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Equine Flashcards

1
Q

What is Guttural Pouch Mycosis

A

Will see epistaxis and dysphagia, caused by Aspergillus nidulans

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2
Q

What is the treatment for persistent epistaxis from guttural pouch mycosis?

A

Occlusion of appropriate artery or arteries

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3
Q

What does the Yellow star thistle (Centaurea solstitalis) cause in horses?

A

If a horse eats it will will develop nigropallidal encepholamacia. There is a loss of upper motor ganglia which results in loss of inhibition and dystonia, making it impossible for animal to eat (slow starvation). This grows in dry fields in California.

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4
Q

Which electrical rhythms are normal to find in healthy race horses?

A

Second degree AV block & 1st degree AV block - usually resulting from high vagal tone.

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5
Q

Which aminoglycoside is most nephrotoxic to horses?

A

Neomycin

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6
Q

What is purpura hemorrhagica?

A

Possible squeal of strep equi infection exposure or vaccinations, it develops from type 3 hypersensitivity resulting from immune complex deposition in blood vessels walls and Vasculitis. CS - urticaria (hives), edema of the extremities, petechiation of mm, stiff gait, and anemia. Most horses will have a normal platelet count (not thrombocytopenic). You may find anemia, hyperproteinemia, hyper fibrinogen is, hyperglobunemia, and neutrophilia.

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7
Q

What is purpura hemorrhagica?

A

Possible squeal of strep equi infection exposure or vaccinations, it develops from type 3 hypersensitivity resulting from immune complex deposition in blood vessels walls and Vasculitis. CS - urticaria (hives), edema of the extremities, petechiation of mm, stiff gait, and anemia. Most horses will have a normal platelet count (not thrombocytopenic). You may find anemia, hyperproteinemia, hyper fibrinogen is, hyperglobunemia, and neutrophilia.

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8
Q

What are the functions of the cerebellum?

A

Responsible for coordination and regulation of range, rate, and strength of movement along with balance and posture. CS associated with cerebellar disease include intention tremors, hypermetria, hypometria, and ataxia

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9
Q

What is vesicular stomatitis?

A

Characterized by vesicle lesions on the tongue, inside the mouth, teats, and feet. Cattle, sheep, goats, and pigs are also susceptible to the disease. The absence of papules and pustules allows us to differentiate vesicular stomatitis from horse pox.

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10
Q

What is right dorsal colitis associated with?

A

Administration of NSAIDS (chronically). CS - inappetence, intermittent colic and hypoproteinenmia

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11
Q

What is guttural pouch tympany?

A

Condition where the pouch becomes distended with air thought to be due to a defect in the Eustachian tube or pharyngeal tissues. Leads to a non-painful air-filled swelling. TX - fenestrating the membrane between normal and affected pouch.

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12
Q

What is Equine Eosinophillic granuloma

A

Also known as nodular necrobiosis of collagen or collagenolytic granuloma
Similar to eosinophillic granulomas in cats, they are nodular, non-ulcerative and not pruritic
Believed to be caused by insect bites or trauma
TX - systemic antibiotics, surgical excision, sublesional corticosteroid injections

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13
Q

How long is colostrum indicated after birth to treat failure of passive transfer?

A

Less than 24 hours after birth

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14
Q

What animal develops a marked increase in serum biliruin from fasting or anorexia?

A

Equine

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15
Q

What is African Horse Sickness?

A

Viral disease of equine that is transmitted by insects, primarily Culicoides. CS usually develop 5-7 days after infection and begin with fever and conjuctivitis. Will see swelling of the supraoribtal fossa, indentation above the eye. There is a pulmonary and cardiac form of this disease.

Pulmonary - acute respiratory distress, coughing, sweating, foaming from the nostrils = fatal
Cardiac - edema of the head and neck, abdominal pain and depression = 50% die from heart failure

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16
Q

What is Horner’s and what are the CS of Horner’s syndrome in a horse?

A

Horner’s is caused by a disruption of the vagosympathic trunk. CS - sweating (head and neck), enophthalmos (sinking of eye ball), ptosis (drooping of eye), and miosis (constricted pupil) , prolapsed third eyelid.

