Hematology Flashcards
(369 cards)
1
Q
Liquid portion of unclotted blood
A
Plasma
2
Q
Effective concentration of EDTA in evacuated tubes
A
1-2 mg/mL (1-2 g/L) of blood
3
Q
Anticoagulant for cardiopulmonary bypass, seen in OPEN HEART SURGERY
A
Heparin
4
Q
Anticoagulant used for platelet studies
A
Sodium citrate
5
Q
Ratio of citrate anticoagulant to blood
A
1:9
6
Q
Complement dependent test cannot be performed on _____ blood
A
Anti-coagulated
7
Q
The higher the gauge, the _____ the diameter of the needle
A
Smaller
8
Q
Avoid using the arm with fistula or cannula for venipuncture due to possibility of _____ or _____
A
Infection or clotting
9
Q
Once sufficient blood has been collected, release the tourniquet _____ withdrawing the needle
A
Before
10
Q
Release and remove the tourniquet as soon as blood flow is established or after no longer than ___ minute
A
1
11
Q
Phlebotomy complications
A
Vascular
Anemia
Neurologic
Dermatologic
Infection
Cardiovascular
12
Q
Type of light used by AccuVein
A
Near infrared
13
Q
Safest site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
A
Posterior iliac crest
14
Q
Manner of making a good smear (pushing the spreader slide)
A
Smooth and rapid
15
Q
Best area to review or perform a differential on a stained blood film
A
RBC mostly separated, few overlapping
16
Q
Scanning method on smears that minimize distribution errors
A
Battlement method
17
Q
If buffer is acidic, RBCs would be stained _____ ; if it is alkaline, RBCs would be stained _____
A
Acidic = too pink
Alkaline = too blue
18
Q
Blood smear appears bluer than normal. What indication?
A
Increased plasma proteins
19
Q
What happens to RBC if blood smear dries too slowly?
A
Crenated (echinocytes)
20
Q
Magnification of OIO
A
100x
21
Q
These are autoantibodies of the IgM class that react optimally at 4C
A
Cold agglutinins
22
Q
To avoid agglutination on PBS, the slide can be __________ prior to application of blood
A
Warmed to 37C
23
Q
ANTI-COAGULATED (heparinized) microhematocrit tube ring color
A
Red
24
Q
Speed of centrifugation for microhematocrit tube
A
10,000-15,000g
25
Difference between duplicate hematocrit readings should agree within ___ %
1%
26
Effect on insufficient centrifugation on hematocrit
False-increase
27
Microhematocrit method gives _____ hematocrit values than automated method
1-3% higher
28
WBC count, RBC count, hemoglobin, hematocrit and WBC differential
CBC (complete blood count)
29
Rule of 3
RBC x 3 = hemoglobin
Hemoglobin x 3 = hematocrit +/- 3%
30
Calculated rather than directly measured by automated instruments
Hematocrit, MCH, MCHC
31
Normal MCV value ; formula
80-100 fL
(HCT / RBC) x 10
32
Normal MCH value; formula
27-32 pg
(HGB / RBC) x 10
33
Normal MCHC value; formula
31-36%
(HGB / HCT) x 100
34
RBC index NOT AFFECTED by a defective centrifuge used to determine HCT
MCH
35
RBC index NOT USED in the classification of ANEMIA
MCH
36
Numerical expression that correlates with the degree of anisocytosis
RDW
37
Used in conjunction with RDW to determine the cause of anemia
MCV
38
Variation in cell SIZE is called
Anisocytosis
39
Variation in cell SHAPE is called
Poikilocytosis
40
Directly measures the VARIABILITY in platelet size
PDW
41
Normocytic, normochromic
Hemolytic anemia
Aplastic anemia
Leukemia
Acute blood loos
Sickle cell anemia
42
Microcytic, hypochromic
