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Anatomy for Systems > Bones, Joints, Muscles, Nerves, Back and Lymphatics > Flashcards

Bones, Joints, Muscles, Nerves, Back and Lymphatics Flashcards

1
Q

Define ipsilateral

A

On the same side of the body or structure

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2
Q

Define contralateral

A

On opposite side of the body to structure

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3
Q

What does the sagittal plane separate?

A

Left and right

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4
Q

What does the coronal plane separate?

A

Anterior and posterior

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5
Q

What does the transverse plane separate?

A

Superior and inferior

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6
Q

What cavities make up the dorsal cavity?

A

Cranial and spinal cavity

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7
Q

What cavities make up the ventral cavity?

A

Thoracic, abdominal and pelvic cavity

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8
Q

What side is the spleen on?

A

Left

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9
Q

Are the kidneys anterior or posterior to the liver?

A

Posterior

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10
Q

What vertebral level is the sternal angle?

A

T4

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11
Q

What vertebral level is the xiphoid process?

A

T9

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12
Q

What makes up the “elbow”?

A

Olecranon process of ulna

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13
Q

What vertebral level is the anterior superior iliac spine?

A

L4

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14
Q

What dermatome is the nipples in?

A

T4

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15
Q

What dermatome is the umbilicus in?

A

T10

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16
Q

Which embryonic germ layer gives rise to bone, cartilage and skeletal muscle?

A

Mesoderm

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17
Q

Which embryonic germ layer gives rise to nerve tissue?

A

Ectoderm

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18
Q

Which embryonic germ layers gives rise to skin?

A

Ectoderm (epidermis) and mesoderm (dermis)

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19
Q

Which embryonic germ layers gives rise to smooth muscle?

A

Ectoderm and mesoderm

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20
Q

What makes hyaline cartilage?

A

Chondrocytes

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21
Q

In what type of tissue do you see Haversian canals and Volkmanns canals?

A

Compact bone

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22
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found?

A

Epiphyseal growth plate

Joint surfaces - primary cartilaginous joints on long bones

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23
Q

What is the axial skeleton?

A

Bones of the long axis of the body e.g. head, neck, thorax etc

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24
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton?

A

Bones that are appended to the axial skeleton, of the limbs e.g. upper limb girdle, upper limb, lower limb girdle and lower limb

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25
Q

What 3 bones make up the lower limb girdle?

A

Ilium
Iscium
Pubis

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26
Q

What 2 bones make up the upper limb girdle?

A

Clavicle

Scapula

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27
Q

What is the function of the compact bone?

A

Strength for weight bearing, support

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28
Q

What is the function of the trabecular bone?

A

Flexibility, mechanical stress

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29
Q

What is the function of the bone marrow cavity?

A

Haematopoeisis and fat storage

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30
Q

What is the periosteum and its function?

A

Periosteum is the outer covering of the bones, necessary for bone health and development (site of appositional growth). Also allows the attachment of muscles and provides pathway for blood and lymphatic vessels

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31
Q

Where is the metaphysis found?

A

Narrow section between the epiphysis (end of bone) and the diaphysis (middle section of bone)

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32
Q

What is appositional growth?

A

Increase in bone width, addition of new bone tissue from the periosteum

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33
Q

What is interstitial growth?

A

Increase in bone length, cell division in growth plate/epiphyseal plate

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34
Q

What is the function of a sesamoid bone?

A

Develop in tendons and protect them from excessive wear e.g. patella

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35
Q

What is a condyle?

A

Rounded articular area

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36
Q

What are the functions of a epicondyle?

A

Eminence superior to condyles, act as a site of attachment for muscles over a joint

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37
Q

What structures are responsible for bone movement?

A

Muscle tendons

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38
Q

What structures are responsible for joint stability?

A

Ligaments

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39
Q

Whats a tubercle?

A

Small raised eminence

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40
Q

What is a tuberosity, and what structures attach to these?

A

Large rough prominence, site of attachment of muscles

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41
Q

What is a facet?

A

Smooth flat area, usually covered with cartilage, where a bone articulates with another bone

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42
Q

What is a process?

A

Projecting spine-like part of a bone

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43
Q

What is a spine?

A

Thorn like process

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44
Q

What type of joint occurs at facets e.g. on vertebrae?

A

Synovial plane joints

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45
Q

What is formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

Flat bones e.g. skull, ribs clavicle, mandible

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46
Q

What is formed by endochondral ossification?

