Blood and Blood Development Flashcards

(97 cards)

1
Q

Makes up 55% of the total blood volume

A

plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of plasma is water?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What percentage of plasma is proteins?

A

7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Albumin is a major protein component that functions to maintain the …

A

osmotic pressure of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What percentage of plasma is amino acids, glucose, hormones, and other regulatory substances?

A

2.1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What percentage of plasma is inorganic salts?

A

0.9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A measurement of the average size of RBCs

A

mean corpuscular volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is a calculation of the average amount of oxygen-carrying hemoglobin inside a RBC

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is a calculation of the average percentage of hemoglobin inside a RBC

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is a calculation of the variation in size of RBCs

A

Red cell distribution width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Typical hematocrit value for erythrocytes in females

A

35%-45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Typical hematocrit value for erythrocytes in males

A

39%-50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Typical hematocrit value for leukocytes and platelets (buffy coat)

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Typical hematocrit value for plasma

A

55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

plasma from which clotting factors have been removed

A

serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

main protein constituent; smallest protein; synthesized in the liver; acts as a carrier protein

A

albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

albumin is the main protein component that functions to maintain the …, if this decreases fluid accumulates in tissues

A

BCOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

plasma protein also known as antibodies

A

immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

plasma protein that is secreted by the liver and help maintain osmotic pressure, also serve as carrier proteins

A

non-immune globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

largest plasma protein; synthesized in the liver

A

fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

fibrinogen is transformed to fibrin in

A

coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

RBC’s swell in hypotonic solutions and can burst leading to

A

hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

RBC’s shrink in hypertonic solutions assuming a … appearance

A

crenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Erythrocytes tend to stack into columns called …