Sideroblast anemia
Iron deficiency anemia
Chronic blood loss
Anemia of chronic disease
Thalassemia
43
Macrocytic, normochromic
Megaloblastic anemia
Chronic liver disease
Bone marrow failure
Myelodysplastic syndrome
44
Compositional parts of the red bone marrow to the yellow bone marrow is called
Marrow cellularity
45
Hematopoiesis that occurs in the bone marrow
Medullary hematopoiesis
46
Sites of medullary hematopoiesis
Ribs
Sternum
Skull
Vertebrae
Pelvis (illiac crest)
Extremities of long bones
47
Hematopoiesis that does not occur in the bone marrow
Extramedullary hematopoiesis
48
Sites of extramedullary hematopoiesis
Liver
Spleen
Lymph nodes
49
Primary site of hematopoiesis during the 5th MONTH of fetal development
Liver
50
Early indication of ENGRAFTMENT SUCCESS after hematopoietic stem cell transplant
Immature reticulocyte and platelet functions
51
Primary cell source of erythropoietin (EPO)
Peritubular interstitial cells (kidney)
52
First type of cell produced by the developing embryo
Erythrocytes
53
Hemoglobin synthesis BEGINS at what erythroid stage
Basophilic normoblast
54
First erythroid stage in which the pink color associated with hemoglobin can be seen
Polychromatic normoblast (rubricyte)
55
Last stage in the erythroid series capable of mitosis
Polychromatic normoblast (rubricyte)
56
Enucleation occurs in what erythroid stage
Orthochromic normoblast (metarubricyte)
57
Last stage in the erythroid series capable of hemoglobin synthesis
Reticulocyte
58
N:C ratio during the RBC development
Decreases
59
In the RBC line, proportion of nucleus shrinks as the cell matures and cytoplasm _____ proportionately
Increases
60
Color of cytoplasm of immature or younger blast stages
Dark blue (basophilic)
61
Used to assess the erythropoietic activity
Reticulocyte count
62
Normal value for reticulocyte count in adult in %
0.5 - 1.5 %
63
Refers to DECREASE in number of erythroid precursors in the bone marrow; DECREASE RBC production
Insufficient erythropoeisis
64
Miller disc is an ocular device used to facilitate counting of
Reticulocytes
65
Absolute reticulocyte count
Reticulocyte (%) x RBC count (10^12/L)
66
Corrected reticulocyte count
Reticulocyte (%) x [Hematocrit (%) / 45]
67
Staining method used to stain and manually count reticulocytes
Supravital staining
68
Supravital stain (s) for reticulocytes
NMB (new methylene blue)
BCB (brilliant cresyl blue)
69
Supravital stains are important because the cell must be alive to see
Remaining RNA
70
Enzyme that incorporates Fe2+ in the center of protoplrphyrin
Ferrochelatase / heme synthetase
71
The greatest portion of operational body iron is normally contained in what compound?
Hemoglobin
72
A hemoglobin molecule is composed of how many heme and globin
4 heme, 4 globin
73
How many iron atom (s) and pyrole ring (s) comprise the HEME portion of hemoglobin molecule
1, 4
74
1 hemoglobin molecule can carry _____ O2 molecules
4
75
Embryonic hemoglobins
Gower I
Gower II
Portland
76
Deoxyhemoglobin is a (n) _____ hemoglobin
Normal
77
1 gram of hemoglobin can carry _____ oxygen
1.34 mL
78
It demonstrates relationship between pH and Hgb affinity to O2
Bohr effect
79
MAUVE LAVENDER blood color; NOT MEASURED by cyanmethemoglobin method
Sulfhemoglobin
80
CHERRY RED blood color is due to
Carboxyhemoglobin
81
BRIGHT RED blood color is due to