A

Forms most bones in body, especially long bones e.g. fibula

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47
Q

What type of joint is found in the costochondral joint?

A

Primary cartilaginous joint

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48
Q

What type of joint is between the intervertebral discs?

A

Secondary cartilaginous joint/symphisis

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49
Q

What type of joints are the shoulder and hip joints?

A

Synovial ball and socket joint

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50
Q

What type of joints are the elbow and the knee?

A

Synovial hinge

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51
Q

What types of joints are the superior and inferior radioulnar joints (NOT syndesmosis in between)?

A

Synovial pivot

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52
Q

What type of joint is the atlanto-axial joint?

A

Synovial pivot

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53
Q

What type of joint is acromioclavicular joint?

A

Synovial plane

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54
Q

What type of joint is the carpometacarpal joints (between trapezium and first metacarpal)?

A

Synovial saddle

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55
Q

What type of joint is the metacarpophalangeal joints (between metacarpal and proximal phalanx)?

A

Synovial condyloid

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56
Q

Name the 3 types of fibrous joint

A

Suture
Gomphosis
Syndesmosis

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57
Q

In what plane of the body are secondary cartilaginous/symphysis joints usually found?

A

Medial

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58
Q

How do primary and secondary cartilaginous joints differ in structure?

A

Primary - bone, hyaline cartilage, bone

Secondary - bone, hyaline cartilage, fibrous cartilage, hyaline cartilage, bone

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59
Q

Describe pronation and supination of the arm

A

Pronation - rotate arm so back of hand faces forward

Supination - rotate arm so palm of hands face towards

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60
Q

In what type of imaging does bone appear white?

A

CT

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61
Q

What is the difference between anatomical variation and anatomical anomaly?

A

Variation - differences not regarded as disease, just interindividual variation

Anomoly - structural abnormality or marked deviation

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62
Q

Describe some anatomical variation between female and male pelvises

A

females - wider pelvic outlet, tilted back sacrum, thinner and lighter, ilia spread wider, larger subpubic angle (>90)

males - smaller pelvic outlet, sacrum tilted forward, thicker and heavier, ilia closer together, smaller supbubic angle (<90)

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63
Q

Describe some anatomical variation between female and male skulls

A

Males - more prominent brow ridge, larger mastoid process

Females - smoother more vertical frontal bone, small mastoid process

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64
Q

What type of tissue is found in muscle tendons?

A

Dense regular connective tissue

65
Q

What dermatome is the inguinal region in?

A

L1

66
Q

Describe tissue found in tendons

A

Fibrous fleshy dense regular connective tissue

67
Q

What is the origin of a muscle?

A

The proximal/medial/superior attachment

68
Q

What is the insertion of a muscle?

A

The distal/inferior/lateral attachment of a muscle

69
Q

How do tendons attach to bones?

A

Fibres are embedded into periosteum of bone to anchor then on and spread the force of contraction

70
Q

What are the flat white sheets of tendon found over the abdominal oblique muscles called?

A

Aponeurosis

71
Q

What type of joint is found between radius and ulna?

A

Synovial pivot

72
Q

What action does the middle fibres (II, III and IV) of the deltoid have?

A

Abduction

73
Q

What action does the posterior fibres have on the deltoid?

A

Extension

74
Q

What is an agonist muscle?

A

Muscles that cause a movement through their contraction

75
Q

What is an antagonist muscle?

A

Muscles that appose a movement to control the motion

76
Q

What are synergist muscles?

A

Muscles that work together or help perform/stabilise a certain movement

77
Q

What are fixator/stabilising muscles?

A

Act by stabilising joint and preventing dislocation

78
Q

What nerves make up the brachial plexus?

A

C5-T1

79
Q

What nerves make up the lumbrosacral plexus?

A

L1-S4

80
Q

Describe the normal components of sphincters

A

Mostly composed of involuntary rings of smooth muscle internally and a ring of voluntary skeletal muscle externally

81
Q

Define a motor unit

A

Made up of a motor neuron and muscle fibres innervated by that motor neurone axonal terminal

82
Q

What type of muscle has cigar shaped nuclei?

A

Smooth muscle

83
Q

What does the ventral root contain?

A

Carries motor efferent fibres only

84
Q

What does the dorsal root carry?

A

Carries sensory afferent fibres only

85
Q

What does the ventral rami carry?

A

Carries both motor and sensory fibres for the anterior part of the body and the limbs

86
Q

What does the dorsal rami carry?

