Pharmacodynamics/Pharmacokinetics Flashcards

(201 cards)

1
Q

Define Pharmacokinetics

A

The quantitative study of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs and their
metabolites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4 processes studied by Pharmacokinetics

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

“What the body does to a drug”

A

Pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pharmacokinetics allows the clinician to predict the drug ____________and thus the ____________ with time.

A

concentration at the site of action; intensity of the drug’s effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pharmacokinetics measures and calculates those parameters

A
VECBECR
Volume of Distribution
Effect site equilibration time(onset of action once med is given)
Context sensitive half life (lipid soluble drug)
Bioavailability
Elimination half life
Clearance
Recovery time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cell membrane and lipid soluble substances

A

Highly permeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Since the cell is also permeable to water and other small lipid in-soluble substances it is postulated that the lipid membrane

A

has channels or pores that allow these substances to penetrate the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

• Simple diffusion Definition- characterized by the

rate of _________ both _____and _____of small size

A

transfer of a substance across a membrane from area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Both lipid soluble and lipid in-soluble molecules of small size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

• Filtration-

A

When a porous membrane allows the flow of a solvent and the substances dissolved in it to except for large molecules (ex. glomerular filtration).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most of the drugs given in anesthesia are

supplied in the form of a_________

A

salt solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

• The active molecule of anesthesia is either a

A

weak acid or weak base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

• The active portion can be recognized as an

acid or a base by the

A

name given to the salt form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

 If the active moiety is an acid, the acid
is listed
 If the active moiety is a base, the base
will be listed

A

last (sodium thiopental)

first (Lidocaine HCl,
Morphine Sulfate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

• Acids (donate or accept protons)

A

donate protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bases (donate or accept protons)

A

accept protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Henderson-Hasselbach equation

A

pH = pKa + log Proton acceptor/ Proton donor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cell membranes are more permeable to which portion of a drug?

A

non-ionized portion of a drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Henderson-Hasselbach equation helps to predict _____________Given the ________of that particular solution and the drugs ____

A

the portion of ionization of a given drug in solution given the pH of that particular solution and the drugs pKa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When pH=pKa, what can be infered?

A

50% of the drug is ionized and 50% in non- ionized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lower pKa= ______acid

A

stronger acid,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Higher pKa = ________base

A

stronger base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A general rule with WEAK BASES states when the pKa minus pH < 0, then most of the drug will be in the

A

non-ionized form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

With WEAK ACIDS, the opposite is true. pKa minus pH < 0 then most of the drug will be in the

A

Ionized form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Weak acids will be more non-ionized in an ________therefore ________ is better

