Bacteriology Flashcards
(311 cards)
1
Q
Number of bacterial morphology
A
4
2
Q
Unit of measurement for bacteria
A
Micrometer (microns)
3
Q
Unique component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria
A
Lipopolysaccharides
4
Q
They grow in the absence of O2 and obtain O2 from O2 containing compounds
A
Anaerobes
5
Q
Term used to denote “cold-loving” bacteria
A
Psychrophile / Cryophile
6
Q
Nutrient media is made of extracts of _____ & _____
A
Meats & soybeans
7
Q
Proper manner of dispensing culture media
A
Weigh agar
Dissolve agar in flask
Sterilize
Dispense into petri dish
8
Q
To dissolve the agar powder, pour half the amount of _____ in a vessel, then the _____ powder, then pour the rest of the _____
A
Water - agar - water
9
Q
Type of water used in preparing culture media
A
Deionized / Distilled water
10
Q
How to determine if an agar is completely dissolved?
A
Should be CLEAR (no particles)
11
Q
Phenylethylalcohol is added on certain media to inhibit
A
Gram (-) bacteria
12
Q
Why would thioglycollate broth be boiled for 10 minutes before being used?
A
To drive off oxygen
13
Q
In thioglycollate broth, organisms will grow only in the part where _____ concentration meets their needs
A
Oxygen
14
Q
__________ grow at the TOP of thioglycollate broth
A
Obligate aerobes
15
Q
__________ grow NEAR THE TOP of thioglycollate broth
A
Microaerophiles
16
Q
__________ grow at the BOTTOM of thioglycollate broth
A
Obligate anaerobes
17
Q
__________ & __________ grow in the ENTIRE thioglycollate broth
A
Facultative anaerobes & Aerotolerant anaerobes
18
Q
Added to the culture medium to tubes to provide and maintain an anaerobic environment
A
Mineral oil
19
Q
Composition of blood agar
A
Nutrient agar + 5% sheep blood
20
Q
How is chocolate agar prepared
A
Applying heat to blood agar to lyse RBC’s
21
Q
Thayer-Martin medium is basically an __________ agar
A
Enriched chocolate agar
22
Q
Clear medium for mycobacteria
A
Middlebrook 7H10 / 7H11
23
Q
Component in SDA that is used as energy source
A
Dextrose
24
Q
To make agar selective for fungi, what should be added on the medium?
A
Antibiotics + cycloheximide
25
Ideally, specimens should be transported to the laboratory within ___ hours of collection
2 hours
26
Suitable transport medium for bacteria and viruses
Stuart's medium
27
Indicates that Cary-Blair medium has reached an acidic pH and cannot be used
Indicator become YELLOW
28
True or false: Some viruses in urine, CSF, or blood can be transported in the specimen ITSELF
True
29
Inhibitor used in mannitol salt agar
7.5% NaCl
30
Purpose of reducing agent in a medium
Prevents oxidation
31
Function of tellurite
Inhibit normal flora
32
Inhibitor used in Salmonella-Shigella agar
Bile salts, brilliant green
33
Indicator used in XLD agar
Phenol red
34
H2S production, other than in TSI agar, requires an organic source of _____ and a source of_____
Sulfur; metal
35
Most commonly used inoculation method to isolate desirable bacteria
Streaking method
36
No. of quadrants on a culture medium streaked for stool culture
4
37
What is the reason for flaming the inoculation wire loop
To sterilize
38
Contained volume of inoculating loop
10 uL or 1 uL
(0.01 or 0.001 mL)
39
Contained volume of inoculating loop for urine cultures
1 uL
40
Dilution factor if 1 uL loop is used
1000
41
Dilution factor if 10uL loop is used
100
42
McFarland standard is used to
Adjust turbidity of inoculum
43
0.5 mL 1.175% BaCl2 + 99.5 mL 1% H2SO4 is a standard composition of
0.5 McFarland
44
pH of Mueller Hinton agar for antimicrobial susceptibility testing
7.2 to 7.4
45
After inoculation, how long should the Mueller-Hinton plates dry before adding the disks?