A

Carries both motor and sensory fibres for the posterior of the body (not including limbs) t

87
Q

What type of information is relayed to the anterior horn of the spinal cord?

A

Motor information

88
Q

What type of information is relayed to the posterior horn of the spinal cord?

A

Sensory information

89
Q

Define a dermatome

A

Unilateral area of skin innervated by the general sensory fibres of a single spinal nerve

90
Q

What nerve has a dermatome covering the upper neck and ear?

A

C3

91
Q

What nerve has a dermatome covering the neck?

A

C4

92
Q

What nerve in the brachial plexus has a dermatome covering the thumb?

A

C6

93
Q

What dermatome is the sternal angle in?

A

T2

94
Q

What dermatome is the nipples in?

A

T4

95
Q

What dermatome is the umbilicus in?

A

T10

96
Q

What dermatome is the inguinal region?

A

L1

97
Q

What dermatome is the diploid process in?

A

T6

98
Q

Describe the structure of a nerve bundle?

A

Each individual nerve fibres/axon is surrounded by a endoneurlium and a myelin sheath. A collection of endoneuriums make up a nerve fascicle, which are surrounded by a perineurium. A collection of these are surrounded by a epineurium

99
Q

What type of muscle makes up the diaphragm?

A

Skeletal

100
Q

Where do spinal nerves exit the spinal cord?

A

Intervertebral foramen

101
Q

What contains the spinal cord in the vertebral column?

A

Vertebral foramen

102
Q

What joint is found between the articular facets of subjacent vertebrae?

A

Synovial plane

103
Q

What type of joint is found between the skull and the atlas (C1)?

A

Synovial ellipsoid

104
Q

Describe the vertebrae in the vertebral column

A 
Cervical - 7
Thoracic - 12
Lumbar - 5
Sacral - 5
Coccygeal - 4
105
Q

What specific name is given to C7?

A

Vertebra prominens

106
Q

Describe how you can distinguish between cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

A

Cervical - small wide body, small spinous processes, large triangular vertebral foramen, presence of transverse foramen

Thoracic - heart shaped body, circular vertebral foramen, long spinous processes

Lumbar - kidney shaped body, flattened triangular vertebral foramen, long slender transverse processes, short stumpy spinous processes

107
Q

What 2 components make up the body of a vertebrae?

A

Annulus fibrosus rings externally

Nucleus pulposus internally

108
Q

In what direction would the nucleus pulposus of a vertebrae have to herniate to compress an emerging spinal nerve?

A

Posterolaterally - often here as the annulus fibrosus is thinner and not supported by ligaments

109
Q

What are the 5 ligaments of the vertebral column?

A 
Ligamentum flavum
Anterior longitudinal ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Supraspinous ligament
Interspinous ligament
110
Q

What does the ligamentum flavum connect?

A

Connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae

111
Q

What does the anterior longitudinal ligament connect?

A

Connects the anterior of the bodies of vertebrae

112
Q

What does the posterior longitudinal ligament connect?

A

Connects the posterior of the bodies of vertebrae

113
Q

What does the supraspinous ligament connect?

A

Connects the tips of the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae

114
Q

What does the interspinous ligament connect?

A

Connects the gaps between adjoining spinous processes

115
Q

What is kyphoses and where is it found in the body?

A

Concave anteriorly (curves towards back)

Thoracic and sacral

116
Q

What is lordoses and where is it found in the body?

A

Concave posteriorly (curves towards front)

Cervical and lumbar

117
Q

When does the cervical curvature become apparent?

A

When baby learns to lift their head

118
Q

When does the lumbar curvature develop?

A

When infant begins to walk upright

119
Q

What curvatures of the vertebral column are secondary curvatures?

A

Lordoses - cervical and lumbar

120
Q

What plane are the articular facets on the cervical vertebrae?

A

Horizontal/transverse

121
Q

What plane are the articular facets on the thoracic vertebrae?

A

Coronal

122
Q

What plane are the articular facets on the lumbar vertebrae?

A

Saggital (vertical)

123
Q

What is the vertebral level of the spine of the scapula?

A

T3

124
Q

What is the vertebral level of the inferior angle of the scapula?

A

T7

125
Q

What is the vertebral level of the summit of the iliac crest?

A

L4

126
Q

Where are lumbar punctures performed?

A

L3-L4 (below conus medullas and in cauda equina)

127
Q

What side of the body is the stomach and spleen?