Oxyhemoglobin
82
CHOCOLATE BROWN blood color is due to
Methemoglobin
83
Anticoagulant for methemoglobin determination
EDTA or Heparin
84
Shift to the RIGHT O2 dissociation curve
Decreased (O2 affinity and pH)
Increased (temperature, 2,3-DPG, and CO2)
85
Shift to the LEFT O2 dissociation curve
Increased (O2 affinity and pH)
Decreased (temperature, 2,3-DPG, and CO2)
86
Sodium potassium pump regulates concentrations of Na and K; maintaining intracellular to extracellular ratios of _____ & _____, respectively
Intracellular (Na : K) = 1:12
Extracellular (Na : K) = 25:1
87
Pathway that generates 2,3-DPG
Rapoport-Luebering
88
Pathway that generates 2 ATP molecules
Embden-Meyerhoff
89
Pathway that maintains hemoglobin IRON into ferrous state
Methemoglobin reductase
90
Pathway that generates reduced GLUTATHIONE that prevents hemoglobin denaturation
Pentose-phosphate (HMS)
91
Enzyme deficiency associated with DRUG-INDUCED hemolytic anemia
G6PD deficiency
92
G6PD deficiency affects what RBC metabolic pathway
Hexose monophosphate (PPP)
93
Haptoglobin levels in intravascular hemolysis
Decreased
94
Type of poikilocyte seen in autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)
Spherocytes
95
Wavelength used in cyanmethemoglobin method
540 nm
96
Drabkin's reagents contains
Potassium ferricyanide
Potassium cyanide
Dihydrogen potassium phosphate
Distilled H2O
Surfactant
97
LIPEMIA can be corrected by adding ___ mL of plasma to ___ mL of cyanmethemoglobin reagent (then use this as reagent blank)
0.01 mL ; 5mL
98
Reagent that converts methemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin
Potassium cyanide
99
PLATELET COUNT that indicates the need to adjust Drabkin's reagent
>700 x 10^9 / L
100
WBC COUNT that indicates the need to adjust Drabkin's reagent
>20 x 10^9 / L
101
In normal adult, this acts as the site of removal of IMPERFECT AND AGED CELLS
Spleen
102
Removal of RBC INCLUSIONS by the spleen
Pitting
103
Removal of AGED/SENESCENT RBCs by the spleen
Culling
104
Reference range for ESR in MALE 50 years of age and BELOW
0-15 mm/hr
105
Reference range of ESR in MALE ABOVE 50 years of age
0-20 mm/hr
106
Reference range for ESR in FEMALE 50 years of age and BELOW
0-20 mm/hr
107
Reference range of ESR in FEMALE ABOVE 50 years of age
0-30 mm/hr
108
Relationship between ESR and RBS mass
Directly proportional
109
Relationship between ESR and plasma viscosity
Inversely proportional
110
Effect of overanticoagulation on ESR results
Decreased
111
Preferred anticoagulant for the osmotic fragility test
Heparin
112
Osmotic fragility of SICKLE CELLS and TARGET CELLS
Decreased
113
Osmotic fragility of spherocytes
Increased
114
Initial hemolysis of NORMAL RBCs in OFT will begin at what NaCl concentration
0.45%
115
Initial hemolysis of SICKLE CELLS in OFT will begin at what NaCl concentration
0.35%
116
Complete hemolysis of SPHEROCYTES in OFT will begin at what NaCl concentration
0.45%
117
Cell with a characteristic CENTRAL hemoglobinized area
Codocytes
118
Thin variant of codocyte
Leptocyte
119
Also known as punched-out cell
Anulocyte
120
This poikilocyte is formed due to imbalance between RBC and plasma lipids
Acanthocyte
121
Poikilocyte associated with abetalipoproteinemia
Acanthocyte
122
RBC membrane folded over (folded cell) is associated with what disease?