A

rouleaux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What usually causes erythrocytes to stack into rouleaux?
increased levels of immunoglobulins in the blood
26
What attaches the underlying cytoskeleton to the cell membrane in RBCs?
glycophorin C
27
What binds hemoglobin and also anchors the cytoskeleton?
band 3 protein
28
Reside on the inner surface of the RBC cell membrane forming a 2-D hexagonal lattice network that contains spectrum, actin, band 4.1 protein, adducin, band 4.9 protein and tropomyosin.
peripheral membrane proteins
29
Hereditary spherocytosis is caused by an abnormal arrangement of the internal cytoskeleton due to a missing or abnormal ...
spectrin or ankyrin molecule
30
most common in adults; 96% of total hemoglobin; consists of 2 alpha and 2 beta chains
HbA
31
1.5%-3% of total hemoglobin in adults; consists of 2 alpha and 2 delta chains
HbA_2
32
fetal hemoglobin; production decreases after birth but has a higher percentage in sickle cell anemia and thalassemia; consists of 2alpha and 2 gamma chains
HbF
33
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in the DNA encoding the ...
beta-chain of hemoglobin
34
The mutation associated with sickle cell anemia is due to what two amino acids being switched?
glutamic acid is replaced with valine
35
decrease in cell size
microcytosis
36
increase in cell size
macrocytosis
37
variability in cell size
anisocytosis
38
bluish tint to the cell due to a few ribosomes in young RBC's
polychromasia
39
> 1/3 central pallor
hypochromasia
40
2 distinct populations of cells
dimorphism
41
hypochromic, microcytic anemia
Iron deficiency anemia
42
change in shape
poikilocytosis
43
A fragment of an erythrocyte; does not have central pallor; "helmet cells"
Schistocytes (shizocytes)
44
Schistocytes are formed when RBC's are ...
sheared passing through fibrin clots
45
These cells are characterized by increased red cell surface area or else a decreased intracellular hemoglobin content
target cells
46
Leukocytes or WBCs are involved in the body's defense against invading/foreign material; they regularly leave the blood to carry out their functions in the ...
connective tissue
47
WBC's exit the blood by squeezing between endothelial cells, a process known as
diapedesis
48
Group of WBC containing two types of granules, specific and azurophilic
Granulocytes (segmented cells)
49
Group of WBC containing one type of granule, azurophilic
Agranulocytes (mononuclear cells)
50
Most abundant of the granular leukocytes; multilocular (segmented) nucleus with highly condensed chromatin; in females a Barr body is present; contains 3 types of granules
Neutrophils (PMNs)
51
Neutrophil granule that is lysosomal in character, containing lysosomal enzymes, lysozyme, myeloperoxidase, and lactoferrin
Primary or Type A azurophilic granules
52
Neutrophil granule that contains enzymes (alkaline phosphatase, collagenase), antimicrobial peptides (lysozyme and phagocytins), and complement activators
Secondary or type B specific granules
53
Neutrophil granule that has 2 types one containing phosphates (phosphasomes) and the other containing metalloproteinses (collagenases)
Tertiary granules
54
What may help facilitate migration of neutrophils through the connective tissue
collagenases
55
The migration of neutrophils is controlled by the expression of ... expressed on the surface that interact with ligands on endothelial cells
adhesion molecules
56
Are actively phagocytic and function as the first line of defense against bacterial infection
neutrophils
57
Binding of bacterial antigens to PMN receptors also induces the release of ... such as IL-1, IL-3, and TNF-alpha
cytokines
58
IL-1 is also known as
pyrogen
59
pyrogen released from PMN induces the synthesis of
prostaglandins
60
Prostaglandins act on thermoregulatory centers in the hypothalamus to ...
increase body temperature i.e. fever
61
Neutrophils release Neutrophils release ... which promotes the adhesion of PMNs to endothelium and their migration into tissues among other functions such as being a potent vasoconstrictor.
leukotrienes
62
Leukotrienes act as chemoattractants for other leukocytes such as ...
eosinophils and monocytes
63
leukotrienes increase the permeability of post-capillary venues which contribute to ...
swelling at the site of injury/infection
64
Neutrophils die after ingesting bacteria; dead neutrophils contribute to the formation of ... at the site of the infection
pus
65
Eosinophils moderate inflammatory reactions; phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes; modulate the functions of ...
mast cells and basophils
66
Individuals with allergies and parasitic infections have an increased percentage of ... in blood
eosinophils
67
Eosinophils have specific granules that contain several lysosomal hydrolyses, and 4 cationic proteins; these function to kill ...
protozoans and parasites
68
Specific eosinophil granules also contain ... that functions to degrade histamine (thereby modulating the functions of basophils and mast cells in allergic reactions)
histaminase
69
What specific granule of basophils has the function of: an anticoagulant
heparin
70
What specific granule of basophils has the function of: increases permeability of small blood vessels
histamine
71
What specific granule of basophils has the function of: dilating small blood vessels
heparin sulfate
72
What specific granule of basophils has the function of: modified lipids that cause constriction of smooth muscle in pulmonary airways I1-4 and IL-3 -> promote synthesis of IgE
leukotrienes
73
Plasma membrane of basophils contain receptors for the ... antibody (important for hypersensitive, allergic reactions); degranulate when this is bound
IgE
74
Mast cells and basophils come from the same progenitor cell ...
BMCP
75
BMCP differentiates into a basophil if it ...
expresses a specific transcription factor C/EMPalpha
76
If the transcription factor C/EMPalpha is not expressed, the BMCP migrates to the ... to become a mast cell precursor
spleen
77
MCP matures into a mast cell in the ...
intestine
78
Major function cells of the lymphatic system; principle agents of the body's immune response; consists of 3 major functional classes: T, B, and NK
lymphocytes
79
Largest of the circulating WBC's
monocytes
80
monocytes migrate from blood into connective tissue where they differentiate into ...
macrophages
81
Macrophages that differentiate from monocytes make up the ...
mononuclear phagocyte system
82
Thrombocytes (platelets) are produced from
megakaryocytes
83
peripheral region of thrombocytes
hyalomere
84
central region of thrombocytes
granulomere
85
What platelet granule is most numerous; important for the initial phase of vessel repair, blood coagulation and platelet aggregation; contain fibrinogen, coagulation factors, plasminogen, plasminogen activator inhibitor, and PDGF?
alpha granules
86
What platelet granules facilitate platelet adhesion and vasoconstriction in the injured area of the blood vessel; contain Ca, serotonin, pyrophosphate, ADP, ATP, and histamine?
delta granules
87
What platelet granules contain lysosomal hydrolases?
gamma granules
88
What platelet membrane channel is from the invaginations of the plasma membrane into the cytoplasm; may be pathways for the uptake of solutes and the discharge of secretory products
Open Cannaliculi system
89
What platelet membrane channel originates from the rER of megakaryocytes; concentrates Ca and synthesizes prostaglandins
Dense Tubular System (DTS)
90
(Clot Retraction) The clot contracts and condenses through the interactions of ... and the platelet's actin and myosin filaments. Blood flow through the vessel resumes.
thrombosthenin
91
(Clot Dissolution) when the vessel wall heals, the clot is removed by the enzyme ... and by enzymes (hydrolyses) released by the platelets' gamma granules
plasmin
92
Platelets are formed by the separation of cytoplasmic fragments through the fusion of ...
Platelet Demarcation Channels (PDCs)
93
The activator that converts the proenzyme, plasminogen to plasma is known as ...
TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
94
TPA is released by what cells?
endothelial
95
A synthetic form of TPA is used clinically as treatment for ...
stroke victims
96
platelets originate as portions of the cytoplasm of ...
megakaryocytes
97
The plasma membrane of megakaryocytes has many invaginations form channels called...
platelet demarcation channels (PDC)