Within 15 minutes
46
Agar plates should be kept _____ whenever possible to prevent water from dripping into the agar surface
Inverted / Upside down
47
In Quebec colony counter, the colonies are presented against _____ background
Dark
48
In MH agar, what can cause increase resistance of P. aeruginosa to aminoglycosides?
Increased Ca and Mg
49
Effect of NON-DILUTED bacterial inoculum to antimicrobial susceptibility testing
False resistant (heavy inoculum)
50
Effect of TOO MUCH MOISTURE to antimicrobial susceptibility testing
Smaller zone
51
A zone within a zone of inhibition is caused by
Swarming phenomenon
52
What to do if swarming organisms produces zone in an antimicrobial susceptibility testing?
Ignore swarming
53
To isolate an organism from a liquid specimen, what method is used?
Pour plate
54
In the pour-plate method, how does amount of agar added affect the dilution?
Dilution is not affected
55
Filiform, echinulate, beaded, effuse, arborescent, and rhizoid are types of growth on
Agar slant
56
Most common method for determination of antimicrobial susceptibility testing
Kirby Bauer disk diffusion
57
It is the lowest concentration of antibiotic that INHIBITS microbial growth
Minimum inhibitory concentration
58
It is the lowest concentration of antibiotic that KILLS 99.9% of bacteria
Minimum bactericidal concentration
59
The zone diameter of inhibition is _____ related to the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
Inversely
60
Used to measure the zone diameter of inhibition
Ruler / Caliper
61
Most commonly used AUTOMATED instrument for antimicrobial susceptibility testing
Vitek 2
62
Resistant that resulted in the organism being resistant to an antibiotic
Biological resistance
63
Resistance wherein the antibiotic is no longer effective for clinical use
Clinical resistance
64
It has series of antibiotic concentrations for determining antimicrobial susceptibility in a broth
Broth dilution
65
It provides homogenous atmosphere to bring culture up to optimal conditions faster
Smart incubator
66
Incubator should be set at _____ to meet the temperature of most human pathogens
35C
67
Phase where bacterial cells INCREASE IN SIZE but not in number
Lag phase
68
Capnophilic organisms require how much CO2?
5-10%
69
It can be used as an alternative to anaerobic jar
Candle jar
70
Primary use of candle jar
Create atmosphere with approximately 3% CO2
71
% of gases in a microaerophile environment
5% O2; 10% CO2; 85% N2
72
% of gases in an anaerobic environment
5% CO2; 10% H2; 85% N2
73
Most common failure concerning GasPak jar
Inactivated catalyst
74
Smears of CSF are prepared from
CSF sediment
75
Correct order in Gram Staining
Crystal violet
Iodine
Alcohol
Safranin
76
Purpose of mordant in gram staining
Dye fixative
77
Most critical step in gram staining
Decolorization
78
Differentiation of Gram staining occurs during _____
Decolorization
79
Safranin is replaced by 0.1% fuschin to better visualize
Legionella spp.