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17
Q

What is Theiler’s disease associated with?

A

Administration of tetanus antitoxin or equine plasma

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18
Q

What is Potomac’s Horse Fever?

A

Caused by Neorickettsia ristcii, causes diarrhea in warmer summer months where horses are near bodies of water. Frequently also see this causes laminitis. TX - oxytetracycline for 7 - 10 days

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19
Q

What organism is normally found in the guttural pouch of horses?

A

Strept equi zooepidemicus

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20
Q

What Radiographic findings would you see with a foal that has a Rhodococcus Equi infection?

A

An alveolar pattern with multiple nodular regions (abscesses) causing suppuration Pyogranulomatous pneumonia

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21
Q

What is Rhodococcus equi and how do you treat it?

A

Infection caused by Cornebacterium that leads to respiratory signs such as cough and wheezes. Happens in foals 2-4 months of age. Tx is Rifpamin and macrolides.

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22
Q

What is Oxyuris equi?

A

Equine pinworm. Use a scotch tape test to determine if there are eggs attached to the hair. The female laying eggs causing intense pruritus.

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23
Q

What is seedy toe?

A

Also known as hollow wall or dystrophin ungulae. Characterized by a change in character of the horn such that the inner surface is crumbly and there may be a cavity due to loss of substance. Tx - remove any necrotic or infection hormone to establish drainage. Prognosis is good if diagnosed early and before laminitis occurs.

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24
Q

What is founder?

