Canines Flashcards
1
Q
What is type 2 disc herniation?
A
Type 2 is slow and chronic
2
Q
What is type 1 disc herination?
A
Dachshunds are predisposed to disc herniation, usually is acute
3
Q
Cricopharyngeal Dysphagia
A
Congenital disorder characterized by in-coordination of the swallowing reflex leading to the signs described. Will have a history of regurgitation after eating, repeatedly attempting to swallow and bring up food, sometimes will cough or sneeze concurrently. Thoracic rads will be normal.
4
Q
Treatment of DKA - diabetic ketoacidosis
A
IV fluids, regular insulin (CRI or IM) until patient is eating and hydrated then can switch to long acting insulin to be given SQ
5
Q
What drug administration may cause yellow discoloration of the teeth?
A
Tetracycline
6
Q
Which drug should you avoid using in a patient with Demodex?
A
Prednisone because it causes immune suppresion
7
Q
Which CBC/CHEM values will you see with a dog with Hyperadrenocorticism?
A
Cholesterol will be elevated, BUN will be low, ALT will be increased, SAP increased and T4 low
8
Q
Pyometra usually occurs when a dog is primarily under the influence of which hormone?
A
Progesterone - it promotes endometrial growth, suppress myometrial activity, and inhibit leukocyte response to infection.
9
Q
What stage of the estrous cycle does pyometra almost always occur?
A
Occurs during diestrus when progesterone is high and estrogen is low
10
Q
What dose of ibuprofen can cause neurological signs and death in dogs?
A
> 400 mg/kg - Neurological
600 mg/kg - Death
11
Q
What dose of ibuprofen can cause GI signs and renal failure in dogs?
A
GI: 100-175 mg/kg
Renal failure: 175-300mg/kg
12
Q
What dose of ibuprofen can cause GI signs and renal failure in dogs?
A
GI: 100-175 mg/kg
Renal failure: 175-300mg/kg
13
Q
What is the risk with methicillin resistant staph pseudointermedius in dogs with people?
A
The risk is low to humans since staph is host adapted to dogs, good hygiene should be performed after contact with the dog
14
Q
What is the difference between a canine and feline esophagus?
A
Canine esophagus is entirely striated muscle while a cat’s esophagus is 2/3 striated and 1/3 smooth
15
Q
What will you see with cutaneous lymphoma?
A
Lymphocytes with mitotic figures and multiple nucleoli (Markers of malignancy)
16
Q
What drug is used to induce emesis in dogs?
A
Apomorphine - dopamine agonist
Uncommon side effects - CNS depression, hyper excitability, tachycardia or bradycardia or respiratory depression
Reversal - naloxone
17
Q
What treatment is used for demodex commonly in dogs?
A
Ivermectin - good oral bioavailability, effectiveness and ease of use. Start at low dose (0.1mg/kg) and gradually increase to therapeutic levels (0.6mg/kg)
18
Q
What is emphyseamtous cystitis?
A
Caused by the presence of gas forming bacteria in bladder. This is usually due to an underlying cause such as cushingings, diabetic meilletus or chronic urinary tract infections, or bladder stones. Once the underlying cause is treated, the cystitis should resolve.
19
Q
What is the most important medical treatment for EPI (exocrine pancreatic insufficiency)?
A
Enzyme supplementation, have adequate protein and a more digestible diet would be appropriate
20
Q
What does Giardia affect and what does it look like?
A
Giardia affects young, immunodeficiency grouped animals. Causes malabsorbed and maldigestive diarrhea. Will see protozoal organism swimming in falling leaf motion on 40X and will have concave disc, pear shaped, binucleate and 15 X 8 micro = trophozoite
21
Q
Which stage is infectious in Giardia? Cyst or throphozite?
A
Cyst
22
Q
What is Blastomycosis?
A
Dimorphic fungus generally occurs in Missouri, Mississippi, Tennessee or Ohio river valleys. Usually effects BELLS (bone, eyes, lungs, LN, skin), can also affect CNS and UT.
23
Q
What is the drug of choice for treatment of DCM?
A
Enalapril (ACE inhibitor) - which blunts adverse effects of the RAAS system reducing sodium and fluid retention
24
Q
What do ACE-inhibitors do?
A
Blunt the adverse effects of RAAS, reducing sodium and fluid retention, cause mild vasodilation by preventing the production of angiotensin-II which reduced ventricular afterload. They are also protective to cardiac muscle by blunting aldosterone.