80
Mordant used in Zeil-Neelsen acid fast stain procedure
Heat
81
Acid-fast stain that does not use heat as a mordant
Kinyoun stain
82
Difference between modified acid fast stain and regular acid fast stain
Weaker decolorizer
83
Stain retained by acid fast organism
Carbolfuchsin
84
Color of AFB
Pink / red
85
Color of non-AFB
Blue
86
Precaution to treat all human blood and other body fluids as potentially infectious
Standard precaution
87
Precaution to all human blood and all other body fluids containing visible blood
Universal precaution
88
DONNING
Gown
Mask
Goggles
Gloves
89
DOFFING
Gloves
Goggles
Gown
Mask
90
Check the face velocity of safety cabinets every
Month
91
Setting of RPMs on face of rheostat control on centrifuge is checked every
Month
92
Mask protects an individual from
Droplet nuclei
93
Respirator in the lab must have _____ if engineering controls are not feasible
HEPA filter
94
For the N95 respirator to be an effective barrier, it is essential that is is __________, yet comfortably on the face
Snug fit
95
Chain of infection requires a continuous link between
Source, mode of transmission, susceptible host
96
6 component (chain of infection)
Infectious Agent
Reservoir
Portal of Exit
Mode of Transmission
Portal of Entry
Susceptible Host
97
TRUE OR FALSE: Modes of infection transmission include direct contact, inhalation, ingestion and animal or insect vector bite
True
98
Parenteral inoculations, spills and splashes, ingestions, and inhalation of aerosols are the __________ of laboratory acquired infections
Major routes
99
__________ of microorganisms may result from needlestick, broken glass, animal bites and scratches on fingers
Direct inoculation
100
Generally, bacteria are attracted to a _____ environment
Moist
101
Safest method of sterilization
Autoclave
102
QC for autoclave; it dies after autoclave sterilization
Bacillus stearothermophilus
103
QC for dry heat oven
Bacillus subtilis var. niger
104
Morphology or B. Stearothermophilus used as an indicator of autoclave sterilization
Spores
105
Autoclave sterilization is based upon moist heat at ___ C under ___ psi for ___ minutes
121C under 15 psi for 15 mins
106
It is a fumigant used for COLD STERILIZATION of surgical instruments
Ethylene oxide
107
Disinfectant for machines that cannot be autoclaved or heated
Ethylene oxide
108
Term for "hospital acquired"
Nosocomial
109
Process of killing all pathogenic organisms but NOT bacterial spores
Disinfection
110
Process of killing all microorganisms INCLUDING highly resistance bacterial SPORES
Sterilization
111
Most effective method of sterilization
Autoclave
112
Surface disinfectant used for biosafety cabinets
10% bleach / Sodium hypochlorite solution
113
If chlorox is not available in the laboratory, what can be used as a substitute
Vinegar
114
Quarternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by
Organic material
115
Number of bacteria of Grade A milk BEFORE pasteurization
75,000/mL
116
Number of bacteria of Grade A milk AFTER pasteurization
15,000/ mL
117
Certified milk contains _____ or less bacteria per mL
10,000
118
Boiling is (sporicidal or non-sopicidal)
Non-sporicidal
119
Term that means safe to drink and safe to use for cooking
Potable
120
Concentration of H2O2 used for cleansing wounds
3% to 6%
121
Iodine in alcohol
Tincture of iodine
122
Iodophores are composed of iodine and _____
Detergents
123
_____ specimen may be used in blood cultures because it PREVENTS PHAGOCYTOSIS and NEUTRALIZES bactericidal effect of serum
SPS
124
Least responsible in specimen collection
Intern
125
Optimal time to collect blood cultures
Before the fever spikes
126
Most common compound used for skin disinfection for blood culture collection
70% ethanol followed by iodophore
127
Obtain samples from _____ venipuncture sites within 24 hours at least 1 hour apart
2-3
128
Ideally, all cultures should be obtained and sent _____ antibiotics are started
Before
129
Throat swab for anaerobic culture, what to do next?
Reject the specimen
130
Classification based on a, B, and y hemolysis is developed by?
Smith and Brown
131
Greening or browning of blood agar due to PARTIAL lysis of RBCs
Alpha hemolysis
132
COMPLETE clearing of blood agar
Beta hemolysis
133
NO hemolysis on blood agar
Gamma hemolysis
134
Small zone of alpha hemolysis surrounded by zone of beta hemolysis
Alpha-prime hemolysis
135
Viewing hemolysis on BAP uses what light?
Transmitted light
136
How often should catalase, oxidase, and coagulase reagents be tested?