Hb C disease, Hb SC disease
123
RBC inclusion resembling "Washington monument" or "gold bar"
Hb C crystal
124
RBC inclusion stained by supravital, wright, and FEULGEN
Howell-jolly bodies
125
RBC inclusion composed of denatured/precipitated hemoglobin
Heinz bodies
126
Howell-jolly bodies are nuclear fragments containing
DNA
127
Heinz bodies are associated with
G6PD deficiency, unstable hemoglobin, favism
128
"Bite cells" are usually seen in what condition
G6PD deficiency
129
They contain aggregates of RIBOSOMES and degenerating mitochondria
Basophilic stippling
130
RBC inclusion body associated with pyrimidine-5'-nucleotidase deficiency
Coarse basophilic stippling
131
RBC inclusion seen in LEAD POISONING
Coarse basophilic stippling
132
Stippling seen in polychromatophilia
Fine basophilic stippling
133
Abnormal IRON GRANULES found inside RBCs, visible with Wright stain
Pappenheimer bodies
134
Polycythemia patient treated by phlebotomy will develop _____ deficiency
Iron
135
Most commonly encountered type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)
Warm AIHA
136
Antibody frequently seen in patients with warm AIHA
Anti-e
137
Anemia with BONE MARROW INFILTRATION by tumor cells
Myelophthisic anemia
138
Anemia due to DECREASED DNA SYNTHESIS, resulting in OVAL AND MACROCYTIC red cells
Megaloblastic anemia
139
Anemia caused by FAILURE TO PRODUCE RBCs, WBCs and platelets
Aplastic anemia
140
Anemia characterized by IRON LOADING and its accumulation in the mitochondria
Sideroblastic anemia
141
Anemia caused by IMPAIRED PRODUCTION of protoporphyrin
Sideroblastic anemia
142
RBC containing IRON GRANULES stained with Prussian blue is known as
Siderocyte
143
1st laboratory test that is abnormal in early stages of IDA
Serum ferritin
144
High TIBC and free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP)
Iron deficiency anemia
145
Marker useful in diagnosis of IDA as well as an EARLY INDICATOR OF RECOVERY after iron therapy
Reticulocyte hemoglobin content
146
Binds FERROPORTIN and TARGETS IT for degradation, resulting to decrease circulating iron
Hepcidin
147
Anemia with SHORT STATURE, hypogonadism, skin pigmentation, organ malfunction
Fanconi anemia
148
Also known as congenital aplastic anemia
Fanconi anemia
149
Also known as congenital pure red cell aplasia
Diamond-Blackfan anemia
150
__________ and __________ deficiencies may cause megaloblastic anemia
Vitamin B12 and folic acid
151
It differentiates Vitamin B12 deficiency (⬆️) from folate deficiency (N)
MMA (serum methylmalonic acid)
152
H. pylori infection may also cause _____ anemia
Megaloblastic
153
Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency hinder erythroblast in manufacturing _____
DNA
154
Factor deficient in pernicious anemia
Intrinsic factor
155
MCV in megaloblastic anemia
Increased
156
Growth factor GIVEN in cases of anemia due to chronic kidney disease
Erythropoietin
157
QUANTITATIVE globin chain defect (reduced globin synthesis)
Thalassemia
158
QUALITATIVE globin chain defect (amino acid substitutions)
Hemoglobinopathy
159
Glutamic acid on the 6th position of beta chain is replaced by VALINE
Hemoglobin S
160
Glutamic acid on the 6th position of beta chain is replaced by LYSINE
Hemoglobin C
161
Glutamic acid on the 26th position of beta chain is replaced by LYSINE
Hemoglobin E
162
Glutamic acid on the 121st position of beta chain is replaced by LYSINE
Hemoglobin O
163
Glutamic acid on the 121st position of beta chain is replaced by GLUTAMINE
Hemoglobin D
164
Bluish discoloration of the skin is termed
Cyanosis
165
Major cause of death in sickle cell anemic patients
Bacterial infection (due to autosplenectomy)
166
Traditional sickling test that involves formation of HOLLY-LEAF appearance of RBCs
Metabisulfite test
167
Screening test for PNH
Sugar water, sucrose hemolysis
168
Confirmatory test for PNH
Ham's test (old), flow cytometry
169
Anticoagulant for sugar water screening and sucrose hemolysis test
Citrate
170
Evaluates sensitivity of patient's blood to complement-mediated lysis
Ham's acidified serum test
171
In HAM's test, when patient has received transfusions, less _____ occurs because of the transfused normal RBCs
Lysis
172
Primary target cells of G-CSF
Neutrophil precursors
Fibroblasts
Leukemic myeloblasts
173
Cytokines involved in stem cell mobilization
G-CSF
GM-CSF
IL-3
174
Dendritic cells and lymphocytes (B, T, NK cells) originated from what cell
Common lymphoid progenitor
175
3 pools of the developing neutrophils in the bone marrow
Stem cell pool
Proliferation pool
Maturation pool
176
Granulopoiesis takes about ___ days from the blast stage to the release of mature granulocytes
14
177
It has a curved nucleus with MORE THAN 1/2 nuclear indentation
Band cell
178
Primary / azurophilic / nonspecific granules begin to appear on what stage
Promyelocyte
179
Myelocytic stage where a given granulocyte can be identified
Myelocyte
180
Myelocytic stage where the cell begins to produce secondary / specific granules
Myelocyte
181
Last stage in the myelocytic series capable of mitosis
Myelocyte
182
Myelocytic stage where the cell has KIDNEY or BEAN-SHAPED nucleus
Metamyelocyte
183
Youngest cell in the peripheral blood, with SAUSAGE-SHAPED nucleus
Band cell
184
Once metamyelocyte stage has been reached, cells have undergone _____ cell divisions and the proliferation phase comes to an end
4 or 5
185
Should band cells be included within neutrophil counts?
