BLP: Corporate Insolvency Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

What statute defines corporate insolvency and its primary tests?

A

The Insolvency Act 1986 defines insolvency, with tests including inability to pay debts as they fall due (cash flow test), liabilities exceeding assets (balance sheet test), failure to comply with a statutory demand of at least £750, and failure to satisfy a judgment debt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What duty do directors have when a company is in financial difficulty?

A

Directors must continuously monitor the company’s financial performance, recognize signs of difficulty (e.g., unpaid creditors, fully drawn overdraft, liabilities exceeding assets), and consider options to avoid wrongful trading or breach of duties under the Companies Act 2006.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List five possible actions directors may take when a company faces financial distress.

A

Do nothing (risking personal liability), negotiate informal arrangements (e.g., standstill agreements, granting additional security, cost reductions), seek a pre-insolvency moratorium, propose a company voluntary arrangement (CVA) or restructuring plan, appoint an administrator or place the company into liquidation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an informal standstill agreement in the context of insolvency?

A

An informal standstill is a contractual arrangement where creditors agree not to enforce their rights for a specified period, giving the company time to negotiate a more permanent arrangement without being subject to enforcement actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name three measures a company might include in an informal arrangement with creditors.

A

Granting new or additional security, replacing key personnel, selling assets or subsidiaries, reducing costs (e.g., redundancies), or issuing new shares in a debt-for-equity swap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a pre-insolvency moratorium and how is it obtained?

A

Introduced by CIGA 2020, a pre-insolvency moratorium grants a company breathing space during which creditors cannot enforce security, start legal proceedings, or wind up the company. It is obtained by filing statements at court, including a director’s insolvency likelihood statement and a monitor’s report from a licensed insolvency practitioner stating rescue prospects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who acts as the Monitor during a pre-insolvency moratorium, and what must they certify?

A

A licensed insolvency practitioner serves as Monitor and must certify that it is likely the moratorium will result in rescuing the company as a going concern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long does the initial pre-insolvency moratorium last, and can it be extended?

A

The initial moratorium lasts 20 business days, extendable by a further 20 business days at directors’ discretion; further extensions require creditor consent and/or court order, up to a maximum of one year subject to court approval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which debts must a company pay during a pre-insolvency moratorium?

A

Debts excluded from the pre-moratorium repayment holiday: the Monitor’s fees and expenses, goods and services supplied during the moratorium, rent for the period, wages, redundancy payments, and loans under financial services contracts. All “moratorium debts” incurred during the moratorium must also be paid as they fall due.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What binding effect does a company voluntary arrangement (CVA) have?

A

Once approved by at least 75% in value of voting unsecured creditors (excluding secured and preferential creditors without consent) and a simple majority of shareholders, a CVA binds all unsecured creditors to a proposed compromise or repayment timetable, even if they voted against it or were absent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Outline the main steps to set up a CVA.

A

Directors appoint a Nominee (insolvency practitioner), prepare a proposal and statement of affairs, Nominee reports to court within 28 days, a creditors’ meeting is called (14 days’ notice), creditors vote (75% value threshold excluding secured/preferential), shareholders vote (simple majority), and the Nominee reports approval to court. Upon challenge period expiry without successful challenge, the CVA becomes binding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which creditors are excluded from being bound by a CVA unless they consent?

A

Secured and preferential creditors are not bound by a CVA unless they unanimously consent to the arrangement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a restructuring plan under CIGA 2020, and how is it approved?

A

A court-sanctioned compromise between a company and its creditors or shareholders to restructure liabilities. Approval requires at least 75% in value of each voting class of creditors or shareholders, followed by court sanction, which can bind secured creditors and dissenting classes (cross-class cram down).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain the conditions for a cross-class cram down under a restructuring plan.

A

The court may sanction a plan over a dissenting class if the dissenting class would not be any worse off than in the next statutory insolvency outcome and at least one voting class with genuine economic interest approves the plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are two advantages of a restructuring plan over a CVA?

A

A restructuring plan can bind secured and preferential creditors and dissenting classes if sanctioned by the court (via cross-class cram down), whereas a CVA cannot bind secured or preferential creditors without their consent and does not require court sanction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What three objectives must an administrator pursue under Schedule B1 IA 1986, in order?

A

(a) Rescue the company as a going concern; if not, (b) achieve a better result for creditors as a whole than in liquidation; if not, (c) realize assets to distribute to secured or preferential creditors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who can appoint an administrator by court order, and what interim protection arises?

A

The court may appoint an administrator on application by the company, directors, a creditor, CVA supervisor, or liquidator if the company is insolvent or likely to become insolvent. An interim moratorium arises on application, temporarily freezing creditor actions until the administration order is made or dismissed.

18
Q

Describe the out-of-court procedure for appointing an administrator by the directors.

A

Directors file a Notice of Intention to appoint (NOI) at court, then within 10 business days file the Notice of Appointment. If a qualifying floating charge holder (QFC) exists, they have five business days from NOI to appoint their own administrator; if they do not, directors’ choice is appointed.

19
Q

What qualifies as a qualifying floating charge (QFC)?

A

A floating charge over substantially the whole of a company’s property that expressly grants the charge holder power to appoint an administrator under Schedule B1 para 14 IA 1986.

20
Q

List three powers of an administrator under IA 1986.