1x day of use, when 1st opened
137
What test demonstrates this procedure: "put drop of reagent on colony" ; "rub colony on filter paper strip and add drop of reagent" ; "rub colony on filter paper containing reagent"
Oxidase test
138
Some citrate (+) organisms cause false (+) tube coagulase test because they use the _____ and release _____
Citrate; calcium
139
Test for identification of S. agalactiae, G. vaginalis, C. jejuni, and L. monocytogenes
Hippurate hydrolysis
140
Indicator in the methyl red test
Methyl red
141
Testing 3 amino acids in the decarboxylase test requires 4 tubes. Why?
1 tube is needed for control
142
Substrate in the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method
Nitrocefin
143
Positive reaction for beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosphorin method
Color change
144
#1 agent of diarrhea in the US and worldwide
Campylobacter jejuni
145
#1 agent of diarrhea in the PHILIPPINES
Salmonella entereditis
146
Food poisoning agents
S. aureus
B. cereus
C. botulinum
S. typhi
B. stearothermophilus
Latobacillus
147
Differentiates Staphylococcus from Micrococcus
LYSOSTAPHIN susceptibility
Staphylococcus (S) Micrococcus (R)
*LSS
148
Differentiates Staphylococcus and Micrococcus
BACITRACIN susceptibility
Staphylococcus (R) Micrococcus (S)
149
_____ toxin of S. aureus is DISRUPTS the smooth muscle in blood vessels & is TOXIC to erythrocytes, leukocytes, hepatocytes and platelets
Alpha
150
_____ toxin of S. aureus is a HEAT-LABILE sphingomyelinase, which CATALYZED hydrolysis of membrane phospholipids resulting in cell lysis
Beta
151
_____ toxin of Staphylococci is CYTOLYTIC to erythrocytes and demonstrates nonspecific membrane toxicity to other mammalian cells
Delta
152
_____ toxin of S. aureus may actually function in association with PANTON-VALENTINE leukocidin
Gamma
153
Spreading factor
Hyaluronidase / Duran-Reynal factor
154
Preferred method to differentiate S. aureus from S. epidermidis
Coagulase test
155
Causes endocarditis from prosthetic heart valves
Staphylococcus epidermidis
156
Causes UTI in young, sexually-active females; NOVOBIOCIN (R)
Staphylococcus saphrophyticus
157
Test to differentiate Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
Catalase test
158
Most common pathogen in throat cultures
Streptococcus pyogenes
159
Post-sequelae infection of Group A Streptococcus
Acute Glomerulonephritis and Acute Renal Failure
160
Antigenic, OXYGEN-LABILE; sub-surface hemolysis
Streptolysin O
161
Non-antigenic; OXYGEN-STABLE; surface hemolysis
Streptolysin S
162
Streptococcus associated with COLON CANCER
Streptococcus bovis
163
"Lancet-shaped" Gram-positive bacteria
Streptococcus pneumoniae
164
Phadebact test, Fluorescent antibody test, and Lancefield precipitin test are serologic test for confirmation of
Streptococci
165
Pneumococci resistant to penicillin should be tested for production of
Beta-lactamase
166
Positive result in the Quellung test
Capsular swelling
167
"Palisading", "picket fence", and "CHINESE LETTERS" appearance
Corynebacterium
168
Babes-Ernst granules are characteristics of
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
169
Flexible CALCIUM ALGINATE nasopharyngeal swab is the device of choice for recovery of?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
170
Test that detects Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin in vitro
Elek test
171
A normal flora found on skin and mucous membranes; Gram (+) bacteria with "L" AND "V" FORMS
Corynebacterium amycolatum
172
Gram (+); aerobic; nitrate (-); catalase (+); rapid urease; causes UTI
Corynebacterium urealyticum
173
Genera that produces spores
Bacillus and Clostridium
174
Causes flat sour spoilage
Bacillus stearothermophilus and Bacillus coagulans
175
Bacillus spp. that causes progressive ENDOPHTHALMITIS
Bacillus cereus
176