Yes
186
Color of eosinophil cytoplasm
Orange-red
187
Mature basophils are myeloperoxidase (positive or negative)
Negative
188
Phagocytic cell (s) containing lysozyme
Neutrophils, monocytes
189
Precursor of macrophage
Monocyte
190
The MATURE MONOCYTE spends about ___ hours in the peripheral blood before going to the tissues
12
191
Corrected WBC count formula
(WBC count x 100) / (#nRBCs + 100)
192
Neutrophil count is high in the _____ and low in the _____ at rest
High = afternoon
Low = morning
193
3-part differential includes
Granulocytes
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
194
5-part differential includes
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
195
If >10% eosinophils, >2% BASOPHILS, >11% monocytes and more lymphocytes than neutrophils (except in children), use a
200-cell differential
196
What condition shows an AMETH-SCHILLING COUNT or shift to the left
Infection
197
PALE BLUE WBC INCLUSIONS of ribosomal RNA caused by infections, burns, and toxic states
Dohle bodies
198
Lazy leukocyte syndrome affects what blood cell
Neutrophil
199
Characterized by the presence of DEFECTIVE LYSOSOMES in WBCs
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
200
Characterized by the presence of "PINCE-NEZ" nulceus in WBCs
Pelger-Huet anomaly
201
Pelger-Huet anomaly is most frequently seen in the _____ state
Heterozygous
202
Pelger-Huet anomaly must be differentiated from shift to the _____ increase in immature WBCs
Left
203
_____ granules are peroxidase-negative and PAS-positive
Alder-Reilly granules
204
What anomaly is associated with mucopolysaccharidosis
Alder-Reilly
205
Alder-Reilly bodies are found in what organelle
Lysosomes
206
Dohle bodies are inclusion seen in
WBCs
207
Toxic granulations may be observed in what condition
Leukemoid reaction, infection, inflammation
208
These are needle-shaped bodies composed of lysosomal material and fused primary (azurophilic) granules
Auer rods
209
Auer rods are NOT seen in _____, but they may be seen in myeloblasts, promyelocytes, and monoblasts
Lymphoblasts
210
Individual globules of immunoglobulin in plasma cells are known as
Russel bodies
211
Accumulation of SPHINGOMYELIN due to sphingomyelinase deficiency
Niemann-pick disease
212
Niemann-pick cella are of what cell type
Macrophage
213
What accumulates in Gaucher disease
Glucocerebrosides
214
Monocyte or macrophage that is positive with PAS stain
Gaucher cell
215
REED-STERNBERG cells are seen in
Hodgkin's lymphoma
216
FLOWER CELLS are associated with what disease
Adult T-cell leukemia / lymphoma
217
POPCORN CELLS are associated with what disease
Lymphocye-predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma
218
Mycosis fungoides is a cutaneous lymphoma of what cell type
T lymphocyte
219
Cell increased in CLL (chronic lymphocytic leukemia)
Smudge cell
220
Characteristics of reactive lymphocytes
High N:C ratio
Prominent nucleoli
Basophilic cytoplasm
221
Test for CGD (chronic granulomatous disease)
Nitroblue tetrazolium dye
222
Disease characterized by absolute increase in TOTAL RBC MASS
Polycythemia vera
223
Level of vitamin B12 binding capacity in polycythemia vera
Increased
224
An increase in BASOPHILS can be seen
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
225
Prognosis in the PRESENCE of philadelphia chromosome (seen in CML)
Good
226
Prognosis in the ABSENCE of philadelphia chromosome (seen in CML)
Poor
227
Philadelphia chromosome results from translocation between chromosomes ___ & ___
9 and 22 (long arms)
228
Term denoting shift to the left increase in immature WBCs accompanied by nRBCs
Leukoerythroblastosis
229
Dacryocytes are associated with what condition
Myelofibrosis
230
Bone marrow malignancy is termed
Myeloma
231
An M:E ratio of 10:1 is most often seen in
Leukemia
232
ALL and AML cause _____ change in blood picture
