Blood Bank Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Terminology:
Blood unit collected as donation for someone other than the donor

A

Allogeneic or Homologous

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2
Q

Terminology:
Blood collected and labeled for a specific patient

A

Directed blood collection

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3
Q

Terminology:
Collection of blood for self use

A

Autologous

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4
Q

Terminology:
Only a specific group of cells are collected (platelets, granulocytes, stem cells)

A

Cytopheresis or Apheresis

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5
Q

Preferred method for platelet collection

A

Apheresis/Cytopheresis

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6
Q

Minimum donor weight

A

110 lbs

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7
Q

Maximum removal for donation from 110 lbs (minimum weight)

A

525 mL

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8
Q

What is the calculation to determine how much blood can be donated for someone weighing less than 110 lbs?

A

(donor’s weight x 450) / 110

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9
Q

A unit of whole blood contains how many mLs?

A

450 mL +/- 45 mL

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10
Q

If a donor weighs 100 pounds, what is the allowable amount?

A

(100 x 450) / 110 = 409 mL

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11
Q

How much anticoagulant is in each unit?

A

63 mL

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12
Q

What is the calculation to determine the amount of anticoagulant a unit needs?

A

(allowable amount of blood x 14) / 100

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13
Q

How much anticoagulant would be needed for a 400 mL draw? How much would anticoagulant would need to be removed from the unit?

A

(400 x 14) / 100 = 56 mL anticoagulant needed.
63 - 56 = 7 mL needs to be removed from the unit

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14
Q

Physical examination:
Temperature cannot exceed _____

A

99.5F (37.5C)

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15
Q

Physical examination:
Pulse between __ and ____ beats/minute

A

50 - 100 beat/minute

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16
Q

Physical examination:
Systolic blood pressure

A

90 - 180 mm Hg

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17
Q

Physical examination:
Diastolic blood pressure

A

50 - 100 mm Hg

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18
Q

Physical examination:
Females hemoglobin

A

12.5 g/dL

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19
Q

Physical examination:
Females hematocrit

A

> 38%

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20
Q

Physical examination:
Males hemoglobin

A

13 g/dL

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21
Q

Physical examination:
Males hematocrit

A

> 39%

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22
Q

Physical examination:
Minimum weight

A

110 lb

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23
Q

Where is it required to be at least 17 years old to donate? (4)

A

-Delaware
-Connecticut
-District of Columbia
-Florida

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24
Q

How often can you donate whole blood?

A

Every 56 days (8 weeks)

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25
Q

How often can you donate through apheresis?

A

After 48 hours

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26
Q

Terminology:
Donor will never be eligible to donate for someone else but they may donate autologous blood

A

Permanent deferral

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27
Q

Terminology:
Donor is unable to donate for someone else for an unspecified period of time due to current regulatory requirements

A

Indefinite deferral

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28
Q

Terminology:
Donor is unable to donate blood for someone else for an unspecified period of time due to current regulatory requirements. Usually due to recent tattoo, piercing, vaccinations, etc.

A

Temporary deferral

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29
Q

Which medication results in a deferral for 30 days?

A

Accutane

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30
Q

Which over the counter medication is not ok within 3 days of platelet pheresis?

A

Aspirin

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31
Q

If a patient has ever had bovine insulin manufactured in the United Kingdom, what would their deferral status be?

A

Permanent deferral

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32
Q

Length of deferral for tattoo or permanent makeup

A

3 months (used to be 12 months)

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33
Q

Length of deferral after receiving the MMR vaccine

A

4 weeks (mumps and measles are 2 weeks but rubella is 4 weeks)

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34
Q

Length of deferral after receiving the Hepatitis B vaccine

A

28 days

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35
Q

Length of deferral after receiving Hepatitis B immunoglobulin

A

12 months

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36
Q

0.7% aqueous scrub solution and what else are the 2 scrub solutions used for collection

A

10% povidone-iodine

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37
Q

Most common adverse donor reaction

A

Vasovagal

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38
Q

Terminology:
Tingling of lips during apheresis due to citrate

A

Paresthesia

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39
Q

How is paresthesia treated?

A

Tums to replace calcium

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40
Q

TRUE or FALSE:
Weak D testing is not a requirement for donor unit processing

A

FALSE - it prevents a weak D positive unit from being labeled as Rh negative

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41
Q

Which comes first: Hard spin or soft spin?

A

Soft spin

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42
Q

What does a soft spin centrifuge accomplish?

A

Separates platelet rich plasma from red cells

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43
Q

What is the hard spin centrifuge performed on? What’s the end result?

A

Hard spin is performed on the platelet rich plasma and results in platelet poor plasma that is frozen for FFP and platelets

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44
Q

How long is the soft spin and what RPM?

A

2800 RPM for 3 minutes

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45
Q

How long is the hard spin and what RPM?

A

3800 RPM for 6 minutes

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46
Q

TRUE or FALSE:
When a hospital receives a donor unit, they must repeat the ABO and Rh

A

TRUE

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47
Q

These decrease as red cells are stored (4)

A

-Glucose
-ATP
-pH
-2,3-DPG

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48
Q

These increase as red cells are stored

A

-Lactic acid
-plasma hemoglobin
-plasma potassium

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49
Q

What causes an increase in plasma hemoglobin and plasma potassium as red cells are stored?

