Professional Conduct: Regulatory and Legal Environment Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

What are the seven SRA Principles (2019)?

A
  1. Act in a way that upholds the constitutional principle of the rule of law and the proper administration of justice 2. Act in a way that upholds public trust and confidence in the solicitors’ profession and in legal services provided by authorised persons 3. Act with independence 4. Act with honesty 5. Act with integrity 6. Act in a way that encourages equality, diversity and inclusion 7. Act in the best interests of each client
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does Principle 1 require of a legal professional?

A

Act in a way that upholds the constitutional principle of the rule of law and the proper administration of justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does Principle 2 require of a legal professional?

A

Act in a way that upholds public trust and confidence in the solicitors’ profession and in legal services provided by authorised persons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain the requirement of Principle 3.

A

Act with independence, meaning you must not allow external pressure, personal interest, or improper influence to affect your professional judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain the requirement of Principle 4.

A

Act with honesty, meaning you must not lie or mislead clients, the court, or others by your own acts or omissions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain the requirement of Principle 5.

A

Act with integrity, meaning you must be scrupulous, careful, and accurate—e.g., you breach integrity if you inadvertently or knowingly allow someone else to be misled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does Principle 6 require?

A

Act in a way that encourages equality, diversity and inclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does Principle 7 require?

A

Act in the best interests of each client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Under CCS 6.3, what is the solicitor’s duty of confidentiality?

A

You keep the affairs of current and former clients confidential unless disclosure is required or permitted by law or the client consents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List three exceptions to the duty of confidentiality (CCS 6.3).

A

(1) Disclosure required by statute (e.g., HMRC, National Crime Agency); (2) Statutory/regulatory reporting (e.g., anti-money laundering duties); (3) To support a defence in a civil claim or criminal prosecution; additionally, cases involving child abuse where disclosure is necessary to protect the child’s welfare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the solicitor’s duty of disclosure under CCS 6.4?

A

Where you are acting for a client on a matter, you make the client aware of all information material to the matter of which you have personal knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give two exceptions to the duty of disclosure (CCS 6.4).

A

(1) Disclosure prohibited by legal restrictions (national security or prevention of crime); (2) Client gives informed consent in writing not to disclose; (3) Disclosure would cause serious physical or mental harm; (4) Information contained in a privileged document mistakenly disclosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define ‘material information’ in the context of CCS 6.4.

A

Information reasonably expected to affect the client’s decision-making in a way significant to their matter as a whole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does CCS 6.5 prohibit regarding adverse interests?

A

You do not act for a client in a matter where that client has an interest adverse to another current/former client for whom you hold confidential information material to that matter, unless effective measures eliminate real risk of disclosure, or the former client gives written informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give three examples of ‘effective measures’ under CCS 6.5(a).

A

(1) Separate departments handling cases; (2) Encrypted/password-protected files; (3) Separate servers/printers so confidential data cannot be cross-accessed; (4) Firm-wide policies and staff training to prevent inadvertent disclosure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the Mr and Mrs Smith example, why cannot the solicitor act for Mrs Smith?

A

Because the solicitor personally knows Mr Smith’s conviction (confidential), cannot implement effective barriers (information is in their head), and Mr Smith is unlikely to consent to disclosure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does CCS 1.1 require regarding discrimination?

A

You do not unfairly discriminate by allowing your personal views to affect professional relationships or the provision of services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does CCS 1.2 prohibit?

A

You do not abuse your position by taking unfair advantage of clients or others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does CCS 1.3 require concerning undertakings?

A

You perform all undertakings given by you, within an agreed timescale or, if none is agreed, within a reasonable time

20
Q

What does CCS 1.4 prohibit?

A

You do not mislead or attempt to mislead clients, the court, or others by your own acts or omissions, or by allowing others (including the client) to do so

21
Q

Under CCS 2.1, what must a solicitor not do?

A

You do not misuse or tamper with evidence or attempt to do so

22
Q

Under CCS 2.2, what must a solicitor not do?

A

You do not seek to influence the substance of evidence, generate false evidence, or persuade witnesses to change their evidence

23
Q

What does CCS 2.4 require when making submissions to the court?

A

You only make assertions, statements, representations, or submissions that are properly arguable

24
Q

What does CCS 3.2 require regarding client service?