A
acidic solution (absorption,
distribution).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Weak bases will be more non-ionized in a | Can therefore penetrate
basic solution.; blood brain barrier, renal tubular epithelium, GI epithelium, and hepatocytes
26
Define Ion Trapping? Example? Fetus is more acidic/basic than mother
A concentration difference of total drug can develop on two sides of a membrane that separates fluids with a different pH. obstetrics when the administration of an epidural such as local anesthetic can accumulate or become trapped in the fetus because the fetus is more acidic than the mother. This can lead to fetal toxicity.
27
How do you eliminate acidic drugs from the body?
Alkalinize the urine to help eliminate acidic drugs.
28
Define active transport? Requires ? Example is
With active transport a substances moves against a concentration or electrochemical gradient. Usually requires the use of energy by the cell. Na-K pump
29
Define volume of distribution ? *(Vd)
• Calculated as the dose of drug administered IV divided by the resulting plasma concentration BEFORE ELIMINATION BEGINS
30
Vd is Influenced by physiochemical characteristics | of the drug (3)
Lipid solubility Protein binding Molecular size.
31
Drug with low lipid solubility and high protein binding will have a__________
low Vd.
32
What can be used to predict the plasma drug concentration after a bolus?
The volume of distribution
33
Question #1 “what is the predicted gentamicin concentration 30 minutes after 200mg of gentamicin is administered to a 70kg patient.” If the Vd of gentamicin is 0.28 L/Kg in adult
calculate
34
Question #2 “what dose of gentamicin is needed to achieve a plasma concentration of 5 in a 3 Kg neonate. " The Vd in neonates is 0.5 L/Kg
Calculate
35
Most acidic drug bind to _______
Albumin
36
Most basic drug bind to_________
alpha 1 acidic protein.
37
Why does protein binding effects Vd?
because only unbound drug can cross cell membranes.
38
Relationship between Vd and protein binding?
Inversely proportional
39
Protein binding also effects clearance.
Clearance. Because only unbound drug can undergo metabolism and GLOMERULAR FILTRATION
40
Alterations in protein binding are only important for drugs that are
highly protein bound.
41
4 well known highly protein bound drugs
Warfarin Phenytoin Diazepam Propranolol
42
The extent of protein binding is directly related to the______ _______
lipid solubility
43
In addition the fraction of total drug in plasma that is bound to protein is determined by (2)
 Plasma concentration of drug |  The number of protein binding sites
44
•___________ plasma concentration of drug will be highly protein bound compared to high plasma concentrations of the same drug.
Low plasma concentration
45
Can cause low concentrations of plasma proteins.
Renal Failure
46
Increased levels of Alpha 1 acid glycoprotein can occur in response to (3)
surgery, chronic pain, and acute MI.
47
_______can be low in neonates.
Alpha 1 acid glycoprotein
48
What is clearance ?
The volume of plasma cleared of drug by renal excretion and/or metabolism by the liver or other organs
49
Examples of non-organ metabolism include | 2 processes: 4 meds examples
Hoffman elimination Ester hydrolysis of succinylcholine, atracurium, cisatracurium, and mivacurium SAM-C
50
Define first order kinetics
Almost all drugs are cleared from the circulation at a rate that is proportional to the amount the amount present in plasma
51
Zero Order Kinetics
A constant amount of drug in cleared per unit of time.
52
In order to achieve steady state, the infusion rate must be equal to the
clearance.
53
Hepatic clearance is the the product of
hepatic blood flow and the hepatic extraction ratio.
54
If the hepatic extraction ratio is high >0.7, then
the hepatic clearance will depend on hepatic blood flow and changes in enzyme activity will have minimal change
55
Thus a high hepatic extraction ration results in a_________ example
perfusion-dependent elimination | Lidocaine
56
If the extraction ratio is <0.3 than the clearance will depend on
protein binding and enzyme activity
57
Most important organs for the elimination of unchanged drugs.
Kidneys
58
Renal excretion includes 3 processes;
 Glomerular filtration.  Passive tubular secretion.  Passive tubular reabsorption
59
The amount of drug that enters the renal tubular lumen depends upon 2 things:
 Fraction of protein binding and the | glomerular filtration rate.
60
Renal tubular secretion involves.
active transport processes.
61
• Highly lipid soluble compounds are almost
