Miscellaneous

Question 1

Cat Gut Suture

Answer 1

Broken down by phagocytosis and retains tensile strength for 14-28 days

Question 2

Nylon Suture

Answer 2

Non-absorbable

Question 3

PDS (polydioxanone)

Question 4

How do you treat atrial fibrillation?

Answer 4

Quinidine

Question 5

Treatment for chronic 3rd degree AV block

Answer 5

Pacemaker

Question 6

List the shorting acting & most potent to longest acting & lease potent insulin drugs

Answer 6

1) Regular
2) NPH
3) Lente
4) PZI
5) Ultralente

Question 7

What are some reasons for failure of a flea product to work?

Answer 7

-Owner does not apply properly
-Owner is not treating the environment
-Other pets in the household are not on flea control

Question 8

Sympathetic innervation to the bladder is provided by which nerve?

Answer 8

Hypogastric nerve

Question 9

What is type 1 hypersensitivity?

Answer 9

IgE- mediated and results in immune mediated hypersensitivity immediately

Question 10

What is type II hypersensitivity?

Answer 10

Antibody dependent reaction and occurs due to IgG or IgM made against normal self antigens or some foreign antigen that resembles some molecule on the surface of host cells.

Question 11

What is type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Answer 11

Immune complex-mediated reaction caused when soluble antigen-antibody form in large amounts and overwhelm the body instead of being normally removed by macrophages in the spleen and liver.

Question 12

What is type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

Answer 12

Delayed hypersensitivity and cell mediated. T8 lymphocytes will be sensitized to an antigen and differentiate into cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. T helper 1 type T4 lymphocytes become sensitized to an antigen and produce cytokines.

Question 13

What is the holding layer of the abdomen?

Answer 13

External rectus sheath

Question 14

What antibiotic is used to indicate methicillin resistance?

Answer 14

Oxacillin

Question 15

Which animals are induced ovulations?

Answer 15

Cats, rabbits, and ferrets and camelids

Question 16

A rise in serum creatinine means what?

Answer 16

Decrease in GFR

Question 17

Which stones are radiolucent on radiographs?

Answer 17

Urate and cysteine

Question 18

L - asparaginase used to treat which disease?

Answer 18

Lymphoma

Question 19

What treatment is commonly used for protein-losing nephropathies?

Answer 19

ACE inhibitors - they also help reduce proteinuria by causing dilation of the efferent arterioles of the nephrons

Question 20

When should you do a urine culture?

Answer 20

When you have isosthenuria (low specific gravity) - since the urine is so dilute it is difficult to identify bacteria so a culture is most sensitive way to determine if an infection is present.

Question 21

What does the presence of white blood cells in the urine indicate?

Answer 21

Urinary tract infection

Question 22

What is a TPO (triple pelvic osteotomy) designed to do and what kind of patients should you do it on?

Answer 22

Designed to increase the dorsal coverage of the femoral head, this surgery is typically performed on dogs 6 months to 1 year of age. TPO will not eliminate the progression of arthritis but will lessen it. TPO should only be performed in dogs that are free of Radiographic signs of DJD, otherwise good results will be diminished.

Question 23

When can you perform a THR (total hip replacement) and what age of dog?

Answer 23

Can be performed as soon as the physes have finished their growth, can be performed as young as 1 year of age, craniodorsal luxation is a common complication associated with THR.

Question 24

What is the most common side effect of ivermectin?

Answer 24

Neurological toxicity, reversed after stopping medication
CS - mild such as mydriasis and tremors, severe such as seizures and comas, ataxia, head tilt and lethargy
Signs typically resolve after 24-48 hours of stopping medicine

Question 25

Why does toxicity occur with Collies and ivermectin?

Answer 25

Collies have a ABCB1 (MDR-1) gene mutation that causes toxic accumulation of the drug intracellularly leading to CNS like comas and death

Question 26

What are the different types of Salter-Harris fractures?

Answer 26

Type I - fracture through physics Type II - fracture partway through the physics extending up to the metaphysis Type III - fracture partway through the physics extending down into the epiphysis Type IV - fracture through the metaphysis, physics, epiphysis Type V - crush injury to physics

Question 27

What type of surgery is nitrous oxide contraindicated in?

Answer 27

GI surgery because NO moves into closed gas spaces such as intestines

Question 28

What is a potential side effect of L-asparaginase?

Answer 28

Anaphylaxis because it is a protein enzyme and may elicit an immune response

Question 29

What side effects dose Acepromazine cause?

Answer 29

Splenic dilation with corresponding decrease in hematocrit concentration

Question 30

Which of the following anesthetic agents are known to cause bradycardia and bigeminy?

Answer 30

Xylazine - alpha-2 agonist and causes bradycardia, may also cause first or second degree AV block thiopental - causes bigeminy most commonly and several arrhythmias, premature ventricular complexes

Question 31

What are forms of anthrax in humans and which is not?

Answer 31

Forms of anthrax in humans: pulmonary, intestinal, cutaneous Not a form: ocular

Question 32

If an animal has pleural effusion, which Radiographic view is the best?

Answer 32

Ventrodorsal

Question 33

What Radiographic view can you see a GDV the best?

Answer 33

Right lateral recumbency abdominal rads

Question 34

What is the holding layer for all hollow viscera?

Answer 34

Submucosa

Question 35

What are the 3 layers of the Meibomian glands and which glands produce each layer?

Answer 35

Mucous - made by conjunctival goblet cells (inner) Aqueous - lacrimal gland and gland of the 3rd eyelid (middle) Lipid - meibomian glands (outer)

Question 36

What is the mean life span of a neutrophil in a dog?

Answer 36

5-9 hours

Question 37

What drug causes peripheral vestibular disease used in treatment of otitis?

Answer 37

Chlorhexadine implicated in ototoxicity and peripheral vestibular disease

Question 38

What drug causes central vestibular disease in treatment of otitis?

Answer 38

Metronidazole

Question 39

Why is silk contraindicated for use in closing the bladder?

Answer 39

Silk is a non-absorbable suture which can lead to nidus for infection

Question 40

What muscle should be incorporated into the closure of an abdominal incision in a dog?

Answer 40

The preputalis muscle which is usually cut when making a midline incision in males dogs and should be incorporated into the closure to avoid penile deviation

Question 41

What are the most commonly reported organisms recovered in animals with endocarditis?

Answer 41

Staph, Strep, Corynbacterium, Pseduomonas aeruginosa, Erysipelothrix, E. Coli, Bartonella

Question 42

When is the most common time for anastomosis failure?

Answer 42

3-5 days post operatively due to degradation of fibrin at the site prior to deposition of sufficient collagen

Question 43

What is dopamine commonly used for?

Answer 43

To increase arterial blood pressure

Question 44

What system is ingestion of perilla mint primarily toxic to?

Answer 44

Respiratory The perilla mint (Perilla frutescens) plant has a pneumontoxin that is metabolized to a toxic intermediate that damages type 1 pneumocytes and bronchiolar epithelial cells

Question 45

What are the CS of perilla mint toxicity?

Answer 45

CS - acutely dyspneic, open mouth breathing, frothing at the mouth

Question 46

What is seen on necropsy of perilla mint toxicity?

Answer 46

Wet. heavy, emphysematous lungs