A

You ensure the service you provide to clients is competent and delivered in a timely manner

25
What does CCS 3.3 require of legal professionals?
You maintain your competence to carry out your role and keep professional knowledge and skills up to date
26
What does CCS 3.4 require when advising clients?
You consider and take account of your client’s attributes, needs, and circumstances when providing legal advice
27
What are the duties of a manager under CCS 3.5 and 3.6?
CCS 3.5: You remain accountable for work done through those you supervise and effectively supervise their work. CCS 3.6: You ensure those you manage are competent and keep knowledge/skills and understanding of legal, ethical, and regulatory obligations up to date
28
What does CCS 4.2 require regarding client funds?
You safeguard any money and assets entrusted to you by clients and others
29
How does CCS 1.3 define an undertaking?
A statement (oral or written) to someone who reasonably relies on it, that you or a third party will do something or cause something to be done
30
Under the Equality Act 2010, list five protected characteristics.
Age; Disability; Gender reassignment; Marriage and civil partnership; Pregnancy and maternity; Race; Religion or belief; Sex; Sexual orientation
31
Define 'equality' vs 'diversity' vs 'inclusion' (SRA guidance).
Equality: ensuring a level playing field and fair treatment; Diversity: encouraging and valuing a broad range of backgrounds, skills, and experiences; Inclusion: accepting people for who they are and encouraging full participation
32
What does Principle 6 of the SRA Principles require?
You must act in a way that encourages equality, diversity and inclusion
33
What do CCS 1.1, 1.2, and 3.4 collectively require for EDI?
CCS 1.1: Do not unfairly discriminate; CCS 1.2: Do not abuse your position to take unfair advantage; CCS 3.4: Consider and take into account client attributes, needs, and circumstances
34
State two firm-level EDI duties (SRA guidance).
Firms must have a complaints procedure that deals promptly and fairly with discrimination/harassment/victimisation; Firms should produce and implement an EDI policy, monitor diversity data, and attract/retain talented staff through fair recruitment and progression processes
35
What does CCS 8.8 require about publicity?
You ensure any publicity relating to your practice is accurate and not misleading, including charges and circumstances in which interest is payable
36
What does CCS 8.9 prohibit?
You do not make unsolicited approaches to members of the public (except current/former clients) to advertise legal services
37
Name two Transparency Rules categories a firm must publish (Rule 1 and 4).
Rule 1 (Costs information): total cost, basis of charges (hourly rates/fixed fees), experience of fee earner, likely disbursements, VAT details, services included and timescales; Rule 4 (Regulatory information): SRA number, digital badge on website, SRA authorisation statement on letterhead and emails
38
What must a client introduced by a third party be informed of under CCS 5.1?
(a) Any financial or other interest which the introducer has in referring the client; (b) Any fee sharing arrangement relevant to their matter
39
Under CCS 5.1, what is prohibited regarding referral fees for criminal-proceedings clients?
You are not permitted to pay an introducer a fee for referring clients who are subject of criminal proceedings or whose costs are publicly funded
40
What additional upfront step is required for any introducer arrangement (CCS 5.1)?
Arrangements with introducers must be in writing
41
List two points of good practice when managing introductions/referrals.
(1) Make a statement to the client (preferably in writing) that your advice is independent; (2) Confirm to the client that any information disclosed will remain confidential (especially from the introducer/fee sharer); (3) If acting for both introducer and client, monitor conflicts and cease acting if necessary
42
Briefly explain Section 56(1) LASPO’s relevance to referrals.
Prohibits solicitors from referring or receiving referrals for personal injury/death claims to each other in consideration for a referral fee (including through intermediaries) unless the payment is genuinely for services provided
43
What anti-bribery due diligence must a law firm perform under BA 2010?
Ensure business contacts have an anti-bribery policy and comply with it; Confirm information gathered (e.g., by enquiry agents) isn’t obtained via bribes; Set clear limits on corporate hospitality/gifts to avoid improper influence
44
Name four bodies regulating legal professionals in England & Wales.
Legal Services Board; Solicitors Regulation Authority (SRA); Bar Standards Board (BSB); Chartered Institute of Legal Executives (CILEx); Council for Licensed Conveyancers (CLC); Costs Lawyers Standards Board
45
If a client complains about poor service/fees after exhausting a firm’s complaints process, where can they go next?
Legal Ombudsman (LO), which can require apologies, compensation, error correction, specific remedial action, or fee limitation but cannot discipline or fine a lawyer
46
What powers does the SRA have when investigating misconduct?
Issue warnings; impose disciplinary sanctions/fines; reprimand for professional misconduct; order repayment/refund of fees; impose practice restrictions; bring proceedings before the Solicitors Disciplinary Tribunal; revoke firm recognition; close a firm
47
What powers does the Solicitors Disciplinary Tribunal (SDT) hold?
Strike a solicitor off the roll; suspend from practice; reprimand; impose fines; award costs; make restriction orders on practice areas; cannot award compensation