completely reabsorbed.
62
• Factors that effect reabsorption include;
 pH (weak acids are excreted faster in alkaline urine)  Rate of tubular urine flow
63
Formulas to use to estimate creatinine clearance
IBW male 50 +(2.3 x each inch >60) IBW in Kg | IBW female 45.5 + (2.3 x each inch >60) = IBW in Kg
64
Cockcroft-Gault equation
• (140 - age ) x IBW 72 x Serum creatinine x 0.85 for females.
65
Local anesthetics work on
sodium channels.
66
The role of metabolism is to
convert pharmacologically active, lipid-soluble drugs into water soluble inactive compounds that can be easily excreted.
67
Increased water solubility will _________Vd | for a drug and enhance its renal excretion.
decrease
68
• These compounds are called prodrugs.
The metabolism of an inactive compound to a pharmacologically active compound can also occur
69
The metabolism of a drug is highest when
the drug concentration is greatest.
70
Drug name first (base or acid)
base
71
The fraction of drug eliminated is independent of the drug concentration
First order kinetics
72
It will take 1 half-life for the plasma concentration to decline •
by 50%.
73
At 5 half-lives the drug plasma concentration declines by
96.9 %
74
Constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit of time
irregardless of the plasma concentration.
75
Zero order Occurs when the plasma concentration of | drug exceeds
the capacity of metabolizing enzymes
76
When inject basic to acidic
Precipitate
77
Drugs that undergo zero-order kinetics include
alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin
78
Oxidation- | Reduction-
Loss of electrons | Gain of electrons
79
• Hydrolysis definition
Splitting molecule with the addition of water.
80
______,______,_____ are | Phase I reactions
Oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis
81
Conjugation-Phase II reaction.
The addition of an endogenous substrate such as a carbohydrate or an amino-acid to form a more water soluble, inactive substance that is easily excreted from the body.
82
____________is the site of metabolism of most drugs. | • Other sites include the GI tract, kidneys, and the lungs
Hepatic microsomal enzymes
83
________is site for Hoffman degradation or ester hydrolysis
Plasma ; spontaneous degradation
84
Plasma is site for
Hoffman degradation or ester hydrolysis
85
Location of hepatic microsomal enzymes
Located primarily in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of the liver
86
Cytochrome P-450 also called_________ system involves both __________steps.
mixed function oxidase | oxidative and reduction
87
Cytochrome P-450 is available in different isoenzymes P-450______ is the most abundant
3A4
88
Cytochrome P-450 3A4 is responsible for metabolizing more than 1/2 known drugs including
opiods, benzodiazepines, local anesthetics, immunosuppressants.
89
• Alfentanil clearance has been shown
to vary on different days of the menstrual cycle
90
Enzyme induction
• Drugs or chemicals have the ability to stimulate the activity of microsomal enzymes.
91
• Increased enzyme activity by certain compounds is known as_______
enzyme induction.
92
• Compounds known to stimulate enzyme | induction include, RPPCSC
Phenobarbital, phenytoin, alcohol, cigarette smoking, rifampin, carbamazepine.
93
Enzyme Inhibition
• When the metabolic rate of the microzomal enzymes is decreased leading to drug accumulation and possible toxicity.
94
Enzyme inhibitors include.
```  Acute alcohol ingestion  Cimetidine Erythromycin  Valproic acid  Nefazodone  Fluoxetine  Amiodarone  diltiazem, verapamil  Protease inhibitors ```
95
****Nonspecific esterases in the liver, plasma, and GI tract are examples on nonmicrosomal enzymes responsible for SAMEE
hydrolysis of drugs that contain ester bonds | SUCCINYLCHOLINE, atracurium, mivacurium, ESMOLOL, ester local anesthetics.
96
The activity of these enzymes is determined | genetically, as emphasized by patients with
atypical cholinesterase, and slow acetylators
97
Nonmicrosomal enzymes such as______and______ do not undergo enzyme induction.
plasma cholinesterase and acetylating enzymes
98
Oxidative metabolism: Halogenated volatile anesthetics are susceptible to dehalogenation, which can lead to the release of
bromide, chlorine, and fluoride ions.
99
Enzyme induction and depletion of glutathione can increase
risk or organ damage.
100
Conjugation • Conjugation with glucuronic acid involves_______ Glucoronic acid is available from glucose. •