Specimen that is best for identifying Bacillus cereus as the cause of an outbreak
Food
177
Causes spoilage of bacon stored in vacuum-packed containers
Lactobacillus
178
Bacillus spp. used as bioterrorism agent
Bacillus anthracis
179
The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is made of
poly-D-glutamic acid
180
Microscopic appearance of B. anthracis on culture SMEAR
Bamboo pole
181
Bacillus anthracis susceptible to penicillin will produce what COLONY morphology
String of pearls
182
Tumbling/umbrella motility at 25C; causes meningitis; stillbirth; food poisoning
Listeria monocytogenes
183
Bacteria positive in Anton test
Listeria monocytogenes
184
Test to differentiate Listeria and Corynebacterium
Hippurate hydrolysis
Listeria (+) Corynebacterium (-)
185
Vitamin needed by anaerobes
Vitamin K
186
Reaction of Bacteroides fragilis to Kanamycin, Vancomycin, and Colistin
Resistant
187
Ethanol shock test is used to differentiate
Clostridium (+) and Bacteroides (+)
188
Lecithinase positive, tipase-negative demonstrated on egg yolk agar
Clostridium perfringens
189
Agent of clindamycin-associated pseudomembranous colitis
Clostridium difficile
190
Agent of gas gangrene
Clostridium perfringens
191
Agent of botulism, flaccid paralysis, FLOPPY BABY SYNDROME, SIDS; canned good bacteria
Clostridium botulinum
192
Agent of LOCKJAW; spastic paralysis
Clostridium tetani
193
Agent of big head in rams, causes wound infection
Clostridium sordellii
194
Anaerobic with terminal LOLLIPOP / tennis-racket shaped / DRUMSTICK spores
Clostridium tetani
195
Infants are infected by Clostridium botulinum through
Ingestion of spores in food
196
Anaerobic bacteria that serve as trigger for inflammatory acne
Propionibacterium acnes
197
Anaerobic bacteria that causes blood culture contamination
Propionibacterium acnes
198
SPS disk test is used to identify
Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
199
Agent of Whipple's disease
Tropheryma whipplei
200
"Ray fungus" ; lumpy jaw ; "MOLAR TOOTH" ; "SULFUR GRANULES" ; urease-negative
Actinomyces israelli
201
Extensive branching / aerial hyphae, lysozyme resistant, urease (+)
Nocardia
202
Branching gram positive, partially acid fast, does NOT hydrolyze casein, tyrosine, xanthine
Nocardia asteroides
203
Nocardia will grow on any media that does not contain
Antibiotics
204
Filamentous bacteria growing on tap water agar
Streptomyces spp.
205
Agent of Vincent's angina
F. necrophorum, Borrelia vincentii
206
IMVIC reaction is routinely used mostly for identification of
Enterobacteriaceae
207
All members of Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase _____ except for __________
Oxidase negative; Pleisiomonas shigelloides
208
LOA reaction of Klebsiella pneumoniae
Lysostaphin (+) Ornithine (-) Arginine (-)
209
Serological cross reactions may occur between isolates of Shigella and _____
Escherichia coli
210
E. coli that produces heat-labile and heat-stable toxins causing WATERY DIARRHEA
ETEC (Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli)
211
E. coli associated with the SHIGA TOXIN causing BLOODY DIARRHEA
EHEC (Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli)
212
COLORLESS colonies on sorbitol MacConkey agar; does not ferment sorbitol
0157:H7 Escherichia coli
213
Agent of granuloma inguinale
Klebsiella granulomatis
214
What type of assay is employed in TYPHIDOT?
ELISA
215
Most sensitive method of laboratory diagnosis of TYPHOID FEVER
Bone marrow culture
216
Specimens for Salmonella identification (1st) (2nd) (3rd) week of infection
1st: Blood
2nd: Stool
3rd: Urine
217
Test that can be used for the diagnosis of Vibrio cholerae infection
String test
218
Stool specimen suspected of containing Vibrio spp. should be collected and transported only in _____ medium
Cary-Blair medium
219
01 and 0139 are serogroups of what bacteria?