A

Common name for laminitis

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25
What is sheared heels?
Condition of heel asymmetry due to acquired imbalance of the foot
26
What is bog spavin?
Swelling of the tibiotarsal joints
27
What is throughpin?
Effusion of the tarsal sheath (sheath of deep digital flexor)
28
How long is the incubation period of tetanus after a puncture wound?
10-14 days, usually about 2 weeks to grow spores which produce toxins
29
What are the two most common side effects of NSAIDS in horse?
Right dorsal colitis and renal papillary necrosis
30
What is Parascaris equorum?
A roundworm that undergoes migration through the lung, common in foals. During migration it can damage the lower respiratory tract and carry bacteria
31
What is Dictyocaulus arnfieldi?
Equine lungworm that causes cough and respiratory signs in adult horses, not foals
32
What breed of horse is predisposed to the development of combined immunodeficiency?
Arabian
33
What is combined immunodeficiency?
Lack of production of functional lymphocytes in Arabian foals, there is no curative treatment. Foals will have recurrent infections which will be treated with antimicrobials and response but when they are removed, the infection returns.
34
What is the Coggin’s test?
Agar immunodeficiency to detect serum antibodies against the retrovirus causing infectious anemia Always confirm with a Coggin’s test after a positive ELISA
35
What is the Coomb’s test?
Used to diagnose immune mediated hemolytic anemia
36
What is the treatment for Onchocerca cervicalis?
Ivermectin or Moxidectin will bring improvement in 2-3 weeks after skin lesions that are created by migrating microfliria
37
What is the treatment for bog spavin?
No treatment is necessary
38
What causes Canthardin toxicity in horses?
Blister beetles which results in endotoxin shock and renal failure. Horses will be found dead, colicking or in cardiovascular shock. There may be cardiac arrhythmias, watery feces, and vesicles in the mouth and tongue.
39
What are examples of blue-green algae that cause hepatotoxicity?
Microcystis, Aphanizomenon, and Anabaena
40
What is cerebellar abiotrophy?
Usually observed in foals less than one year of age (1-6 months), this is seen in Arabian, Oldenburg, and Gotland breeds. There is not treatment. CS - intention tremors, lack of menace, hypermetria and ataxia
41
What is the most common cerebellar disease found in horses?
Cerebellar abiotrophy
42
What is right dorsal colon displacement?
43
What side is the cecum on in horses?
Right side
44
What is the treatment for an eye laceration in a horse?
Saline lavage, 2 layer closure, NSAID (phenylbutazone), tetanus toxoid immunization
45
What clinical signs does Equine Herpes Myeloencephalopathy have?
Hindlimb ataxia, hypotonia of the tail/anus, and urinary incontinence
46
What side do horse teeth need to be floated?
Maxilla buccal and mandible lingual
47
What is the most common equine arrhythmia?
Atrial fibrillation
48
What is the treatment for atrial fibrillation?
Quinidine
49
What is sesamoiditis usually caused by?
Tearing of the ligamentous attachments
50
What are the main modes of transmission of equine infectious anemia?
Blood-sucking flies that act as vectors and contaminated instruments
51
What is made by progesterone that prevents estrus from occurring?
A persistent corpus luteum
52
What will you see in a granuloma cell tumor?
One ovary will be large and the other will be small
53
What is gonadal dysgenesis?
Chromosomal abnormality where the mare would not have a normal pregnancy
54
What is urticaria most commonly caused by in horses?
Caused by an allergic reaction such as toxic plants, insect bites, medications, chemicals, heat, sunlight, stress, or genetic abnormalities. It is caused by localized edema in the dermis. TX - parenteral fast acting steriods such as dexmethasone.
55
What is the most optimal treatment for fungal keratitis in horses?
Topical direct ophthalmic administration
56
What is western equine encephalitis?
Will see progression CNS signs such as hyperesthesia, propulsive walking and head tilt. CSF fluid will show Hugh protein (75) with mononuclear pleocytosis
57
What is equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (myelitis)
Can be seen at any age and is caused by Sarcocystis neurona. It is a multi-focal disease of the central nervous system and the horse will have asymmetrical neurological signs
58
What causes thiamine deficiency in horses?
Thiamine containing plants such as bracken fern and results in loss of coordination and may lead to twitching, seizures, and tremors
59
What is Wobbler’s Syndrome?
As known as Cervical vertebral malformations. Seen primarily in horses under a year of age.
60
What is degenerative myelopathy in horses?
Seen in horses primarily under one year of age and causes symmetrical ataxia
61
What is quinidine?
Class 1A sodium channel blocker that has vagolytic properties which prolong the refractory period of the myocardium
62
What are the side effects of quinidine?