CYP-450 enzymes. Glucose This leads to the the formation of inactive water soluble compounds which are inactive and easily excreted from the body. • Conjugation may be decrease during pregnancy due to increase levels of progesterone.
101
Factors that effect Vd and Clearance
Metabolism Age Hepatic disease Kidney disease
102
Two compartment model | Central compartment
The drug is introduced directly into the central compartment then subsequently distributes to the peripheral compartment only to return to the central compartment where clearance occurs.
103
• Central compartment includes intravascular | fluid and highly perfused organs
(lungs, heart, brain, kidneys, liver).
104
• In adults highly perfused tissues make up of ____weight, but receive______ of cardiac output.
10% ; 75%
105
• Drugs that have an affinity for the vessel | poor group have
higher volumes of distribution.
106
• Vessel poor group | •
(Muscles, fat, skin, etc)
107
FIRST ORDER KINETICS DRUGS
Vd works better
108
A large calculated peripheral compartment | suggest
extensive uptake of drug by those tissues that make up the peripheral compartment.
109
Redistribution
The drug distributes from it’s site of action to other tissues. (ex, thiopental)
110
New Concepts in interpretation of compartment modeling • Rapid IV injection of drugs that attain maximum effect in <2 minutes such as ___and____ • These drugs do not depend on the usual organs for elimination. They are eliminated by.
(atracurium, cisatracurium). | Hoffman degradation, and hydrolysis
111
The traditional concept that a drug’s pharmacological effect parallels its plasmas concentration is not • For example 1 minute after the IV bolus of cisatracurium the plasma concentration is
always valid already declining while the pharmacological effect is increasing.
112
The traditional concept of the drug's pharmacological effect is parallel to plasma concentration is no longer valid. Therefore it is proposed that it is not the concentration in the _______Compartment but the concentration at ________that determines the pharmacological effect.
concentration in the central compartment but the concentration at the site of action that determines the pharmacological effect
113
Elimination half time is the time necessary | for
the plasma concentration to fall by 50% during the ELIMINATION phase.
114
• Elimination half-time is _______related to and__________ to clearance.
directly; Vd; inversely related to
115
• Elimination half time is unrelated to the
dose given
116
It take about_________for near total | (96.5%) elimination from the body
five t -1/2
117
Formula for half life
T1/2= 0.693/ke
118
ke can be calculated by checking
2 plasma drug concentrations after a single IV bolus
119
Elimination half time may be of little value | in describing drug
Pharmacokinetics in multicompartment models
120
Of more importance to the clinician is how long will it take the Cp to decrease to allow the patient to
awaken, rather than the slope of the plasma drug concentration time curve.
121
• Instead of t-1/2 the clinician should use the
context sensitive half time
122
Context Sensitive half life Describes the time necessary for the plasma concentration to
decrease by 50% after discontinuing a continuous infusion of a specific duration.
123
Context sensitive half life consider both___
combined effects of distribution and metabolism as well as duration of continuous infusion.
124
Depending on the_________and __________ the context sensitive t-1/2 as the duration of the infusion increases
lipid solubility and the efficiency of its clearance, | increases
125
Effect-Site Equilibration
The delay between the IV administration of a drug and the onset of its clinical effects.
126
• Reflects time required to deliver the drug | to its site of action (ex. Brain).
Effect site equilibration
127
Drugs with a short effect site equilibration such as ______, ______and______ will produce a ______onset of action.
remifentanyl, thiopental, propofol, TEP | rapid
128
Drugs with a longer effect site equilibration ______and ______have a onset of action.
, midazolam, fentanyl; slower
129
2 things affecting absorption
Blood flow | Surface area
130
Oral route advantage, principal site of absorption. | Disadvantages
Most economical and convenient Principal site of absorption is the SMALL intestine EMEsis, Destruction by digestive enzymes or gastric acid.
131
Drugs absorbed from GI tract enter the. | This is known as
portal venous blood and pass through the liver prior to entering systemic circulation first pass hepatic effect.
132
• Drugs that undergo large first pass hepatic effect have large differences in pharmacological effect between IV and PO routes of administration. EX