A

Powers to carry on the company’s business, take possession and sell company property (with consent for fixed-charged assets), borrow money, execute documents in the company’s name, and bring proceedings against directors for wrongful or fraudulent trading.

21
Q

What protections does a company gain upon entering administration?

A

A full moratorium under Schedule B1 IA 1986 prevents legal proceedings, winding up, enforcement of security, forfeiture of leases, and appointment of administrative receivers (subject to court or administrator consent).

22
Q

What is a pre-pack administration?

A

A sale of a company’s business and assets to a pre-selected buyer arranged before administrators’ appointment, with the sale completed immediately upon appointment to preserve goodwill and achieve certainty, subject to pre-sale approval procedures for connected-party transactions.

23
Q

What is an administrative receiver, and why are they rare today?

A

An administrator appointed by a QFC holder under pre-Enterprise Act 2002 charges to enforce security. Administrative receivership was restricted by EA 2002, making it available only for pre-September 15, 2003 charges or statutory exceptions, so it is now rare.

24
Q

What is the role of a fixed charge receiver?

A

Appointed by a fixed charge holder to take control of and sell specific secured assets, applying proceeds to the appointor’s debt. They owe duties primarily to the appointor and cannot deal with assets outside the fixed charge.

25
When is a court-appointed receiver used, and what is their function?
Rarely used; appointed by court orders (e.g., shareholder disputes or under Proceeds of Crime Act) to manage and preserve a company’s assets and run the business until disputes are resolved.
26
Define liquidation and the role of a liquidator.
Liquidation (winding up) is the process of closing a company’s business, realizing assets, and distributing proceeds to creditors and members. The liquidator is an insolvency practitioner who takes control, realizes assets, determines creditors’ claims, and distributes funds according to statutory priority.
27
What are the three types of liquidation under IA 1986?
Compulsory liquidation ordered by court; Members’ Voluntary Liquidation (MVL) for solvent companies with directors’ declaration of solvency; and Creditors’ Voluntary Liquidation (CVL) for insolvent companies initiated by shareholders but under creditors’ control.
28
Who may present a winding-up petition in compulsory liquidation?
A creditor, the company (via shareholders), directors (by resolution), an administrator, an administrative receiver, a CVA supervisor, or the Secretary of State for Business, Energy & Industrial Strategy.
29
What are the two most common grounds for compulsory liquidation?
Inability to pay debts (s 123 IA 1986) evidenced by failure to comply with a statutory demand, failure to satisfy a judgment debt, cash flow test, or balance sheet test; and just and equitable grounds.
30
What happens to dispositions of property and share transfers after a winding-up petition is presented?
They are void under s 127 IA 1986 if made after petition presentation and before the winding-up order, to prevent asset stripping.
31
What must directors include in a declaration of solvency for an MVL?
A statement that they have made a full inquiry into the company’s affairs and believe creditors will be paid in full with interest within 12 months, accompanied by a statement of assets and liabilities at the latest practicable date.
32
What are the consequences if a director makes a false declaration of solvency?
Under s 89 IA 1986, they face criminal liability (fine or imprisonment) and presumption of no reasonable grounds if debts not paid within the specified 12-month period.
33
Outline the procedure for a CVL once shareholders pass the resolution.
Shareholders pass a special resolution to wind up and an ordinary resolution to appoint a nominated liquidator. Within 14 days, directors must send creditors a statement of affairs and offer creditors the right to choose the liquidator. Creditors’ nomination prevails if different.
34
Upon liquidation commencement, what happens to directors’ powers?
Directors lose all management powers; the liquidator assumes control of the company’s affairs and assets.
35
List four powers of a liquidator under IA 1986.
Sell company property, execute documents in the company’s name, raise money on assets, carry on business only as necessary to benefit winding up, bring or defend legal proceedings in the company’s name, and apply to set aside undervalue transactions or preferences.
36
What kinds of antecedent transactions can a liquidator challenge?
Disclaim onerous property (s 178), set aside transactions at undervalue (s 238), set aside preferences (s 239), set aside extortionate credit transactions (s 244), invalidate floating charges with insufficient consideration (s 245), and set aside transactions defrauding creditors (s 423).
37
In the statutory order of priority, which costs are paid first from fixed-charge assets?
Liquidator’s fees and expenses of preserving and realizing fixed-charge assets, followed by the fixed-charge creditor’s debt.
38
After paying fixed-charge debts, which costs and creditors are paid next?
Other costs and expenses of the liquidation (including costs of realizing floating charge assets) followed by preferential creditors in order: first tier (employees’ wages up to £800 and pension contributions), then second tier (Crown debts: PAYE/NI and VAT).
39
What is the ‘prescribed part’ in liquidation priority, and how is it calculated?
A statutory pool reserved for unsecured creditors from floating charge realizations: 50% of the first £10,000 of net property and 20% of the excess, capped at £600,000 for charges before 6 April 2020 and £800,000 thereafter.
40
Which creditors are paid after the prescribed part has been set aside?
Floating charge holders are paid next, followed by unsecured creditors (including claims against shortfalls on security), then interest on their debts, and finally shareholders.
41
What is the maximum prescribed part fund for floating charges created after 6 April 2020?
£800,000.
42
In a liquidation, why might shareholders receive no distribution?
Shareholders are last in the statutory priority; if insufficient funds remain after paying fixed-charge, preferential, floating-charge, and unsecured creditors (plus interest), there is nothing left for shareholders.