Oral ulcers, hypotension, and allergic reactions
63
What will you see on an ECG strip with atrial fibrillation?
Irregular R-R interval and fibrillation wave of the base line
64
What is lidocaine used for?
Sodium channel blocker used primarily for ventricular arrhythmias
65
What is atropine used for?
Anticholinergic used primarily for supraventricular bradyarrhythmias
66
What breed is predisposed to the development of recurrent uveitis and equine night blindness?
Appaloosa
67
Which drug is the most effective at reducing gastric acid and increasing gastric pH
Omeprazole, which is a proton pump inhibitor
68
What is the preferred treatment for sacroiliac luxation or subluxation?
Generally considered untreatable - use NSAIDS and rest (supportive care)
69
What is a flehmen response in horses?
It helps animals trap pheromones scents in the vomeronasal organs (pheromones that are chemical signals emanating from other animals). The horse can be seen curling up his lip and tilting his head up.
70
What is glanders?
Bacterial disease caused by Burkholderia mallei. It is endemic in regions of the Middle East, Asia, Africa, and South America. Horses can become chronic or occult carriers which is a potentially pathogenic problem. There are 3 forms of glanders: nasal, pulmonary, and cutaneous. Horse can present with mucopurlent nasal discharge, lethargy, depression and enlarged mandibular LN.
71
Are rabies vaccines in horses mandatory?
No but they are recommended by law in endemic areas
72
What is the test of choice for confirming equine infectious anemia?
Immunodiffusion (Coggin’s Test)
73
What is the treatment for a choked horse?
Sedate the horse and pass a stomach tube to gently push the bolus aborally. Most cases resolve in 12-24 hours. Usually resolves on its own after putting horse in empty stall. Main complication is inhalation pneumonia.
74
What is the dental formula for horses?
2 (I3/3 C1/1 P3-4/3 M3/3
75
What is a mesenteric rent?
It can result in a strangulating intestinal obstruction.
76
What is stringhalt in horses?
Myoclonic disease one or both pelvic limbs. It causes spasmodic hyperflexion of the leg. Etiology is unknown maybe sweet pea poisoning. Treatment - tenectomy of the lateral digital extensor
77
How is eastern equine encephalomyelitis transmitted and what CS will you see?
Transmitted by mosquitos and will see CNS such as head pressing, altered mentation, paresis, paralysis, convulsions, circling, ataxia, and death (2-3 days after onset of CS)
78
At how many hours after parturition is a mare’s placenta considered retained?
After 3-6 hours, the mare will not eat her placenta unlike other species
79
What does Equine herpesvirus 3 (coital exanthema) cause?
Causes balanoposthitis (Inflammation of the penis and prepuce), also causes papules, pustules, and ulcers on the vestibular mucosa, vulva skin and also the skin (less common).
80
How is equine herpesvirus 3 transmitted and treated?
Transmitted by sexual contact and fomites such as contaminated equipment and rectal sleeves. Tx is sexual rest and appropriate sanitation of equipment.
81
What nerve is responsible for providing motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression?
Facial Nerve - damage to this nerve may result in inability to blink, muzzle deviation, ear droop, lack of nostril flare, and a loss of the menace and palpebral response.
82
What is the oculomotor nerve responsible for?
Involved in motor innervation to the dorsal, medial, and ventral rectus muscles. Also in relates the palpebral lavatory, which is responsible for raising the upper eyelid.
83
What is the trochlear nerve responsible for?
It innervation the dorsal oblique muscle to the eyeball. If injured there will be a dorsomedial strabismus.
84
What is the trigeminal nerve responsible for?
Provides sensation to most of the face and also motor innervation to the muscles of mastication.
85
What is the abducens nerve responsible for?
Provides motor innervation to the lateral rectus and part of the retractor bulbi muscles
86
What are urticaria (hives) most commonly caused by in horses?
An allergic reaction and caused by a localized edema in the dermis. Cutaneous lesions can be elevated, flat topped and multi focal. Tx - Paraenteral fast-acting steriods such as dexamethasone.
87
What is the Coggin’s test?
Test for an antibody in equine infectious anemia. It can effectively diagnose infection in chronic asymptomatic carriers but not acute causes since production of antibodies in acute cases is not adequate enough.
88
What other disease can resemble dudoenitis-proximal jejunitis?
Small intestinal obstruction. They both present with similar clinical signs. CS include acute colic with increased respiratory rate, heart rate, and pain and lots of gastric reflux. TX - surgical for small intestine obstruction and medically for DPJ. Decompression of stomach via nasogastric intubation and removal of excess gastric/intestinal fluid will make horse more comfortable.
89
What are the 3 key A findings in Equine Protozoal Myleomyositis?