(lidocaine, propranolol)
133
Zero order kinetics
Specific number of molecules removed, REGARDLESS of the dose given
134
Oral Transmucosal route 3 advantages What does it bypass?
Permits rapid onset of action. • Venous drainage into the superior vena cava bypasses the liver and avoids first pass effect. • Explains why sublingual NTG is more effective than PO NTG.
135
Which route provides sustained therapeutic plasma concentration. • Examples of drugs available as transdermal patch include;
Transdermal route NTG, clonidine, fentanyl, scopolamine, estrogen, nicotine
136
Characteristics of a drug that favors | transdermal administration include;
```  Combined water and lipid solubility  Molecular weight < 1,000  pH 5-9 in a saturated aqueous solution  absence of histamine release  Daily dosing requirements < 10mg ```
137
Rectal : Drugs administered to_________ | avoid the first pass effect.
lower rectum
138
Drugs administered into the________ _____are absorbed into the superior _______ _____and are transported to the liver, hence first pass effect.
proximal rectum ; hemorrhoidal veins
139
Most rapid and predictable route
IV
140
``` Only acceptable route in the unconscious and uncooperative patient. • More expensive • Most risky ```
IV
141
``` Distribution of drugs after systemic absorption Explain What happens after systemic absorption? What happen to plasma concentration?, what happen? Redistribution depends on what factors? ```
After systemic absorption , the highly perfused tissues (heart, brain, kidneys, liver) receive a disproportionately large amount of the total dose. • As plasma concentration falls below that achieved in highly perfused tissues, the drug redistributes to less well perfused sites such as skeletal muscle and fat. • Redistribution depends on blood flow, concentration gradient for non-ionized, lipid soluble, and unbound to protein portion
142
If drugs can access brain
Has to be lipid soluble
143
Redistribution concept explain Tissue does what? Repeated dose lead to Drugs example?
A tissue that accumulates drug can act as a reservoir to maintain the drug concentration in the systemic circulation and prolong its duration of action. • Repeated dosing or large doses may saturate inactive tissue sites and prevent the drug from distributing into inactive sites and thus prolong the duration of action. • This can occur with drugs such as fentanyl or thiopental. • Waning of drug effects now depend on metabolism rather than redistribution
144
Uptake into lungs
Basic lipophilic amines such as lidocaine, meperidine, fentanyl sufentanil, and alfentanil will quickly distribute to the lungs were they are inactive. • Pulmonary uptake of drugs can influencethe peak arterial concentration and serve as a depot for drug redistribution
145
Pulmonary uptake of drugs can influence the
peak arterial concentration and serve as a depot for drug redistribution
146
Blood brain barrier | • Prevents
distribution of ionized water soluble drugs to the CNS
147
Pharmacodynamics simple
“What the drug does to the body | ”
148
Pharmacodynamics definition
study of the intrinsic sensitivity of responsiveness of receptors to a drug and the mechanism by which these effects occur.
149
Isomers are
different compounds that have the same molecular formula.
150
Sterioisomers -
are a particular kind of isomer that are different from each other only in the way the atoms are oriented in space (but are like one another with respect to which atoms are joined to which other atoms)
151
Enantiomers
A pair of molecules existing in two forms that are mirror images of one another but cannot be superimposed.
152
Enantiomers that are dissolved in solution, can be distinguished –
by the direction that rotate polarized light.
153
– (d or +) rotate light to the
right
154
(l or -) rotate light to the
left
155
When two enantiomers are present in
equal proportions (50:50), they are referred to as a racemic mixture.
156
A racemic mixture (does/does not) rotate polarized light.
does not
157
Heparin PTT Drawn after 6 hours because
by that time, 5 half lives (steady state to occur)
158
Lock and Key Emphasizes the fact that
biological systems are inherently steriospecific.
159
Factors that effect the phamacodynamics of a drug | •CRC PAP
-Concentration or density of receptors. - Responsiveness of the receptor. - Clinical state of the patient; - Preexisting disease -Age of the patient -pH balance effects the degree of ionization
160
Hyperactive-
unusually low doses produces desired effect