A

Cell lysis

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50
Q

All of the current anticoagulants can maintain 2,3-DPG for how long?

A

1 week

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51
Q

What is the expiration for blood products with CPD or CP2D?

A

21 days

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52
Q

What is the expiration of blood products with CPDA?

A

35 days

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53
Q

Why does CPDA extend blood product expiration from 21 days to 35 when compared to CPD/CP2D?

A

Adenine nucleotide pool increases synthesis of ATP

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54
Q

CPD and CP2D stand for?

A

Citrate-Phosphate-Dextrose
and Citrate-Phosphate-2-Dextrose

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55
Q

CPDA stands for

A

Citrate-Phosphate-Dextrose-Adenine

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56
Q

What is in ADSOL/AS-1/AS-3/AS-5?

A

Saline, adenine, glucose and mannitol coupled with citrate-phosphate-dextrose

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57
Q

What is the shelf life of Adsol?

A

42 days

58
Q

AS-1 is not recommended for which patient population?

A

Pediatric

59
Q

Additives such as AS-1 or AS-5 must be added within how many hours of the whole blood collection?

A

72 hours

60
Q

At what temperature are red cell products stored?

A

1-6C

61
Q

Whole blood with CPD or CP2D will have what expiration?

A

21 days

62
Q

Whole blood with CPDA-1 will have what expiration?

A

35 days

63
Q

RBCs with CPD or CP2D will have what expiration?

A

21 days

64
Q

RBCs with CPDA-1 will have what expiration?

A

35 days

65
Q

RBCs with AS-1, AS-3, or AS-5 will have what expiration?

A

42 days

66
Q

Frozen RBCs are stored at what temperature?

A

Less than or equal to -65C

67
Q

Frozen RBCs have what expiration?

A

10 years

68
Q

Deglycerized or washed RBCs have what expiration?

A

24 hours

69
Q

Irradiated RBCs have what expiration?

A

28 days from irradiation or original outdate - whichever is first

70
Q

Plasma frozen within 24 hours (PF24) is stored at what temperature?

A

Less than or equal to -18C

71
Q

Plasma frozen within 24 hours has what expiration?

A

1 year

72
Q

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) can be stored at which 2 temperatures?

A

Less than or equal to -18C
OR
Less than or equal to -65C

73
Q

If FFP is stored at or below -18C, what is the expiration?

A

1 year

74
Q

If FFP is stored at or below -65C, what is the expiration?

A

7 years

75
Q

FFP or PF24 thawed is stored at what temperature?

A

1-6C

76
Q

FFP or PF24 thawed has what expiration?

A

24 hours

77
Q

What temperature is thawed plasma kept at?

A

1-6C

78
Q

Thawed plasma has what expiration?

A

5 days from thawing

79
Q

TRUE or FALSE:
Thawed plasma is NOT an FDA licensed product

A

TRUE

80
Q

What temperature is cryoprecipitate AHF kept at?

A

Less than or equal to -18C

81
Q

What is the expiration for cryoprecipitate AHF?

A

1 year

82
Q

Pooled cryoprecipitate is kept at what temperature?

A

20-24C

83
Q

What is the expiration for pooled cryoprecipitate?

A

4 hours

84
Q

Platelets are kept at what temperature?

A

20-24C

85
Q

Platelets have what expiration?

A

5 days

86
Q

Pooled platelets are kept at what temperature?

A

20 -24C

87
Q

Pooled platelets have what expiration?

A

4 hours

88
Q

Leukoreduced apheresis platelets are kept at what temperature?

A

20-24C

89
Q

Leukoreduced apheresis platelets have what expiration?

A

5 days

90
Q

Apheresis granulocytes are kept at what temperature?

A

20-24C

91
Q

What is the expiration for apheresis granulocytes?

A

24 hours

92
Q

What is the volume collected for whole blood?

A

500 mL

93
Q

What does whole blood contain?

A

-RBCs
-Plasma
-Platelets
-WBCs

94
Q

What should the hematocrit of a whole blood unit be?

A

36-40%

95
Q

Whole blood should increase hemoglobin by ___ gm/dL and hematocrit by ___%

A

Hemoglobin: 1 mg/dL
Hematocrit: 3%

96
Q

Packed Red Cells & what anticoagulant/preservative:
250 mL with hematocrit of 75%

A

CPDA-1

97
Q

Packed Red Cells & what anticoagulant/preservative:
330 mL with hematocrit of 55%

A

ADSOL

98
Q

TRUE or FALSE:
Packed red cells contain no viable platelets, granulocytes, or coagulation factors.

A

TRUE

99
Q

What diseases are blood product units tested for? (8)

A

-HIV-1&2
-HBsAg
-HBcAb
-HCV
-HTLV I/II
-p24 Ag
Syphilis
-West Nile virus

100
Q

4 ways that red cells are modified for specific patient requirements

A

-Washed
-Leukoreduced
-Irradiated
-Frozen and deglycerized

101
Q

What occurs in leukoreduced red cell preparation?

