Cancer Flashcards

Exam 1 (115 cards)

1
Q

the genetic and physiologic processes that control cellular growth, replication, differentiation, and function maintain homeostasis

A

Cellular regulation

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2
Q

nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio

A

the nucleus is small compared to the rest of the cell

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3
Q

Euploidy

A

23 pairs of chromosomes

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4
Q

Ratio of cells undergoing mitosis to the total number of cells

A

Mitotic index

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5
Q

benign tumor cells

A

normal cells growing in the wrong place or at the wrong time as a result of a problem with cellular regulation

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6
Q

cancer / malignant cells

A

abnormal cells that serve no function and are harmful to normal body tissues

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7
Q

carcinogenesis

A

process of changing a normal cell into a cancer cell

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8
Q

What are the 4 stages of carcinogenesis?

A

Initiation
Promotion
Progression
Metastasis

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9
Q

Irreversible event that can lead to cancer development

A

initiation

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10
Q

substances that change the activity of a cell’s genes so that the cell becomes cancerous

A

carcinogens

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11
Q

enhanced growth of an initiated cell by substances known as promoters

A

promotion

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12
Q

the time between cell initiation and the development of an overt tumor

A

latency period

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13
Q

continued change of a cancer cell to more malignant over time

A

progression

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14
Q

the original group of cancer cells

A

primary tumor

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15
Q

when cancer cells move from the primary location by breaking off from the original tumor

A

metastasis

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16
Q

metastatic tumors

A

additional tumors

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17
Q

What is the purpose of grading and staging?

A

To help standardize cancer diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment

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18
Q

Grading

A

how similar the cancer cells look to the parent cell

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19
Q

What is the purpose of grading cancer?

A

Prognosis and therapy

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20
Q

the description of cancer cells by chromosome number and appearance

A

Ploidy

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21
Q

gain or loss of chromosomes and/or structural abnormalities

A

Aneuploidy

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22
Q

What is the purpose of assessing ploidy?

A

Determine diagnosis and prognosis

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23
Q

Staging

A

Determines the exact location of the cancer and whether metastasis has occurred

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24
Q

What does cancer staging influence?