Vibrio cholerae
220
Susceptible to 0/129 disk
Vibrio cholera
221
0.5% sodium desoxycholate is a reagent used in
String test
222
Any organism that is indole (+) and nitrate reduction (+) is also
Cholera red (+)
223
Vibrio has a potential therapeutic resistance against what drug?
Trimethoprim-Sulfomethoxazole
224
Bacteria that causes eye infection from contact lens solution
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
225
Agent of "swimmer's ear"
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
226
Isolated on cystic fibrosis patients
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Burkholderia cepacia
227
Test to differentiate Streptophomonas maltophilia and Burkholderia gladioli
Lysine decarboxylase test (LDC)
228
Upper respiratory tract flora; non-hemolytic; GROWS ON CAP; requires V FACTOR
Haemophilus parainfluenzae
229
Agent of PAINFUL "soft chancre" or chancroid
Haemophilus ducreyi
230
Agent of PAINLESS "hard chancre"
Treponema pallidum
231
S. aureus provides what factor for growth of Haemophilus?
V factor
232
SATELLITISM occurs when an organism such as S. aureus, S. pmeumoniae, or Neisseria spp., produces
V factor
233
Example of microaerophilic bacteria
Campylobacter
234
Bacteria associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome
Campylobacter jejuni
235
Campylobacter requires how much CO2?
5-10%
236
Campylobacter, Helicobacter,and Arcobacter are all _____ shaped gram negative bacilli
Curved / comma-shaped
237
Curved bacteria with DARTING motility
Campylobacter
238
Most common cause of peptic ulcer
Helicobacter pylori
239
Best and most accurate method to confirm H. pylori infection
Biopsy
240
Organism that produces a positive UREA BREATH test
Helicobacter pylori
241
Test to differentiate Campylobacter and Helicobacter
Urease test and growth at 42C
242
Legionella associated with BCYE and PONTIAC FEVER
Legionella pneumophila
243
Agent of "whooping cough"
Bordetella pertussis
244
Specimen of choice for Bordetella pertussis
Nasopharyngeal swab
245
Test to differentiate Bordetella bronchiseptica and Alcaligenes fecalis
Nitrate and Urease
Bordetella (U+N+) Alcaligenes (U-N-)
246
Amino acid (s) required for growth of Francisella tularensis?
Cysteine and cystine
247
Microscope used for spirochete detection
Darkfield microscope
248
Weil's disease and jaundice are attributed to
Leptospira
249
Definitive test for Leptospirosis
Culture
250
Agent of Erythema migrans
Borrelia burgdorferi
251
Castañeda blood culture bottle is used to isolate
Brucella spp.
252
"Bang's bacillus" that causes abortion in cattle; CO2 positive; inhibited by thionine
Brucella abortus
253
Causes granulomatous disease in animals
Actinobacillus
254
Gram negative COFFEE/KIDNEY BEAN shaped diplococci; oxidase (+)
Neisseria
255
Neisseria spp. that can cause DIC
Neisseria meningitidis
256
"PPNG" stands for
Penicillinase-producing gonococci
257
PMNs with Gram (-) cocci from PURULENT DISCHARGE is suggestive of
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
258
Superoxol test is an initial test for
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
259
N. gonorrhoeae is very sensitive to DRYING and TEMPERATURE CHANGES, so it is best to plate cultures _____
Immediately
260
Nonpathogenic Neisseria is commonly found in _____ cultures
Nasopharyngeal
261
Recommended transport media for Neisseria
JEMBEC System
262
Test for presumptive identification of Moraxella catarrhalis isolated from middle-ear fluid
Beta-lactamase
263
_____ species can be differentiated by the time of growth, photo reactivity, and biochemical tests
Mycobacterium
264
Photoreactivity of Mycobacteria is grouped into 3:
1. Photochromogens
2. Scotochromogens
3. Nonchromogens
265
NTM colonies that develop pigment on EXPOSURE TO LIGHT are classified as
Photochromogen