25
What antidote is used for treatment of ethylene glycol toxicity in dogs?
4-Methylpyrazole - used to inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase, Give over 36 hour period -> dose 20mg/kg slow IV 15-30 mins, 15mg/kg at 12 & 24 hours, 5mg/kg at 36 hours. NOT EFFECTIVE IN CATS
26
What is the treatment of choice for pulmonic stenosis in dogs?
Ballon valvuloplasty - performed by inserting a catether into a jugular vein or femoral vein and advancing it into the region of stenosis at the pulmonic outflow tract.
27
Which area of the heart is most commonly affected by infective endocarditis?
Mitral and aortic valves
28
What is highly suggestive of pyelonephritis in the urine?
Bacteria or white blood cell casts are highly suggestive of a past or present bacterial infection of kidneys
29
What is highly suggestive of pyelonephritis in the urine?
Bacteria or white blood cell casts are highly suggestive of a past or present bacterial infection of kidneys
30
What are the CS associated with pyelonephritis? How can you definitively diagnose?
CS - fever, anorexia, depression, vomiting
Definitely diagnose by renal biopsy and culture
31
What is the treatment of choice for Nasal aspergillosis in dogs?
Topical antifungal therapy (Clotrimazole)
32
What organism causes hydatid cyst disease in humans?
Echinococcus granulosus - hydatid tapeworm in dogs which is non-pathogenic in dogs but zoonotic and highly pathogenic to fatal in humans. Infection is acquired by dog eating raw sheep meet or visceral infected with parasite. If dog suspected to have this, treat with praziquantel.
33
What is canine degenerative myelopathy and what breed does it affect the most?
Progressive, degenerative spinal cord disease most common seen in GSD 5-9 years of age. It causes random atonal degeneration in all spinal cord segments usually seen most severe at thoracic cord. Commonly mistaken for hip dysplasia.
34
What is canine degenerative myelopathy and what breed does it affect the most?
Progressive, degenerative spinal cord disease most common seen in GSD 5-9 years of age. It causes random atonal degeneration in all spinal cord segments usually seen most severe at thoracic cord. Commonly mistaken for hip dysplasia.
35
What are common causes of hemopericardum?
Idiopathic hemorrhagic effusion and neoplasia
36
What age group is most suspectible to parvovirus?
6 weeks to 6 months
Have a few weeks of maternal antibodies at beginning of life
37
What breed is predisposed to Progressive Retinal Atrophy?
Toy and minanture poodles
38
What is Progressive Retinal Atrophy?
Also called progressive retinal degeneration which is an inherited retinal disease
Age of onset is variable
CS - night blindness progressing to complete blindness, bumping into things more at night. Fundic exam has tapetal hyperreflectivity, gray, vermiform lines on the fundus, retinal vascular attenuation, and pale optic disc.
39
What type of urine are struvite stones most likely in?
Produced in alkaline urine, struvite crystals are rectangular in shape. Goal is to acidify the urine.
40
What does a Malassezia infection look like in a dog?
CS - biting at the nails (sign of pruritus), multiple claws infected, red-brown discoloration of the claws, other symptoms of allergy (pruritus in summer months)
41
What is Collie Eye Anomaly?
A congenital ocular anomaly characterized by choroidal Hypoplasia, manifested by varying degrees of visual dysfunction with signs of large bizarre choroidal vessels visible on Fundic exam. Seen in up to 80% of the breed. Other signs include optic disc coloboma, retinal hemorrhage, and retinal separation.
42
What kind of eye diseases are cocker spaniels predisposed to?
Predisposed to cataracts, distichiasis, retinal abnormalities, and primary glaucoma.
43
What kind of eye diseases are cocker spaniels predisposed to?
Predisposed to cataracts, distichiasis, retinal abnormalities, and primary glaucoma.
44
What is the treatment of choice for VPCs (ventricular premature complexes)?
Lidocaine which is an anti-arrhythmic
45
How do dogs become infected with Dipylidium caninum?
They become infected by swallowing fleas that carry tapeworm eggs, fleas are a required intermediate host. Finding segments of the tapeworm in feces or perianal indicates the dog has fleas.
46
What is the drug of choice for treatment of perianal fistula?
Cyclosporine
47
What are side effects of Azathioprine?
Acute pancreatitis, hepatotoxicty, bone marrow suppression, and GI upset, GI is most common
48
What are CS of a snake bite without evidence of fang punctures in a dog?
