Immunology Flashcards

(144 cards)

1
Q

Term used when an individual received SAME ALLELES from both parents

A

Homozygous

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2
Q

Chinese way of immunization (variolation) with smallpox

A

Inhalation of skin crust

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3
Q

Normal human has how many pairs of autosomes

A

22

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4
Q

The practice of deliberately exposing an individual to material from smallpox lesions

A

Variolation

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5
Q

Cowpox vaccine does prevent smallpox from developing. This is called

A

Cross-immunity

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6
Q

Injection of antibodies produced by ANOTHER INDIVIDUAL is an example of what immunity

A

Passive artificial

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7
Q

Normal biota means

A

Normal flora

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8
Q

Primary lymphoid organs

A

Thymus and bone marrow

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9
Q

Secondary lymphoid organs

A

Spleen, lymph nodes, Peyer’s patches

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10
Q

B cells develop in the

A

Bone marrow

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11
Q

T cells are located primarily in the _____ of the spleen

A

Periarteriolar sheath

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12
Q

Double negative thymocytes are

A

Immature T cells

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13
Q

CD that appears during 1st stage of T cell development and present as an identifying marker for T cells

A

CD2

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14
Q

CD markers found on MATURE, peripheral helper T cells

A

CD2, CD3, CD4

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15
Q

Population of T lymphocytes in the peripheral blood

A

60-70%

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16
Q

Population of B lymphocytes in the peripheral blood

A

10-20%

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17
Q

Population of NK cells in the peripheral blood

A

10-15%

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18
Q

What is the body’s general response to injury and infectious agent

A

Inflammation

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19
Q

Most important defense of the body against fungal infections

A

Cell-mediated immunity

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20
Q

Cell that stimulates transformation of B cell into plasma cell

A

Helper T cells

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21
Q

Cell that express the CD8 marker and acts to kill tumors or VIRALLY infected cells

A

T cytotoxic

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22
Q

What molecule on the surface of most T cells recognizes antigen

A

TcR, consisting of two chains, alpha and beta

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23
Q

A soluble protein mediator released by sensitized lymphocytes on contact with an antigen