161
• Hypersensitive-
Term used to describe patients that are allergic (sensitive) to a drug
162
• Hyporeactive-
patients that require unusually high doses to evoke a desired effect.
163
• Tolerance-describes
hyporeactivity that is | acquired from chronic exposure to a drug
164
• Tachyphylaxis is
tolerance that develops | after a few doses or short period of time.
165
An additive effect-
a second acting with the first drug will produce an effect equal to an algebraic summation (1+1=2)
166
Synergistic effect-
The two drugs interact to produce an effect that is greater than the algebraic summation (1+1=4)
167
• Agonist-
a drug that activates a receptor by binding to it
168
• Antagonist-
A drug that binds to receptor but does not activate the receptor and blocks any activation of that receptor.
169
Dose response curve
Show the relationship between the dose of a drug and the resulting pharmacological response
170
Morphine 6 glucorinide
More active than parent compound morphine itself
171
Dose response curves are characterized by differences in (PIES)
potency, individual response efficacy slope,
172
The potency of a drug is depicted by its
location along the dose axis of the dose response curve
173
Factors that effect potency include | ADME + A
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion, and affinity for the receptor sites
174
Potency has no real clinical difference as | long as the the
effective dose can be achieved.
175
The slope is influenced by
the number of receptors that must be occupied to have a certain effect.
176
______And ________are characterized by a steep dose response curve. • Small increases in dose will have a
Neuromuscular blockers and inhaled anesthetics dramatic increase in effects.
177
• An increase from 1 MAC to 1.3 MAC will | prevents movement in skeletal muscle from
50% of patients to 95% of patients
178
Efficacy • Side effects may limit the dosage to below the concentration associated with maximal desirable effects.
• The efficacy is depicted by the plateau in dose response curve.
179
• Therapeutic index-
the difference between the the dose that produces the desired effect and dose that produces undesirable effects. • LD50/ED50
180
Competitive antagonist-
increasing concentrations of antagonist progressively inhibits the response to an unchanging concentration of agonist.
181
Noncompetitive antagonist
Even high concentrations of agonist cannot overcome blockade of the antagonist
182
Events that determine variation in drug response • Pharmacokinetics
```  Bioavailability  Renal function  Hepatic function  Cardiac function  Patient Age ```
183
Events that determine variation in drug response Pharmacodynamics
Pharcodynamics  Enzyme activity  genetic difference • Drug interactions
184
Elderly patients have those
``` Decreased cardiac output Enlarged fat content decreased protein binding, decreased renal function all lead to drug accumulation and increased risk of toxicity ```
185
Can effect the individual response curve   G6PD deficiency certain drugs can cause hemolysis (Isoniazid)
Genetic disorders
186
 Atypical pseudocholinesterase patients lack
the enzyme that breaks down NMB agents
187
 Malignant hyperthermia produces a
devastating hypermetabolism
188
Intermittent porphyria evoked by
barbiturates purple urine
189
 G6PD deficiency certain drugs can cause
hemolysis (Isoniazid)
190
Drug interactions | •
``` Impaired absorption Competition for plasma binding sites Enzyme induction and inhibition Change in rate of renal excretion (Example probenacid and PCN) ```
191
Van der Waals forces-
weakest type of bond between atoms or groups of atoms.
192
Hydrogen bonds-
occur between hyproxyl or amino groups and electronegative carboxyl oxygen.
193
Covalent bonds-
Sharing of pair of electrons (strongest and hardest bond to break)
194
Ionic bond-
bond between groups of oppositely charged molecules
195
Plasma drug concentration • •
Clearance rate must match infusion rate to maintain plasma steady state.
196
• Changes in Vd will necessitate an
increase or decrease of initial loading dose
197
________ and __________is a method to obtain therapeutic levels quickly and steady state quickly
Loading dose and maintenance dose
198
Weak ACID pHpKa what form?
Non-ionized (lipid soluble) | Ionized (water soluble)
199
Weak BASE pHpKa what form?
Ionized (water soluble) | Non-Ionized (lipid soluble)
200
What form readily cross membrane
Non-ionized (lipid soluble)
201
2 factors context sensitive half life take into considerations
Clearance and volume of distribution