Abrupt
233
CLL and CML cause _____ change in blood picture
Gradual
234
Percentage of BLAST for acute leukemia diagnosis according to WHO
More than or equal to 20%
235
Percentage of BLAST for acute leukemia diagnosis according to FAB
More than or equal to 30%
236
FAB classification of ALL is based on
Morphology
237
On PBS, many erythrocytes and myeloblasts seen. What FAB class
M6
238
(+) TRAP is seen in
Hairy cell leukemia
239
Alternative anticoagulant for LAP staining
Heparin
240
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) and myeloperoxidase (MPO) tests require _____ sample
Fresh
241
Bone marrow or blood smears need NOT to be fresh to obtain good results with the __________ stain
Sudan black B
242
Increases LAP score
Leukemoid reaction
3rd trimester pregnancy
Myelofibrosis
Polycythemia vera
243
Decreased LAP score
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
PNH
244
Old method used in the identification of leukemias
Cytochemical staining
245
Stain stored in the DARK
Periodic-acid-Schiff (PAS)
246
Cytochemical stain positive in L1, L2, and M6
PAS
247
Stain that is used to differentiate AML and AMoL from ALL
(Myelo)peroxidase
AML/AMoL (+) ALL (-)
248
Stain that is used to differentiate AML and AMLL from ALL
Sudan Black B
AML/AMLL (+) ALL (-)
249
TdT and PAS stains are positive in _____ and negative in _____ (what leukemia?)
ALL (+) ; AML (-)
250
Terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is present in what cells
Precursor B and T lymphoid cells
251
Higher-than-average risk of malignancy in the hematopoietic system (what profession?)
Chemist
Radiologist
Rubber industry worker
Woodworker
252
Involves blood vessels and platelets; formation of PLATELET PLUG
Primary hemostasis
253
Involves coagulation factors; formation of FIBRIN CLOT
Secondary hemostasis
254
Process of formation of thrombocytes in the bone marrow
Thrombopoiesis
255
Number of platelet stages
6
Megakaryoblast
Promegakaryocyte
Granular megakaryocyte
Mature megakaryocyte
Metamegakaryocte
Platelets
256
The maturation of cells of the megakaryocytic system has been divided into _____ stages
Four
257
In _____, the more mature a cell is, the more nucleus it has
Megakaryopoiesis
258
Hormone and cytokines that control megakaryopoiesis
TPO, IL-3, IL-6, IL-11
259
Least mature platelet progenitor
BFU-Meg
260
Most mature platelet progenitor
LD-CFU-Meg
261
Least differentiated platelet precursor
Megakaryoblast (MK-I)
262
Largest cell in the bone marrow
Megakaryocyte
263
Cell that undergoes the first stage of endomitosis
LD-CFU-Meg
264
Stage in the megakaryocytic series where THROMBOCYTES ARE ALREADY VISIBLE
Metamegakaryocyte
265
Cell with maturation time of 5 days and life span of 8-11 days
Platelets (thrombocytes)
266
TRUE OR FALSE: Platelets are NOT true cells
True; they are fragments of cytoplasm derived from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow
267
Major source of energy of platelets
Glucose
268
Process of STICKING platelets to SURFACES such as sub-endothelial collagen
Platelet adhesion
269
Process of STICKING platelets to ONE ANOTHER
Platelet aggregation
270
Some coagulation factors are stored in what part of the platelet structure
Alpha granules
271
Contents of platelet DENSE GRANULES
*CAMPAS
Calcium
ATP
Magnesium
Pyrophosphate
ADP
Serotonin
272
It reflects the number and quality of platelets, fibrinogen concentration, fibrinolytic activity, and packed red cell volume
Clot retraction
273
Site of platelet sequestration
Spleen
274
In uremia, platelet function is impaired due to high levels of
Nitrite oxide
275
Known as the "GIANT PLATELET SYNDROME"
Bernard Soulier Syndrome
276
Characteristic of platelets in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Extremely small
277
vWD and Benard-Soulier syndrome have defects in what platelet function