Asymmetry (laterializaton of signs), Ataxia, and atrophy - usually gradual
90
Treatment options for equine protozoal myelomyositis?
1) Ponazuril (Marquis) antiprotozoal paste 2) Diclazuril (Protazil) antiprotozoal paste 3) Nitazoxanide (Navigator) antiprotozoal paste 4) Sulfadiazine-pyrimethamine combo
91
What is herpes myeloencephalitis?
Caused by EHV1 and often has an acute onset following episode of fever, cough, and nasal discharge or following abortions on a farm. Usually affects more than one horse on the farm. The ataxia and weakeness is SYMMETRIC.
92
What are CS of Verminous myeloencephalitis?
Sudden onset with rapid deterioration and death
93
What are the CS of polyneuritis equi?
More commonly seen in mature horses and starts with hyperesthesia progressing to anesthesia. There is progressive paralysis of the tail, rectum, bladder, and urethra leading to urine dribbling.
94
What are the CS of cervical vertebral stenosis myelopathy (Wobblers syndrome)?
Cause SYMMETRIC signs with hind limbs a grade worse than forelimbs. There can also be flexing or hyperextending of the neck.
95
What is the most common side effect assiocated with acepromazine in horses?
Hypotension, may also cause paraphimosis in male horses
96
What is best treatment for chronic lamitis?
Deep digital flexor tenotomy
97
What is the treatment for persistent superficial digital flexor contracture?
Proximal check desmotomy
98
What is the treatment for persistent deep digital flexor contracture?
Distal check desmotomy
99
What occurs if the foramen ovale fails to close within 48 hours into a foal’s life
Blood will be shunted from the right atrium to the left atrium (RA will have higher pressure than the left)
100
What test is used to diagnose Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis infection with internal abscesses in horses?
Synergistic hemolysis inhibition test -Clinical path supportive of internal abscess would include leukocytosis, hyperfibrinogemia and hyperglobulinemia
101
What is a KOH test used to diagnose?
Dermatophytes
102
Which test evaluates for failure of passive transfer?
Zinc sulfate turbidity test
103
What is the most common way EHV-1 is transmitted?
By inhalation
104
What is the treatment of fungal keratitis in horses?
Direct ophthalmic administration such as itraconazole drops
105
What are the classic signs of tendinitis in horses?
Intermittent lameness and bulge at the metacarpals, heat and tenderness may be felt as well
106
What is Canthardin toxicity and what is it caused by?
Caused by blister beetles and results in endotoxin shock and renal failure in horses CS - vesicles in mouth or tongue, watery feces, cardiac arrhythmias May present with colic, cardiovascular shock or sudden death
107
What are 3 types of blue-green algae that cause hepatotoxicity in horses?
Anabaena, Aphanizomenon, and Microcystis
108
What is Foal Heat Diarrhea?
It is transient and not associated with CS and it is self-limiting. It is associated with the mare’s first estrous cycle after parturition typically 8-12 days after parturition. Exact cause is unknown.
109
What are indications for a healthy foal?
Normal gestation period 330-360 days Serum IgG > 800 Nursing 4-6 times every hour
110
What is chronic synovitis of the tibiotarsal joint known as?
Bog spavin or tarsal hydraarthrosis. Often due to poor confirmation and can result in increased synovial fluid formation. Both hind limbs will be affected.
111
What is Bone spavin?
Osteoarthritis of the hock
112
What is curb in horses?
Thickening of the plantar tarsal ligament due to strain
113
What is Sweeney?
Supraspinatous contracture
114
What is stringhalt?
Myoclonic disease affecting one or both pelvic limbs. It causes spasmodic hyperflexion of the leg. Etiology unknown but sweet peas associated. DX - electromyography to confirm TX - Tenectomy of the lateral digital extensor
115
What does Trichostrongylus axei in horses?
Causes chronic gastritis. It is a small stomach worm (hairworm) of horses. It can cause weight loss and chronic gastritis. TX - benzimidazoles or ivermectin. Horses cannot vomit. Also affects ruminants.
116
What is the treatment for horses with equine protozoal myeloencephalitis?
TMS and pyrimethamine
117
How is equine influenza transmitted? What type of virus is it?
Aerosol transmission - respiratory secretions Highly contagious! Caused by orthomyxovirus
118
Which two drugs should you never combine in horses?
Two NSAIDS - increases the likelihood of gastric ulceration Ex. Flunixin meglumine and phenylbutazone
119
What does carpus valgus result from in a foal?
Asynchronous growth of the metaphyseal and epiphyseal growth plates One of the most common angular limb deformities
120
What is the duration of a mares estrus cycle?
6 days average duration Polyestrous
121
Which scenario is neonatal isoerythrolysis in a foal most likely?
Foal ingests colostrum from an Aa- mare that was bred with a Aa+ stallion. If the mare produces anti-A alloantibodies and the foal is Aa+ then the foal will develop isoerythrolysis. Associated with either anti-A or anti-Q antibodies