A

Left

128
Q

Whats another name for the synovial facet joints found between vertebrae?

A

Also known as zygapophyseal or apopphyseal joint, is a synovial joint between the superior articular process of one vertebra and the inferior articular process of the vertebra directly above it.

129
Q

At what vertebral level does the spinal cord end?

A

L1/L2 (L3 in children)

130
Q

What is a sentinel lymph node?

A

Hypothetical first lymph node draining a cancer

131
Q

Where is the thoracic duct found?

A

Between the azygos vein and the thoracic aorta on the vertebral bodies on the right side of the posterior thoracic wall, until it crosses over to the left side above T4

132
Q

Where is the cisterna chyli?

A

Cisterna chyli is located posterior to the abdominal aorta on the anterior aspect of the bodies of the first and second lumbar vertebrae (L1 and L2)

133
Q

Where does the thoracic duct drain into?

A

Left subclavian vein

134
Q

Which spinal nerves form the cauda equina and from which spina cord structure do they emerge?

A

L2–5, S1-5 and Co

Emerge from conus medullaris

135
Q

How does the spinal cord terminate?

A

Terminates as the filum terminale, fibrous extension attached to coccyx and acts by giving longitudinal support to the spinal cord

136
Q

What is the filum terminale made of?

A

Pia matter

137
Q

What nerve cell component makes up the grey matter?

A

Cell bodies of axons

138
Q

What nerve cell component makes up the white matter?

A

Myelin of axon dendrites

139
Q

What are the 3 meninges?

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

140
Q

What is the primary function of the meninges?

A

Protect and cushion the CNS

141
Q

What are the denticulate ligaments?

A

The pia mater of the spinal cord has a pair of denticulate ligaments (one on each side of the spinal cord) with 21 attachments per side which attach it to the arachnoid and dura mater. Named for their tooth-like appearance, the denticulate ligaments are traditionally believed to provide stability for the spinal cord against motion within the vertebral column

142
Q

To what vertebral level does the dura mater descend?

A

S2

143
Q

To what vertebral level does the arachnoid mater descend?

A

S2

144
Q

Between which 2 meninges is the subarachnoid layer?

A

Between the arachnoid and pia mater

145
Q

Where is the epidural space?

A

Between the spinal dura and the periosteum covering the vertebral bones

146
Q

Between which 2 meninges is the subdural space?

A

Between the Dura and arachnoid mater

147
Q

Where is the vertebral venous plexus found?

A

In the fatty tissue between the dura mater and the vertebrae (epidural space)

148
Q

What clinical importance is relevant to the veins in the vertebral plexus?

A

No valves, can allow a route of metastasis for cancer

149
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs

150
Q

Give some differences between somatic and autonomic signalling

A

Somatic - emerges from ventral horn, innervates somatic skeletal muscle, 1 synapse

Autonomic - emerges from lateral horn, innervates voluntary smooth muscle, 2 synapses

151
Q

Describe sympathetic outflow

A

T1-L2/3

Short pre-ganglionic fibre, long post-ganglionic fibres

152
Q

Describe parasympathetic outflow

A

Cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X

S2-4

Long pre-ganglionic fibre, short post-ganglionic fibre

153
Q

Describe the exit of sympathetic outflow from lateral horn to the ventral and dorsal rami

A

Sympathetic fibres exit lateral horn as pre-ganglionic neutrons into ventral root of vertebrae and enter the white ramus communicans. Once the synapse at the sympathetic ganglion, they enter the grey ramus communicans and enter either the ventral or dorsal rami

154
Q

Between which spinal levels does the sympathetic chain extend?

A

C1-coccyx

155
Q

How many thoracic splanchnic nerves branch off the sympathetic chain?

A

3, branch off anteromedially from thoracic sympathetic chain to transverse the diaphragm and enter the abdomen

156
Q

What fibres make up the pelvic splanchnic nerves?

A

Parasympathetic S2-4

157
Q

What muscle is responsible for the extension of the vertebral column?

A

Erector spinae

158
Q

How many spinal nerves and spinal vertebrae are there?

A 
Cervical - 8 nerves, 7 vertebrae
Thoracic - 12 nerves, 12 vertebrae
Lumbar - 5 nerves, 5 vertebrae
Sacral - 5 nerves, 5 vertebrae (fused)
Coccygeal - 1 nerve, 4 vertebrae (fused)

Anatomy for Systems (8 decks)

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