Platelet adhesion
278
Aspirin inhibits what enzyme
Cyclooxygenase
279
Defect in platelet aggregation due to lack of Gp IIb/IIIa complex
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
280
Platelet satellitosis may occur using what anticoagulant
EDTA
281
Remedy for platelet satellitosis
Uses sodium citrate (then result x 1.1)
282
Diluent for platelet count using phase contrast microscope
1% ammonium oxalate
283
Degree of thrombocytopenia is _____ proportional to the number of blood units transfused
Directly
284
MASSIVE TRANSFUSION may cause thrombocytopenia because of the _____ of the platelets by RBC transfusion
Dilution
285
The earliest hematological change in acute blood loss is a transient fall in the _____ count
Platelet
286
Reticulated platelets are seen in what condition
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
287
Effect of splenectomy on platelet count
Increased
288
Effect of splenomegaly on platelet count
Decreased
289
Vomiting of blood
Hematemesis
290
Leakage of large amount of blood into tissues around venipuncture site
Hematomas
291
Seepage of blood into large areas of skin but not into deep tissues (>1cm)
Ecchymosis
292
Ecchymosis would suggest a deficiency in
Platelets
293
Hemorrhage of blood into small areas of the skin (3 mm)
Purpura
294
Pinpoint hemorrhagic spots
Petechiae
295
EPISTAXIS, petecchiae, purpura, ecchymosis, gum bleeding, hematemesis, and menorrhagia are symptoms of
Primary hemostasis defect
296
Coagulation factors that function as SERINE PROTEASES
II, VII, IX, X, XI, XII, Prekalekrain
297
Coagulation factors that function as COFACTORS
III, V, VIII, HMWK
298
Coagulation factor that function as TRANSGLUTAMINASE / TRANSAMIDASE
XIII
299
What is Factor IIa
Thrombin
300
Substrate of thrombin
Factor 1
301
Fibrinogen increases by _____ per decade
10 mg/dL
302
Coagulation factors activated at COLD TEMPERATURE
Factor VII and XI
303
LABILE coagulation factors
Factor V and VIII
304
Coagulation factor that plays a role in coagulation, in VITRO, but not in vivo
XIIa
305
What cell (s) produce (s) von Willebrand factor
Endothelial cells and megakaryocytes
306
von Willebrand factor carries what coagulation factor
Factor VIII
307
Most common inherited coagulation factor deficiencies
vWD, Hemophilia A and B
308
Coagulation factor deficiency commonly found in ASHKENAZI JEWS
Factor XI deficiency
309
Coagulation factor deficiency associated with menorrhagia
vWD
310
Factor XIII deficiency will yield normal coagulation tests except
Duckert's test (5M urea solubility test)
311
Proteins C and S degrade what coagulation factors
Va and VIIIa
312
Normal agglutination response to epinephrine, collagen, ADP, but ABNORMAL response to RISTOCETIN
vWD and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
313
NORMAL agglutination response to RISTOCETIN, but abnormal response to epinephrine, collagen, ADP
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
314
Normal anticoagulant circulating in the body
Heparin
315
In vivo and in vitro anticoagulant
Heparin
316
Treatment for heparin overdose
Protamine sulfate
317
Heparin therapy causes _____ thrombin time results
Prolonged
318
Bleeding time measures what platelet function (s)
Adhesion and aggregation
319
BLEEDING time result in factor X deficiency
Normal
320
CLOTTING time result on partially clotted blood sample
Shortened
321
Effect of UNDERFILLED TUBE on clotting time results
Prolonged (due to excess anticoagulant)
322
Fibrinogen level in dysfibrinogenemia
Normal
323
PT and APTT results in polycythemia vera
Both prolonged
324
PT and APTT are prolonged when fibrinogen levels fall below
100 mg/dL
325
Prolonged PT and APTT not corrected by normal plasma. What indication
Circulating (lupus) anticoagulant
326
Prolonged APTT, PT, and TT, LOW platelet count. What is the diagnosis?