122
What is the diagnostic tool used to diagnose equine influenza? What virus causes it?
Take nasopharyngeal swabs for viral isolation Caused by a orthomyxovirus
123
Which toxins can cause colic in horses?
Canthardin (blister beetles) Other colic causes: oleander, rhododendron and nightshade
124
What are aural plaques caused by in horses? Transmission? CS? Tx?
Caused by papillomavirus Mechanically spread by insects such as black flies CS - coaslescing depigmented and hyperkeratotic plaques on inner surface of pinna Tx - topical imiquimod (aldara)
125
What is Chorioptes mange infestation in horses? Which breed is most susceptible? Where is the mite typically affect? CS? Season? Dx?
Caused by Chorioptes equi Draft horses are particularly susceptible to The mite usually affects the distal limb region but can also extend to the ventral abdomen It more commonly occurs in the winter and causes intense pruritus Dx: skin scraping of the affected area
126
What causes Canthardin toxicity in horses? CS? CHEM?
Caused by blister beetles which create a toxin CS from toxin: abrupt onset of colic, fever, hyper salivation, depression, frequent urination, and hematuria. It may also cause neurological signs. Chem - hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia
127
What causes osteochonrosis in young horses?
Excess dietary calcium and vitamin D
128
What is rickets caused by?
Calcium deficiency
129
What is goiter caused by?
Insufficient or excess iodine
130
What insect causes sweet itch? What is it also called? When are they more prominent?
Culicoides Culioides hypersensitivity More commonly seen in warmer months and most active in dusk and dawn
131
What is Culicoides hypersensitivity? What part of the body does it effect? CS?
Extremely pruritic type 1 hypersensitivity to the flies salivary antigens. It commonly affected the ventrum or dorsum causing excoriations, alopecia and thickened skin due to scratching
132
What are treatments for Culicoides hypersensitivity?
Controlling the fly population Insecticides, stable blankets, fans, and stabling at dusk
133
What is the difference between Culicoides and Onchocerciasis?
Onchocerciasis is not as pruritic and has more season variability
134
Most common testicular tumor in horses?
Seminoma - unilateral enlarged testicle that palpates firm and fibrous can decrease sperm production
135
What is the most common cause of abdominal pain and distension of a mare a few weeks post partum?
Colonic torsion (extra space after giving birth) Surgical emergency
136
What is West Nile Virus caused by?
flavivirus that affected horses in multiple areas of US
137
What are the CS of West Nile Virus?
CS are variable and can be mild such as muscle fasciculations and slight ataxia to severe recumbency Muscle fasciculations are somewhat characteristic of WNV with fever
138
What diagnostic test should you use to confirm WNV?
serum IgM capture ELISA will detect infection even if vaccinated for EWV
139
How soon after administration of tetanus antitoxin in a horse is there protection against tetanus?
Immediately and last 2-3 weeks
140
How is equine viral arteritis?
Venereally Can also be transmitted via aerosolized secretions
141
What are the CS of equine viral arteritis in adults and foals?
CS in adults: usually asymptomatic but can include fever, lethargy, anorexia, edema, oculo-nasal discharge, petechia CS in foals: severe respiratory distress, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and death after 12-24 hours.
142
What is Onchocerciasis caused by? What is it vectored by? What can aberrant migration of microfilaria in horses?
Onchocerca cervicalis Vectored by Culicoides Adults live in the ligamentum nuchae and microfilariae migrate down to the ventrum. Aberrant migration to the eye causes uveitis.
143
What is Scratches in horses? What are other names for it? What is it usually associated with? What is the treatment?
Condition of chronic seborrheic dermatitis of the palmar/plantar aspect of the pastern Also referred to as grease heel, dermatitis verrucosa, dew poisoning, mud fever. Usually associated with wet and muddy environments Tx - remove horse from wet environment, clip surrounding hair, maintain good hygiene practices
144
How do you prevent neonatal isoerythrolysis?
Muzzle foal at birth and given oral colostrum from mare that is negative for Aa antibodies for 48-72 hours
145
Most common slab fracture in horses?
Third carpal bone
146
Modified live vaccine for equine viral arteritis is safe for which group of horses?
Stallions and non-pregnant mares
147
What is the causative agent of Potomac Horse Fever?
Neorickettskii risticii
148
What are common CS of Potomac Horse Fever? What is the treatment of choice?
Best clues: season: summer, high fever, diarrhea, laminitis Can also be dehydrated, profound leukopenia Tx - oxytetracycline

NAVLE Study Q's (20 decks)

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