266
NTM colonies that develop pigment in the DARK OF LIGHT are classified as
Scotochromogen
267
NTM colonies that DO NOT develop pigment in the dark or light are classified as
Nonphotochromogen
268
Acceptable specimens for Mycobacteriology culture
Respiratory specimens
Body fluids
Body tissues
269
Diagnosis of DSSM (Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy) shall only require submission of how many samples
2 samples
270
To sterilize inoculating loops and needles for sputum culture, dip them in __________ before flaming
70% alcohol with sand
271
>25 squamous epithelial cells seen on initial evaluation of sputum. This indicates
Sputum mixed with saliva
272
Produces SERPENTINE CORDS on broth cultures
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
273
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is niacin and nitrate reduction _____
Positive
274
TRUE OR FALSE: Acid-fast rods in a specimen from NASAL MUCOSA are a diagnostic point
False; NOT A DIAGNOSTIC POINT
275
M. fortuitum, M. chelonae, M. phlei, M. smegmatis are _____ growers Mycobacteria
Rapid
276
Test for rapid growing Mycobacteria
Arylsulfatase test
277
Growth inhibition using TCH is used to differentiate M. tuberculosis from
Mycobacterium bovis
278
Mycobacterium bovis belongs to _____ Mycobacteria (nontuberculous or tuberculous)
Tuberculous
279
Mycobacterium that CANNOT be grown in CELL-FREE culture media
Mycobacterium leprae
280
Lepromine test is a _____ test for Mycobacterium leprae
Skin test
281
Rickettsias are transmitted by _____
Arthropod vectors
282
Vector of Rickettsia prowazekii
Louse (squirrel flea / squirrel louse)
283
Rickettsiae not vector-borne associated
Coxiella burnetii
284
Best way to prevent Epidemic typhus
Bathe regularly; wear clean clothes
285
Gold standard method for detecting Rickettsial antibodies
IFA test & Micro-IF
(Immunofluorescence Assay)
286
OX-19 and OX-2 are derived from
Proteus vulgaris
287
OX-K is derived from
Proteus mirabilis
288
Agent of cat-scratch disease
Bartonella henselae
289
Agent of Oroya fever, Verruga peruana, Carrion's disease
Bartonella bacilliformis
290
Intracellular REPRODUCTIVE FORM of Chlamydia
Reticulate body
291
INFECTIOUS FORM of Chlamydia
Elementary body
292
How is Chlamydia trachomatis transmitted
Sexual contact; childbirth
293
TRIC stands for
Trachoma-inclusion conjunctivitis
294
McCoy cells are used to culture
Chlamydia trachomatis
295
Transport storage temperature for Chlamydia
4C
296
Small bacteria having a size close to viruses
Mycoplasma spp
297
Mycoplasmas are not true bacteria because
They lack cell wall
298
Agent of primary atypical pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
299
Agent that causes souring of milk
Lactobacillus spp.
Streptococcus lactis
300
Agent of yellow milk
Flavobacterium
Pseudomonas synxantha
301
Agent of blue milk
Pseudomonas syncyanea
302
Agent of blue-green milk
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
303
Agent of red milk
Serratia marcescens
304
Agent of stormy fermentation of milk
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium butyricum
305
Agent of ropy or slimy milk
Alcaligenis viscosus
306
Test to determine the completeness of milk pasteurization
Phosphatase test
307
Results in milk bacteriology are reported as
Total plate count
308
It uses four primers and a constant temperature coupled to a strand displacement reaction
Loop mediated isothermal amplification
309
It uses LASER EXCITATION to ionize chemical functional groups in the proteins of an organism
MALDI-TOF
310
MALDI-TOF MS means
Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption Ionization Time of Flight Mass Spectometry
311
Instrument maintenance records should be retained in the laboratory for how long?
For the life of the instrument