A

99.99% of WBCs are removed through filtration

102
Q

What percentage of red cells must remain after filtration for leukoreduced red cells?

A

85%

103
Q

The following are uses of which type of modified red cell product?:
-Prevent febrile reactions due to HLA antibodies
-Decrease alloimmunization to HLA antigens in those who will need a large number of transfusions
-Decrease likelihood of CMV infection in susceptible patients

A

Leukoreduced

104
Q

Which red cell product does not prevent transfusion-associated Graft vs. Host disease?

A

Leukocyte-reduced RBCs

105
Q

Why do leukoreduced RBCs not prevent transfusion-associated GVHD?

A

Normal mature lymphocytes are too small

106
Q

Acceptable donor cells for a patient with type A blood

A

A or O

107
Q

Acceptable donor cells for a patient with type B blood

A

B or O

108
Q

Acceptable donor cells for a patient with type AB blood

A

AB, A, B, or O

109
Q

Acceptable donor cells for a patient with type O blood

A

O

110
Q

Universal red cell donor blood type

A

Type O

111
Q

Universal red cell recipient blood type

A

Type AB

112
Q

Acceptable plasma type for a patient with type A blood

A

A or AB

113
Q

Acceptable plasma type for a patient with type B blood

A

B or AB

114
Q

Acceptable plasma type for a patient with type AB blood

A

AB

115
Q

Acceptable plasma type for a patient with type O blood

A

O, A, B, or AB

116
Q

Universal plasma donor type

A

AB

117
Q

Which red cell donation type removes some of the WBCs but is not as efficiently as filters

A

Washed red cells

118
Q

Which red blood cell product is used mostly when we want to remove all of the plasma?

A

Washed red cells

119
Q

Which red cell product is used for IgA deficient patients and for patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) to remove plasma and complement?

A

Washed red cells

120
Q

Which modified red cell product prevents transfusion associated Graft vs Host Disease?

A

Irradiated red cells

121
Q

What type of irradiation is used to prevent proliferation of T cells in irradiated blood?:
-Alpha
-Gamma
-Beta

A

-Gamma (cesium or cobalt radio isotopes, UV-A or x-ray)

122
Q

Which modified red blood cell product is used for the following:
-transfusions from first degree blood relative
-bone marrow transplants
-intrauterine transfusions
-preemies
-severe immunocompromised/deficient patients

A

Irradiated red cells

123
Q

Which modified red cell product is required for the following:
-seronegative preemies
-intrauterine transfusions
-bone marrow transplants
-HIV
-solid organ transplant and other severely immunosuppressed patients?

A

CMV Negative blood

124
Q

This modified red cell product provides extended storage for rare blood cells or autologous blood

A

Frozen/Deglycerolized red cells

125
Q

TRUE or FALSE:
If red cells are not properly deglycerolized, the glycerol can cause intravascular hemolysis if transfused.

A

TRUE

126
Q

What gauge needle should be used for transfusion?

A

18 gauge

127
Q

Transfusion should be limited to a max of how many hours?

A

4 hours

128
Q

Random platelets must have how many platelets per unit?

A

At least 5.5 x 10^10 platelets/unit

129
Q

To achieve a therapeutic dose, a patient usually needs how many units of random platelets?

A

6-10 units

130
Q

What are random platelets used for?

A

Bleeding due to thrombocytopenia or platelet function defect

131
Q

A patient should receive a platelet transfusion when their count is how low?

A

10,000-20,000/uL

132
Q

Random platelet transfusions will usually increase the platelet count by how much?

A

30,000-60,000/uL

133
Q

What is platelet apheresis also known as?

A

Single-donor platelets (SDP)

134
Q

What volume is usually collected for platelet apheresis?

A

300 mL

135
Q

TRUE or FALSE:
Platelet products are kept at 20-24C and must be agitated

A

TRUE

136
Q

What blood product:
-Comes from a single donor
-Contains leukocytes, platelets, and some 20-50 mL RBCs
-Kept between 20-24C without agitation
-Has an expiration period of 24 hours

A

Graunulocytes, apheresis

137
Q

What blood product:
-Given to patients with severe infections and severe neutropenia
-Used mostly for neonates
-Severe infections (sepsis) that is unresponsive to antibiotics

A

Apheresis granulocytes

138
Q

Fresh frozen plasma contains all coagulation factor including Factor V and Factor VIII when frozen within what timeframe from collection?

A

Within 8 hours

139
Q

When plasma is frozen within 24 hours, what factors are reduced? Why?

A

Factor V and Factor VIII because they are labile

140
Q

The following are uses for which blood product?:
-Coagulation disorders (liver disease/factor deficiencies)
-Abnormal coagulation assays resulting from massive transfusion
-Replacement therapy for TTP and HUS
-DIC

A

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

141
Q

Cryoprecipitate contains what concentrated factors? (4)

A

-Fibrinogen (Factor I)
-Factor VIII
-Factor XIII
-Von Willebrand Factor

142
Q

The following are quality controls for which blood product?:
- >150 mg of fibrinogen
- 80 IU of Factor VIII

A

Cryoprecipitate AHG