Presence of echinocytes, thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT and PTT, and unilateral painful muzzle
49
What type of urinary stone is most likely to form in an animal being treated with too much allopurinol?
Xanthine - inhibits enzyme xanthine oxidase which metabolizes xanthine
Allopurinol is used for TX of urate stones in Dalmatians
50
What does dark red vaginal discharge indicate in a bitch 3 weeks after whelping?
Normal response that commonly occurs for up to 6 weeks after whelping
51
What does melanoma look like on cytology in nail bed?
Cells with large nuclei, stippled chromatin with prominent and sometimes multiple nucleoli, some cells will have dark green black melanin granules.
52
What is pemphigus vulgaris?
Autoimmune disorder causing vesicles, ulceration and crusting. Can affect the whole body but especially affects the mucocutaneous junctions and oral mucosa. Can be acute or chronic. Caused by an IgG antibody that binds to intracellular adhesions molecules causing a loss of cohesion between keratinocytes resulting in acantholysis, vesicle formation, and eventually ulceration. TX - immunosuppressive therapy with corticosteroids in addition to immunosuppressives like Azathioprine. Treatment is long term, causes serious side effects and prognosis is poor, euthanasia is often done
53
What is tetralogy of Fallot in a dog?
Congenital defect of the heart which includes pulmonic stenosis, dextro-positioned aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and ventricular septal defect. It causes shunting of the venous blood across the VSD into the arterial circulation which leads to hypoxemia, and an increased drive for erythropoiesis, causing polycythemia.
54
What is megaesophagus usually caused by?
Caused by myasthenia gravis, which is commonly seen with thymomas. Tx for thymomas is surgical excision. Myasthenia gravis will typically resolves after removal of the thymoma.
55
What is canine thrombopathia? What breed is it seen in?
Autosomal recessive trait seen in Basset Hounds where platelets fail to aggregate and secrete their granules in response to normal stimuli. These dogs are at an increased risk for bleeding spontaneously, and an injury or surgical procedure could cause excessive hemorrhage. Platelets numbers and coagulation parameters are normal in this condition, issue of function not number.
56
What are the most common serovars that play a role in canine lepto?
Grippotyphosa, Pomona, Bratislava
57
What are the CS of leptospirosis and what is the standard diagnostic test used?
CS - anorexia, pyrexia, vomiting, dehydration, PU/PD, anuria, or oliguria
Standard diagnostic test is microscopic agglutination test (MAT)
58
A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 98-100% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?
> 100 mg Hg
59
A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 95% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?
80 mm Hg
60
A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 90% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?
60 mm Hg
61
A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 50% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?
30 mm Hg
62
A oxygen saturation on SPO2 of 10% corresponds to how many mm Hg oxygen in arterial blood?
10 mm Hg
63
What is the typical ultrasonography appearance of the abdomen in a dog with pancreatitis?
Hypoechoic pancreas (darker) with hyperechoic (brighter) surrounding mesentery
64
What is a pheochromocytoma?
Tumor of the adrenal medulla, causes hypertension, tachyarrhythmias, seizures, and collapse. They secrete catecholamines.
65
What are the two part of the adrenal gland?
Adrenal cortex (outer) - divided into Zona glomerulosa (aldosterone production), Zona fasciculata (glucocorticoid production like cortisol), and Zona reticularis (androgen production)
Adrenal medulla (inner) - consists of chromaffin cells (responsible for making catecholamines like Epinephrine and noreepinephrine)
66
What are the classical electrolyte abnormalities found in Addisons dog?
Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, azotemia, anemia, acidosis, hypoglycemia, low ACTH stim test and low resting cortisol
67
What is a key clinical finding in dogs with parvovirus?
Will see leukopenia, decrease in WBC below normal
68
What is a perianal hernia?
Results from a weakened pelvic diaphragm, hormonal component. Most likely seen in older intact male dogs such as Boxers, Collies, Kelpies, Pekingese, and Boston terriers.
69
What does a uveal cyst look like in a dog?
Brown round circular masses FREE FLOATING in the anterior chamber, will transilluminate UNLIKE melanoma which is it commonly mistaken for which is not free floating, fleshy looking and will NOT transilluminate
70
What is the treatment of glaucoma (primary or secondary) in a dog?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
71
What does Xylitol toxicity in dogs cause? CS? Treatment?
Cause: rapid insulin release -> resulting in hypoglycemia (DOGS)
CS - vomiting, weakness, ataxia, depression, decreased K, seizures, coma
Less commonly - also can cause liver issues (run coags and liver values, start SAMe)
Treatment - fluids and dextrose
72
How do you treat bleach toxicity in SA?