A

selection of therapy / treatment

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25
Name the three types of staging
Clinical, surgical, pathologic
26
Which type of staging is the most definitive?
Pathologic
27
Tumor, Node, Metastasis (TNM) staging system
describes the anatomic extent of cancers
28
What are 3 factors that account for variation in cancer development?
Carcinogen exposure Genetic predisposition Immunity
29
Name the 3 main external factors that cause cancer
Chemical Physical Viral
30
What is the single most preventable source of carcinogenesis?
Tobacco use
31
Which tissues are at greatest risk for tobacco-induced cancer?
Tissues that have direct contact with tobacco (i.e., lungs and airways)
32
Ionizing and UV radiation are examples of ____ factors
physical
33
What is the single most important risk factor for cancer?
Advancing age
34
What does CAUTION stand for?
C = changes in bowel or bladder habits A = A sore throat that does not heal U = Unusual bleeding or discharge T = Thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere I = Indigestion or difficulty swallowing O = Obvious change in a wart or mole N = Nagging cough or hoarseness
35
Name the 6 most common cancers
Colorectal Lung Prostate Skin Leukemia Bladder
36
Name at least 3 family history "red flags"
(1) Cancer in multiple members of every generation (2) Similar cancers in multiple first-degree relatives (3) Multiple instances of rare cancer within a family (4) Cancer at a young age (5) Cancer in both of paired organs (6) Breast cancer is present in genetic male adult
37
use of strategies to prevent the actual occurrence of cancer
primary cancer prevention
38
using drugs, chemicals, or natural nutrients to disrupt cancer development
Chemoprevention
39
What is the only known vaccine approved for cancer prevention?
HPV
40
the use of screening strategies to detect cancer early, at a time when cure or control is more likely
Secondary cancer prevention
41
Thrombocytopenia
Decreased platelet count
42
Cachexia
Extreme body wasting and malnutrition
43
Changes in peripheral nerve function are more commonly caused by ____, rather than cancer.
Neurotoxic chemotherapy
44
Why is bone metastasis significant?
Pain, fractures, and hypercalcemia can occur, which all lead to reduced mobility
45
Which effects of bone metastasis are oncologic emergencies?
spinal cord compression (SCC) and hypercalcemia
46
Hypoxia
inadequate supply of O2 to the body's tissue
47
Hypoxemia
low level of O2 in the blood
48
Radiation can cause which 4 cardiac problems?
(1) Pericarditis (2) coronary artery disease (3) Myocardial dysfunction (4) valvular heart disease
49
Name the 6 functions of surgery
(1) prophylaxis (2) diagnosis (3) cure (4) control (5) palliation (6) tissue reconstruction
50
removes potentially cancerous tissue as a means of preventing cancer development
prophylactic
51
removal of all or part of a suspected lesion for examination and testing to confirm or rule out a cancer diagnosis
diagnostic
52
removes all cancer tissue
curative
53
removes part of the tumor if removal of the entire mass is not possible
debulking
54
providing symptom relief and improving quality of life
palliative
55
increases function, enhances appearance, or both
reconstructive / restorative
56
How does debulking surgery help the pt?
Alleviate symptoms, enhance success of other tx, increase survival time
57
What are two priority care needs for patients after surgery?
(1) psychosocial support (2) maximum functioning after surgery
58
After surgery, the nurse's role includes teaching patients the importance of what?
Performing exercises; Regaining function
59
Nurses should reinforce what 3 things following cancer surgery?
(1) early mobilization (2) pain management (3) prevention of infection
60
the amount of radiation delivered to a tissue
Radiation exposure
61
the amount of radiation absorbed by the tissue
Radiation dose
62
Fractionation
series of divided doses (related to radiation)
63
In external beam radiation, is the patient radioactive?
No
64
In internal radiation therapy / brachytherapy, is the patient radioactive?
Yes
65
What is the most common side effect of radiotherapy?
radiation dermititis
66
What is the priority intervention for someone receiving radiation therapy?
Teach patients about skin care needs
67
activates immune system to attack cancer cells
Immunotherapy
68
chemo agents used to shrink a tumor before surgery or radiation
neoadjuvant chemotherapy
69
chemo agents used to kill remaining cancer cells follow surgery or radiation
adjuvant chemotherapy
70
How do you choose which chemotherapy agent?
tumor type tumor markers growth rate pt's performance status
71
giving chemotherapy rounds closer together with bone marrow growth factors to prevent neutropenia
Dose-dense chemotherapy
72
How can you prevent extravasation during chemo treatment?
Monitor for blood return at the access site at regular intervals
73
T/F: Oral drugs are just as toxic as IV chemotherapy
True
74
For missed doses of oral chemotherapy, do you always take the drug when remembered?
No, usually not
75
Neutropenia
Decreased number of neutrophil WBC
76
time when bone marrow activity and WBC counts are at their lowest after chemo
Nadir
77
Name the 2 priority care issues during chemotherapy
(1) Protect pt from life-threatening side effects (2) Manage distressing symptoms
78
What is one treatment to reduce the risk for infection during chemotherapy?
Use of growth factors to stimulate bone marrow production of granulocytes
79
What are the priority interventions for patients with neutropenia?
(1) protect from infection (2) teach patients and family how to reduce infection risk at home
80
Name the priority nursing intervention for thrombocytopenia.
Provide a safe environment to reduce risk of falls or injury
81
Name the 4 types of chemotherapy-induced nausea & vomiting (CINV)
(1) anticipatory (2) acute (3) delayed (4) breakthrough
82
What does CINV put patients at risk for, especially older adults?
Risk for dehydration and fluid imbalance
83
Inflammatory process that affects the mucous membranes of the oral mucosa and GI tract
Mucositis
84
Reduced ability to concentrate, memory loss, or difficulty in learning new info
Chemo brain
85
Name 3 nursing priorities for a patient experiencing chemo brain.
(1) support the patient (2) provide resources for cognitive training (3) ensure that other patients have experienced this
86
What is the nursing priority for chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN)?
Prevent injury
87
3 side effects of immunotherapy are...
(1) Fatigue (2) Rash (3) Risk of infection
88
Immune-related adverse events (irAEs)
when the stimulation of the immune system affects healthy cells
89
What is the typical treatment for irAEs?
immunosuppression via corticosteroids
90
Combination actions from immunotherapy and targeted therapy to help treat specific cancers
Monoclonal antibodies
91
Rituximab is what type of treatment?
Monoclonal antibody
92
When infusion-related reactions occur w/ monoclonal antibodies, what is the nursing priority?
Pt assessment to recognize potentially life-threatening reactions
93
drugs designed to block the growth and spread of cancer by interfering with the specific cellular growth pathways or molecules involved
Targeted therapy
94
What is the nursing priority for targeted therapy?
Careful assessment for adverse reactions to treatment
95
Decreasing the amount of hormones reaching hormone-sensitive tumors to slow cancer growth
Endocrine therapy
96
What is the nurse's role in endocrine therapy?
(1) teach pt and family about side effects (2) encourage exercise (3) avoid hormonal replacement
97
Support chemo by enhancing recovery of bone marrow function after tx-induced myelosuppression
Colony-stimulating factors
98
Filgrastim and pegfilgrastim are examples of what treatment?
Colony-stimulating factors as supportive therapy
99
occurs if body has a physiological need for more cells (e.g., increases in WBC during an infection) or presence of apoptosis (cell death)
Proliferation
100
an orderly process where cells progress from immaturity to maturity leading to a specific cell function
Differentiation
101
______ regulate and promote cell growth
proto-oncogenes
102
regulate and suppress cell growth
Tumor suppressor genes
103
BRCA1, BRCA2 are examples of what?
Tumor suppressor genes
104
Treatment given after the primary treatment (e.g., surgery) to eliminate remaining cancer cells.
Adjuvant therapy
105
Treatment given before the primary treatment to shrink the tumor and improve outcomes.
Neoadjuvant therapy
106
Treatments that work throughout the body, such as chemotherapy, hormonal therapy, or targeted therapy
Systemic therapy
107
Treatments focused on a specific area, such as surgery or radiation therapy
Localized therapy
108
Blocking hormones that fuel certain cancers
Hormonal therapy
109
Why is IV chemo often given via central line?
To avoid extravasation
110
steroids are given to treat what side effect of chemotherapy?
Nausea and vomiting
111
Time and energy a person spends dealing with cancer treatments
Time toxicity
112
osteoporosis and cardiovascular risk are two long-term effects of what?
Hormonal / endocrine therapy
113
Continued treatment to prevent cancer recurrence or progression
Maintenance therapy
114
Participation in clinical trials for new treatments
Experimental therapy
115
Radiation sources comes into direct, continuous contact with tumor for a specific amount of time
Brachytherapy