DIC
327
Other names for DIC
Consumption coagulopathy
Defibrination syndrome
328
BETHESDA, platelet neutralization and Dilute Russell viper venom are tests for
Lupus anticoagulant
329
Test for quantitating Factor VIII inhibitor
Bethesda assay
330
Sensitive early marker for Factor VII activity in mild liver disease
Prothrombin time
331
PT is performed at what temperature
37C
332
Purpose of thromboplastin in the PT test is to provide _____ to the assay
Phospholipoprotein
333
The thromboplastin in the PT reagent is derived from what organ
Rabbit brain or lung
334
Visual detection of fibrin clot formation
Tilt-tube method
335
Patient ingested RAT POISON, what test to order to test its effect on coagulation mechanism
PT
336
This is used to monitor patients undergoing WARFARIN THERAPY
PT (INR)
337
This is used to monitor patients undergoing unfractionated HEPARIN THERAPY
APTT
338
Specimens for PT should be tested within
24 hours (no unfractionated heparin)
339
Specimens for APTT should be tested within
4 hours (no unfractionated heparin)
340
Patients under heparin therapy may produce antibodies against
PF4 (platelet factor 4)
341
4.5 mL blue top filled with 2.0 mL blood was sent to the lab for PT and APTT. What to do?
Reject the sample (underfilled tube)
342
How to prepare platelet poor plasma (PPP)
Centrifuge blood for 15 mins at 1500g
343
INR is used to standardize _____ results. The INR calculation uses the international sensitivity (ISI) value
PT
344
The closer the ISI to ___, the more sensitive the reagent is; the higher the ISI, the less sensitive the reagent is
1
345
Euglobulin clot lysis time is a _____ procedure for the measurement of FIBRINOLYTIC ACTIVITY
Screening
346
D-dimer is produced from
Crosslinked and stabilized fibrin clot
347
Effect of microcytosis on platelet count using automated counters
Spurious increase
348
Automation principle that uses 2 electrodes to determine cell size
Electrical impedance
349
Directly counted by the electrical impedance instrument
RBC, WBC, Platelets, Hgb, Reticulocytes
350
Forward light scatter measures
Cell size
351
Side angle or 90 degrees scatter measures
Cytoplasmic granularity
352
Printed on the electrical impedance written report
Scattergram, histogram, flagging
353
If the cells are larger than normal, the histogram curve will be more to the
Right
354
If the cells are smaller than normal, the histogram curve will be more to the
Left
355
RBCs with NORMAL RDW are HOMOGENOUS in character and exhibit ___ anisocytosis on PBS
Very little
356
RBCs with INCREASED RDW are HETEROGENOUS in character and exhibit ___ anisocytosis on PBS
High degree
357
Principle of Coulter counter and Sysmex counter
Electrical impedance
358
Principle of Technicon Autoanalyzer
Optical light scattering
359
Values derived from RBC histogram
MCV, RDW
360
Values derived from PLATELET histogram
MPV, PDW
361
MPV should be measured at what time period
1-3 (1-4) hours after collection
362
If platelet count is low, the MPV is usually
High (inversely proportional)
363
Effect (s) of AUTOAGGLUTINATION on RBC parameters
Decrease RBC count and hematocrit
Increase MCV and MCHC
364
Effect (s) of COLD AGGLUTININS on RBC parameters
Decrease RBC count and hematocrit
Increase MCV and MCHC
365
Most common problem in cell counting, causing an increase in current
Aperture plugs
366
4 components of flow cytometer
Fluidics
Optics
Computer
Electronics
367
Applications of flow cytometry
Cell sorting
Cellular identification
368
Process of selecting a population of interest as defined by >1 flow cytometric pattern
Gating
369
Ohm's law formula
Voltage (V) = current (I) x resistance (R)