Dilute bleach with milk! DO NOT FORCE VOMITING (corrosive) causes more damage
Tx - gastric protectants
73
What does a black widow bite cause? CS? Treatment?
Cause: acetylcholine binds Ca channels leading to ascending motor paralysis and destroyed peripheral nerves
CS: recumbent, vocalization, pain, rigidity with mm spasms
Tx - none, leads to respiratory/cardiovascular failure and death
74
What are the 4 different types of rodenticides active ingredients?
Warfarin, brodifacum, cholecalciferol, bromethalin
75
What does warfarin rodenticide toxicity cause in SA? Treatment?
It is an anticoagulant that affects coagulation factors 2,7,9,10.
Will see prolonged PT (prothrombin time) -> factor 7 (shortest half-life, extrinsic system)
Tx - give Vit K 1, plasma transfusion
76
What does brodifacoum rodenticide toxicity cause? Treatment?
Vit K antagonist (epoxide reductase)
Tx - give Vit K 1, monitor PT
77
What does cholecalciferol rodenticide toxicity cause? What will you see on chemistry? Treatment?
It is an active Vit D so it cause fatal hypercalcemia
Chem: increase Ca, increase P = metastatic mineralization of soft tissues (renal/cardiac/GI damage)
Tx - diuretics, pred, bisphosphonates, salmon calcitonin
78
What does bromethalin toxicity cause? Treatment?
It is a CNS toxin that uncouples oxidative phosphorylation
Tx - give mannitol, IV lipids to bind in blood
Grave prognosis once symptomatic
79
What does ethylene glycol toxicity cause? CS? Treatment?
Causes Ca oxalate crystals, increase in anion gap, azotemia, metabolic acidosis, increased glucose, decreased calcium
CS - Ataxia, nausea, PUPD, at 24-72 hours show signs of renal failure
Tx - 4-MP (4-methylpyrazole) or ethanol (if no 4-MP)
If treat within 8-12 hours of ingestion = good prognosis
After 8-12 hours = poor/grave prognosis
80
What does organophosphate toxicity cause in SA? Treatment? CS?
Inhibits acetylcholinesterase -> leads to muscarinic signs (hypersalivation, incoordination, bloat)
Tx - atropine or 2-PAM (pradlidoxime = anticholinesterase)
81
What do fleet enemas cause? CS? Tx? In SA
They are high in phosphorous -> increased Na (colon absorption) , decreased Ca = weakness, shock, tremors, seizures
Tx - calcium gluconate, P binders, if severe increase K (insulin + dextrose)
82
What does Strychnine (snail bait) toxicity cause? CS? Tx?
Antagonizes glycine -> lose impulse contractility of spinal cord/brainstem
Affects striated muscle -> tremors!
TX - methocarbamol (for convulsions), decreased stimulation
83
What is the main ingredient in chocolate toxicity? CS? Tx?
Main ingredient - methylxanthines (theobromine, caffeine)
CS - CSN excitation, tachycardia, vasoconstriction
Tx - vomiting
Highest concentration in unsweetened baking chocolate
84
What does pyrethrin toxicity cause in CATS? CS? Tx?
It alters Na channels -> increases depolarization length
CS - depression, hypersalivation, ataxia, mm tremors
Tx - methocarbamol, bathe (remove product)
85
What does acetaminophen toxicity cause in CATS? CS? Tx?
Cats lack glutathione and glucoronyl transferase -> methemoglobinemia (dark brown blood = oxidation damage to Hg)
Will see Heinz bodies
Tx - N-acetylcysteine
86
What causes Heinz body anemia?
Methylene blue, molybdenum deficiency, rye grass, brassica family
Zinc (pennies after 1983), Copper, onions
Onions cause hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinemia/uria, Heinz body anemia (oxidative damage)
87
What causes renal failure in cats and dogs?
Grapes and raisins - don’t know why
Lillies in cats
Peace Lilly, Cala Lilly -> ca oxalate
Stargazer Lilly in cats -> acute renal failure
Day Lilly, Easter Lilly, tiger lilly = renal toxin
Ma Huang
88
What is the Lilly of the valley in dogs and cats?
Cardiotoxin
89
What does Ma Huang toxicity cause? CS? Tx?
CS- hyperthermia, tachycardia, tremors
Contains pseudoephedrine and ephedrine (like Sudafed)
90
What is hypothyroidism caused by in dogs? CS? DX? Tx?
