Blood Components and Sub Flashcards

1
Q

Antithrombin III deficiency

A

May give FFP to help get antithrombin III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Whole blood

A

For acute hemorrhage of 25% or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

RBC transfusion objective

A

Improvement of inadequate oxygen delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Diminished OXygen carrying capacity

A

Ischemic effects on heart and brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Transfuse patient with HF or with decreased

A

Higher threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Patient with those medications are at known risk for decreased CO

A

Beta blockade

Non DHP CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hemoglobin concentration increase will

A

increase O2 delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

DO2

A

CaO2 x CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Loss of 15%

A

Class 1 little hemodynamic effect other than vasoconstriction and mild tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Loss of 15-30%

A

Class 2 Tachycardia decrease pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Loss 30-40%

healthy patients give

A

Class III hemorrhage, signs of hypovolemia, marked tachy, tachypnea
Crystalloids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Loss of more than 40%

A

life threatening, transfused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acute anemia: O2 delivery adequate at hemoglobin concentration

A

as low as 7g/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chronic anemia

A

better tolerated than acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CO in chronic anemia does not change until

A

below 7g/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

acute anemia no reductio in arterial O2 because

A

Well compensate in increased in CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Factors that affect CO

A

Left Ventricular dysfunction
hypothermia
Vasoactive (BBlockers, CCB, anesthetics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Effective of RBC transfusion

Keyword: NONBLEEDING

A

NON-bleeding, 1 unit of RBC

1g increase Hct by 3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

However, for anemia relationship with

A

Perioperative anemia with MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Transfusion recommendations

A

Rarely indicated if hbg more than 10

Less than 6 when the anemia is acute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The determinants of intermediate:

A

The determination of whether intermediate hemoglobin concentrations (6-10g/dl) justify or require RBC transfusion should be based on the patient’s risk for complications of
inadequate oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most anesthetics cause

A

myocardial depression and
decrease arterial BP, cardiac output, stroke volume,
PVR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The use of a single transfusion “trigger”

A

(i.e.. 10/30 rule) for all patients is not

recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hemoglobin <6 g/dL – T.