A

Lymphokine

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24
Q

What are lymphokine activated killer (LAK) cells

A

NK cells + IL-2

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25
T lymphocytes kill infected cells by releasing
Perforin (and granzymes)
26
Immunosuppressive agents that inhibit IL-2 mediated T cells
Tacrolimus, cyclosporine
27
Ferrata cells (tissue neutrophils) in exudates are indicative of
Acute inflammation
28
Cell considered to be a homeostatic regulator of inflammation
Eosinophils
29
Protein released by eosinophils that are toxic to parasites
Major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein
30
Most of the pathology associated with a parasitic infection results from
Immune response to offending organism
31
The chronic nature of parasitic infections is due to the host
Inability to eliminate the infective agent
32
Cells that release HISTAMINE causing allergic reaction
Mast cells, basophils
33
Resembles mast cell
Basophil
34
Macrophage found in the liver
Kupfer cell
35
Most potent antigen presenting cell (APC)
Dendritic cells
36
Dendritic cell in the epidermis (skin)
Langerhans cell
37
Major site of antibody production
Spleen
38
Hybridomas are formed from
B cell (plasma cell)
39
Monoclonal antibodies are produced (in vivo or in vitro)
Both in vivo and in vitro
40
In mixed lymphocyte culture, what cell is treated with mitomycin C
Donor lymphocyte
41
Anticoagulant used in the micro lymphocytotoxicity assay
Heparin
42
Type of microscope used in the lymphocytotoxicity assay
Phase-contrast
43
Steps / stages of phagocytosis
Initiation, Chemotaxis, Engulfment, Digestion Chemotaxis, Adherence, Engulfment, Phagosome formation, Fusion, Digestion and destruction
44
The passage of blood, or any of its formed elements, through the intact walls of blood vessels
Diapedesis
45
Phagocytes can interact with microorganisms directly via
Primitive pattern recognition receptors (PPRR)
46
Cytokines include
Chemokines Interferons (iFN) Interleukins Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) Lymphotoxin TGF
47
These stimulate leukocyte MOVEMENT AND ATTRACTION (chemotaxis)
Chemokines
48
A chemical that enhances phagocytosis
Opsonin
49
Boyden chamber assay is a test for
Chemotaxis
50
Function of cytokines
Immunoregulation
51
A cytoplasmic body formed by fusion of phagosome with a lysosome during phagocytosis
Phagolysosome
52
Most significant agent formed in the phagolysosome for the killing of microorganisms
Hydrogen peroxide
53
Group of proteins acting as defense against viral pathogens; interfere with viral replication
Interferons
54
Cytokine produced by NK cells and activated T cells
Interferon-gamma
55
Cytokine produced by the kidney that stimulates RBC production by the bone marrow
Erythropoeitin
56
Induces fever, mediator of acute phase response
IL-1
57
Source of IL-2
T cells (primarily CD4+)
58
Interleukin that acts as both inflammatory and anti-inflammatory cytokine
IL-6
59
IL-1 and IL-6 are both produced by what cell
Macrophage
60
Function of IL-8
Pro-inflammatory
61
IL-2 regulating the T cells that produce it is a type of _____ signaling
Autocrine
62
Substances added to vaccine to enhance immune response
Adjuvants
63
A small molecule than can bind to a larger carrier molecule and behave as an antigen
Hapten
64
Mitogen that activates both B and T cells
Pokeweed mitogen
65
Mitogen that activates T cells
Phytohemagglutinin Concanavalin A
66
Mitogen that activates B cells
Lipopolysaccharide
67
HLA complex is located primarily on chromosome
6
68
Anticoagulant used for HLA phenotyping, DNA and paternity testing
ACD
69
Purified _____ is used for HLA class I typing
T cell
70
Purified _____ is used for HLA class II typing
B cell
71
Tests performed in paternity testing
HLA typing DNA testing
72
BM transplant donors and their recipients must be matched for what antigen system
HLA
73
Ability of the antigen to induce antibody formation is known as
Immunogenicity
74
It is influenced by foreignness, molecular size, chemical complexity, and route, dosage and timing
Immunogenicity
75
__________ antibodies are formed after exposure to environmental agents
Naturally-occurring
76
Antigens shared by genetically identical twins are characterized as
Syngeneic
77
Antigen determinant; ANTIGEN binding
Paratope
77
Antigen determinant; ANTIBODY binding
Epitope
78
Refers to the heavy chain that determines the IMMUNOGLOBULIN CLASS
Isotype
79
Refers to the variations in the CONSTANT regions of heavy and light chains
Allotype
80
Refers to the variations in the VARIABLE regions of heavy and light chains
Idiotype
81
u heavy chain; chromosome ___
14
82
kappa and lambda light chains; chromosome ___ & ___
2 and 22
83
Region of immunoglobulin molecule that can bind antigen
Fab
84
Flexibility of the hinge region is due to what amino acid
Proline
85
Determines the passage of Ig through the placenta, contains the CHO component and determines C' fixation
Fc region
86
Region that determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement
CH (Constant heavy chain)
87
Pepsin cleaves IgG into how many fragments
2
88
Papain cleaves IgG into how many fragments
3
89
Fragments of IgG formed by pepsin
1 Fab, 1 Fc
90
Fragments of IgG formed by papain
2 Fab, 1 Fc
91
Predominant antibody in PRIMARY immune respone
IgM
92
Predominant antibody in SECONDARY (anamnestic) immune response
IgG
93
Antibody type capable of agglutination; C' fixation, opsonization and toxin neutralization
IgM
94
IgG subclass best to cross the placenta
IgG1
95
IgG subclass that does not cross the placenta
IgG2
96
IgG subclass best to fix complement
IgG3 (IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2)
97
IgG subclass that is ineffective in fixing the complement
IgG4
98
Stimulates IgE production
Allergen
99
The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in
Number and position of disulfide bridges
100
Immunoglobulin classes found on B lymphocytes
IgM and IgD
101
_____ appears first on the surface of developing B cells, followed by
IgM, IgD
102
Immunoglobulin present on mature B cells
IgM and IgD
103
Reaginic antibody
IgE
104
IgE antibodies are heat (labile or stable)
Labile
105
IgE interacts with what cell
Eosinophil, basophil, mast cell
106
What immunoglobulin cross links mast cells to release histamine
IgE
107
Immunoglobulin type (s) that contain (s) J chain
IgA and IgM
108
Bond that connects IgM monomers
Disulfide (s-s) bond
109
Test that measures ALLERGEN-SPECIFIC IgE antibodies
Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
110
Test that measures TOTAL IgE antibodies
Radioimmunosorbent test (RIST)
111
Immunoglobulin type found in secretions and is responsible for mucosal immunity
IgA
112
IgA level in absolute IgA deficiency
<0.5 mg/dL
113
Role of IgD
B cell receptor, immunoregulation
114
Named with a capital C followed by a number
Complement proteins
115
A small letter after the number means that the protein is a smaller protein derived from _____ of a larger precursor by a pretease
Cleavage
116
Alternative pathway generates __________ that activates C3
C3 convertase (C3bBb)
117
Lipopolysaccharides, inulin, zymosan, and endotoxins and the aggregated IgG2, IgA and IgE activates the
Alternative pathway
118
PROPERDIN is associated with what complement pathway
Alternative pathway
119
Lectin pathway begins with what protein
MBP (mannan binding protein) / Lectins
120
Complement protein with the highest MOLECULAR WEIGHT
C1qrs complex bound to Ca2
121
Complement protein with the highest PLASMA CONCENTRATION
C3
122
Complement protein COMMON to all the pathways
C3
123
Complement protein that serves as an OPSONIN
C3b
124
Anaphylatoxins
C3b, C4a, C5a
125
Anaphylatoxin and chemotaxin
C5a
126
C3 convertase in the classical and alternative pathways
Classical = C4b2a Alternative = C3bBb
127
C5 convertase in the classical and alternative pathways
Classical = C4b2a3b Alternative = C3bBb3b
128
Membrane attack complex
C5b678
129
In vitro hemolysis in blood bank is usually caused by what complement pathway
Classical
130
Complement is inactivated at what temperature
56C
131
Inactivation of the complement
56C for 30 minutes
132
Reinactivation of the complement
56C for 10 minutes
133
Many autoimmune diseases are associated with genes in the _____ region
MHC
134
Many autoimmune diseases are associated with specific _____ HLA
Class II
135
Anti-thyroglobulin titer in Hashimoto's thyroiditis
>1:1000
136
Nonspecific indicator of inflammation; antibody to the C-polysaccharide of pneumococci
CRP
137
CRP is produced by what cell
Hepatic cells
138
Normal concentration of CRP in the blood
0.5 mg/dL
139
In acute inflammation, CRP increases _____ and serum amyloid A increases _____
CRP = 20-1000x Serum Amyloid A = 1000x
140
Alzheimer's disease is associated to what protein
Neural thread protein
141
The "CA" in the tumor marker stands for
Carbohydrate Ag / Cancer Ag
142
Expressed in developing FETUS and tumors, but absent in normal adult tissues
Oncofetal antigen
143
Patient has PSA of 60 ng/mL before surgery, 1 week following surgery, PSA was 8 ng/mL. Reason?
Testing too soon after surgery