Seen in DOGS, older and large breed
Causes: immune mediated lymphocytic thyroiditis (Most commonly), idiopathic atrophy, suppression of pituitary gland from glucocorticoids (2 hypothyroidism)
CS: weight gain (slow metabolism), skin changes (hyperpigmentation, alopecia/rat tail, pyoderma, seborrhea), lethargy, cold intolerance
DX: free T4 (equilibrium dialysis) T3 not useful
TX: Sodium levothyroxine (keep T4 slightly above normal and resolve clinical signs)
91
What is Diabetic Ketoacidosis in cats and dogs? CS? DX? Tx?
Diabetic that goes into metabolic acidosis
CS: PU/PD, weight loss, normal to increase food intake, lethargy, vomiting
DX: Urinalysis will have ketones and lots of glucose in urine.
Monitor: electrolytes, BG (make sure not hypoglycemic)
Bloodwork: metabolic acidosis (decreased TCO2 - ketones acts as acids), decreased Na, CI, K, hyper osmolality (increase glucose/BUN), pre-renal azotemia (dehydration)
Tx: Initially correct acidosis (bicarb), electrolyte abnormalities (IV fluids, K, P supplemtation, hypoosmolality). Give regular insulin (humulin-R) which is potent and short acting. Give multiple times until they are stable then can switch to longer acting insulin. Later regulate glucose, get animal to eat, control obesity/concurrent disease.
92
What do you do if you diagnose DKA in a controlled diabetic?
Look for underlying causes of sudden poor glycemic control
Ex. Pancreatitis, cardiac disease, infection
93
What additional disease is commonly seen in DKA cats? What about DKA dogs?
Hyperthyroidism common in DKA cats
Cushings common in DKA dogs
94
What are the common clinical signs in Diabetes Mellitus in dogs and cats? What is the difference?
CS in dogs: Bilateral cataracts! Also PU/PD, polyphagia, weight loss, glucosuria -> polyuria
CS in cats: polyphagia, weight loss, dull haircoat, PU/PD, pelvic limb weakness, plantigrade stance (dropped hocks), difficulty jumping, (amyloid deposition in cats, transient DM after excision of Insulinoma)
Cats don’t get diabetic cataracts!
95
How insulin dependent are dogs and cats?
Cats: insulin dependent 70% of the time, non-insulin dependent 30% of the time
Dogs: Almost always insulin dependent
96
At what value does glucose spill into the urine in diabetic cats and dogs?
Dogs: 180
Cats: 200-280
97
Distemper: Agent? Signalment? Transmission? CS? DX? TX?
Agent: Paramyxovirus
Signalment: 3-6 month old puppies susceptible (esp with poor vaccine regions)
Transmission: Aerosal spread, very contagious!
CS: Trio - GI (diarrhea), Neuro (seizures), Respiratory (pneumonia).
Also can see enamel Hypoplasia - pathognomic for dogs infected with distemper as puppies (infected before eruption of permanent teeth)
DX: IFA on affected epithelium - tracheal, vaginal, respiratory; serology for distemper IgM, increased CSF/serum virus specific IgG
98
What is Pythium in dogs? CS? Prognosis? TX?
Aquatic organism that inhabits ponds of the southeast United States. Different cell wall than regular fungi so harder to treat. CS - multiple subcutaneous nodules on limb. Prognosis: poor
Tx: amputation with antifungal therapies
Postoperative recurrence is common
99
Which species is most commonly affected by pythium?
Dogs are most commonly affected but cats, humans and horses can also be affected.
100
What is the treatment of choice for severe hyperextension injuries to the carpus?
Carpal arthrodesis
Accomplished by debridement of the articular cartilage of the joints, implantation of the cancellous autograft into the debrided joint spaces, fixing a bone plate across the injured joints
101
What are signs of Yersinia pestis in dogs?
CS - fever, lymphadenopathy, large, bipolar staining coccobacilil
Transmitted by ingesting infected rodents or via flea bites
102
What radiographically view is best to see a GDV?
Right lateral which will show the pylorus is gas-filled, suggestive that it has rotated to the left side
103
What is Hansen’s type 1 disc disease?
Usually involves chondrodystrophic dogs (Dachshunds, Corgis, Shih-Tzus)
Usually acute, painful and should be considered an emergency
104
What is Hansen’s Type 2 disc disease?
105
What is the most common method of transmission of Toxocara canis?
Transplacentally so all puppies should be treated for it.