A

Transfusion recommended except in exceptional circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
● Hemoglobin 6 to 7 g/dL
– Transfusion generally likely to be indicated
26
● Hemoglobin 7 to 8 g/dL –
Transfusion may be appropriate in patients undergoing orthopedic surgery or cardiac surgery, and in those with stable cardiovascular disease, after evaluating the patient’s clinical status.
27
● Hemoglobin 8 to 10 g/dL
– Transfusion generally not indicated, but should be considered for some populations (eg, those with symptomatic anemia, ongoing bleeding, acute coronary syndrome with ischemia, and hematology/oncology patients with severe thrombocytopenia who are at risk of bleeding).
28
● Hemoglobin >10 g/dL –
Transfusion generally not indicated except in exceptional circumstances.
29
Transfusion reactions, often manifested in awake patients by_____, _____, ______ are the most common adverse reaction of transfusion with CBC's.
fever, chills, or urticaria,
30
The more transfusion
the more risk of Hepatitis C
31
The most common viral agent | Important for type of patients
Cytomegalovirus | HIV, immunosuppressed patients or autoimmune disease
32
Platelets : patients
patients spontaneous bleeding is uncommon with a platelet count greater than 20,000.
33
The probability of clinically significant thrombocytopenia i
Increases in proportion to the number of units of blood transfused because only parts of the blood is given
34
ASA action
Inhibit platelet aggregation
35
Patients with bleeding from ASA
Platelets
36
With HELLP (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count) syndrome associated with
preeclampsia the thrombocytopenia is usually more severe, but spontaneous resolution usually occurs by the 4th postpartum day.
37
Transfusion of one platelet concentrate will increase | the platelet count by approximately
5,000-10,000 in an average adult.
38
The usual therapeutic dose of platelets is
one platelet concentrate per 10kg body weight.
39
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia and ITP
should not receive platelets.
40
To assess risk of HIT
4 Ts
41
Prophylactic platelet transfusion is rarely indicated in surgical patients with thrombocytopenia due to decreased platelet production when the platelet count is greater than_______ and is usually indicated when less than _______
100,000; 50,000.
42
The determination of whether patients with intermediate (50,000-100,000) require therapy should be based on the
risk of bleeding.
43
Platelet transfusions may be indicated despite an apparently adequate platelet count if there is
known platelet dysfunction and microvascular bleeding.
44
Most major surgeries
50000 threshold for platelets tx
45
Epidural anesthesia –plt threshold
80,000/microL
46
Replacement of an entire blood volume leaves the | patient with approximately
1/3 of the original concentration of coagulation factors.
47
Although lab values such as PT and PTT may be abnormal, clinical coagulopathy from dilution usually does not occur until replacement
exceeds one blood volume or when the PT and PTT exceeds 1.5-1.8 times control then start giving FFPs
48
In preoperative patients with no history of bleeding, retrospective studies show that abnormal PT and PTT are
poor predictors of bleeding
49
______is indicated for urgent reversal of warfarin therapy.
FFP
50
FFP should be given in doses calculated to achieve a minimum of ________except for urgent
30% of plasma concentration (10-15ml/kg of FFP), Except for urgent reversal of warfarin anticoagulation, for which (5-8ml/kg of FFP) will usually suffice. 4-5 platelet concentrations, or one unit of whole blood provide a quantity of coagulation factors
51
FFP is contraindicated for
augmentation of plasma volume or albumin concentration.
52
Most patients with factor VIII deficiency will be treated with___________ and patients with some subtypes of vWD respond to DDAVP.
factor VIII concentrates
53
_______ _____________, _____, is used for correction of inherited and acquired coagulopathy.
Cryoprecipitate contains factors VIII, fibrinogen, | fibronectin, von Willibrand’s factor, and factor XIII,
54
Albumin 25g (100ml of 25% solution), is equivalent
osmotically to 500ml of plasma, but contains about 1/7 the amount of sodium present in the same amount of plasma.
55
25% reserved for
Kidney , liver
56
The administration of 25% albumin will draw
3-4ml of fluid from the interstitial space into the vascular space for every 1ml of albumin given.
57
Best way to correct albumin deficiency
by feeding the patient
58
PPF is a 5% pooled solution of stabilized plasma proteins in saline containing at
least 83% albumin and no more than 17% globulins, of which <1% are gamma globulins.
59
● PPF 5% is administered to treat
hypovolemic shock
60
Imnunoglobulin is a concentrated solution of _______ and ________prepared from large pools of ________
Immune globulin is a concentrated solution of | globulins, primarily immunoglobulins, prepared from large pools of human plasma
61
● Immune globulin protects against clinical manifestations of
hepatitis A when given before or within 2 weeks of exposure.
62
● Replacement therapy for patients with | hypogammaglobulinemia is another use of
immune globulin.
63
Immune Globulin SOME indications
``` ● Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) CLL Myasthenia Gravis SLE ***Guillian barre syndrome ```
64
Prothrombin Complex Concentrate | (Human) Factors
II, VII, IX, X), Protein C, and Protein S];
65
PCC also known as
Kcentra
66
Indications for Kcentra
Indications; Vitamin K antagonist (VKA) reversal in patients with acute major bleeding or need for an urgent surgery/invasive procedure.
67
Increase INR require surgery
Kcentra
68
Patient require emergent surgery with warfarin BETTER AND FASTER
KCENTRA, given faster; but expensive
69
Use Reversal of dabigatran: Reversal of the | anticoagulant effects of
dabigatran for emergency surgery/urgent procedures or in life-threatening or uncontrolled bleeding
70
Dosing Reversal of dabigatran: IV:
5 g (administered as 2 separate 2.5 g doses no more than 15 minutes apart)
71
Xa rivaroxaban, xarelta
REVERSAL KNOW