with metronidazole
Parasite exists in 2 forms in its life cycle: active parasite (trophozoite) and dormant parasite (cyst)
1. contaminated water
| 2. liver
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1. Trichomoniaisis is a __ disease of ___ in women and __ in men
2. is it common?
3. treatment?
4. what is the parasite
1. sexually, vagina = women, urethra in men
common cause of vaginitis
2. one of most common infections worldwide
3. metronidazole
4. trichomoniasis vaginalis
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Are Entamoeba histolytica and Trichomonias found in the oral cavity?
YES. THEY ARE NON PATHOGENIC THERE!
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The largest protozoan parasite of humans that infects the colon causing diarrhea with colic, nausea, and vomiting, bloody stools
Balantidium coli
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GIARDIASIS
Giardia lamblia
One of most common causes of waterborne disease found in both drinking and recreational water in humans in the USA. More common in male homosexuals and in pp who have traveled to developing countries. Treat with metronidazole
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TREAT all protozoan infections (parasite) with
metronidazole
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Parasites:
1. one of most common infection worldwide
2. most common waterborne disease in USA
3. 2 found in oral cavity where they are non pathogenic
4. liver abscess and dysentery causing
5. largest parasite in humans
1. trichomoniasis (sexually transmitted)
2. giardiasis lamblia
3. trichomoniasis and entamoeba histolytica
4. entamoeba histolytica
5. Balantidium coli
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which disease is acquired by ingesting undercooked meat containing tissue cysts or food contaminated by cat feces
toxoplasmosis (parasite)
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Cryptosporidium parvum (parasite) causes
watery diarrhea.
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Pneumocystis carinii causes
pneumocystis pneumonia in AIDS patients (immunocompromised) LUng disease that is often fatal.
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what parasitic disease do we treat with chloroquine mefloquine and primaquine
malaria (quiNe = MALARIA)
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candidiasis, hairy leukoplakia, and cryptosporidium enterocolitis are all opportunistic infections associated with __
immunocompromised patients (AIDS patients)
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most protozoa are ___ (oxygen uses) and replicate by
facultatively anaerobic, simple binary fission (merogony) Protozoal merogony is an asexual replication process used by some protozoan parasites that increases the number of infective cells by multiple cell divisions
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Helminths are a group of ___. They are __-like organisms living in and feeding on living hosts
eukaryotic parasites
| worm
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1. Largest intestinal parasite in humans are?
| 2. largest protozoan parasite in humans
1. Helminths
| 2. Balantidium coli
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helminthes reproduce __ sexually/asexually
sexually = lay millions of eggs/larvae
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Helminthes are very common in what country
developing countries
220
nematodes are
roundworms
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trematodes
flukes (flat leaf shaped worms)
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hookworms are
roundworms
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zoonotic nematodes which accidentaly infect man are not able to complete life cycle and become trapped in tissues causing
local inflammatory response
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strongyloides stercoralis are
human intestinal worms.
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1. Nematodes are __
2. Trematodes are __
3. Cestodes are
1. roundworms
2. flukes (leaf shaped)
3. tapeworms (ribbon shaped)
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An infestation is the presence of __ ON the body OR in the organs
parasites: ticks, mice, lice
| nematodes, worms
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Taenia are?
tapeworms Cestodes
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infections caused by nematodes cause marked __ in the blood
eosinophils.
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eosinophils attach to the surface of the parasites via
IgE and cytotoxic enzymes contained within their eosinophilic granules