106
What is the best test to characterize azotemia as pre-renal, renal, post-renal?
USG is the best test, it will determine if the kidneys are able to concentrate urine.
USG - normal or high (concentrated) = kidneys are working so pre-renal or post-renal
USG - lower (dilute) = kidneys are not working so most likely renal
107
What is SARDS? Signalment? CS?
SARDS - sudden acquired retinal degeneration syndrome
Signalment - obese female spayed dogs
CS - acute blindness , retinal vascular attenuation, tapetal hyperreflectivity
No optic or fundoscopic lesions
108
What is the most likely side effect of KBr therapy in epileptic dogs?
Sedation most commonly
Other CS: PU/PD, polyphagia, vomiting, ataxia, skin reactions, pancreatitis
109
Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism in dogs?
Adenoma of the parathyroid glands
110
GFR is most reliably assessed by which test?
Serum creatinine
Increased creatinine is proportional to a fall in GFR
111
What are anesthetic-related causes of sinus tachycardia?
Ketamine, anticholineragics, inadequate depth of anesthesia, pain, or response to surgery
112
Which drug is effective at inducing emesis in dogs?
Apomorphine
113
What is an estrogen secreting tumor (Sertoli cell tumor or seminoma)?
Estrogen excess in male dogs that leads to male feminization such as gynecomastia (breast swelling), pendulous prepuce, bilateral truncated alopecia, bone marrow suppresion (anemia and thrombocytopenia)
114
What are cryptorchide dogs most commonly predisposed to?
Prone to testicular tumors
115
What is Campylobacteriosis and what does it look like?
Gram negative motile, thin, S shaped or gull shaped rod
C. Jejuni most commonly isolated
Dx: fresh fecal swabs on campylobacter blood agar plates
116
Which dog is most likely predisposed to having subaortic stenosis? CS? Tx?
Large breed dogs (ex. Newfoundland)
CS - systolic heart murmur on the left heart base, mild left cardiomegaly and left atrial enlargement and segmental enlargement of the ascending aorta
Tx - beta blockers such as atenolol (reduce myocardial oxygen demand, lessened frequency of ventricular arrhythmias and provide cardiac muscle protection
At increased risk for developing infective endocarditis
117
DCM is most common in which breed?
Dobermans
Great Danes are also commonly affected
118
How should you feed a patient with megaesophagus?
Feed a HIGH calorie diet - allows less food volume
Feed in upright position at 45-90 degree angle from the floor and sit for 10-15 mins
119
What Signalment is MMVD most likely seen in? What kind of murmur? Dx? CS?
Small dogs over 10 years old
CavilerKing Charles Spaniels are predisposed
Location of murmur: left lateral thorax systolic
Dx: baseline thoracic rads then echo rechecks
CS: affected dogs do not usually show signs until they progress to congestive heart failure
120
What is the most likely cause of hypertrophic osteopathy (HO)? CS?
Primary or metastatic pulmonary neoplasia
Will see periosteal proliferation in the diaphyses of affected bones, usually the metacarpal and metatarsal bones affect first then long bones
CS - lameness, pain, and swelling
Joint unaffected
121
What is the long term survival of a patient with heptaocellular carcinoma if surgery is pursued? Prognosis?
Approximately 1400 days
Hepatocellular carcinomas are primary liver masses
Good prognosis after surgery
122
What is the most common liver tumor of dogs?
Hepatocellular carcinomas
2nd most common liver tumor in cats
123
How should you treat a dyspneic patient?
Supportive care first - oxygen, IV fluids, analgesia
After stable - thoracic rads, thoracocentesis, BW
124
Which organism is ivermectin effective against?
Nematodes
125
What is a known cause of chorioretinitis?
Canine Distemper
126
What is choriorentitis?
A form of posterior uveitis which includes the retina, vitreous, choroid, and optic nerve
Refers to inflammation of the choroid and retina
127
What are some common causes of choroidretinitis?
Infection (fungal. viral, FIV, FIP, FELV, canine distemper. bacteria, rickettsia such as Ehrlichia and RMSF, Toxoplasma)
Immune mediated (uveodermatologic syndrome)
Systemic hypertension
Lymphoma
Choroidal melanoma
Coagulopathy
128
What are the CS of chorioretinitis in dogs?
CS: poorly defined gray spots throughout the fundus. retinal separation, retinal hemorrhage
Active disease usually caused by systemic disease
129
What complication can result from choriodretinitis?
Glaucoma
130
