cardiovascular questions Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

3 things objectively tested for in asthma diagnosis

A

REVERSABLE AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION

EOSINOPHILIC INFLAMMATION

PRESENCE OF ALLERGEN SENSITIZATION

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2
Q

After exposure to the allergen in asthma what happens in terms of:

a) cell recruitment
b) epithelial changes
c) structural changes
d) muscle changes

A

EOSINOPHILS AND INFLAMMATOrY CELLS

MORE GOBLET CELLS

MORE MATRIX

MUSCLE HYPERTROPHY AND INCREASED PROLIFERATION

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3
Q

2 genes that are increased in asthma

A

il33

OSDMB

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4
Q

3 ILs involved in asthma?

A

IL4 - COVERSION OF B CELLS TO PLASMA CELLS (MSKING IGE)

IL5 - EOSINIPHILIA

IL13 - MUCUS SECRETION

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5
Q

3 ways in which eosinophilia may be detected in stable disease?

A

blood test
exhaled NO
sputum test

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6
Q

what is needed for asthma diagnosis?

A

SYMPTOMS AND 2 TESTS

  1. CLINICAL ASSESSMENT
  2. 2 OBJECTIVE TESTS (FENOM SPIROMETRY (OVER 35/40), REVERSABLE AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION)
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7
Q

in the management of asthma, which 2 things reduce airway eosinophilic inflammation?

A

LEUKOTREINE AGONISTS AND INHALED CORTICSTERIODS

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8
Q

2 things given in asthma for symptomatic relief

A

b2 agonists

anticholinergic therapies

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9
Q

2 steroid sparing therapies given in severe asthma

A

IL5 Agonist

anti IGE and

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10
Q

4 things that come together and cause an acute lung attack?

A

pollution
allergy
smoke
pathogen

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11
Q

3 conditions for omalizumab ( anti ige)

A
  • 6 OVER
  • SERUM IGE 30-200
  • OTHER THERAPIES NOT WORKING
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12
Q

how does anti il5 ab therapy work?

A

stops eosinophil recruitment

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13
Q

what is needed for anti il5 ab therapy

A

REDUCTION IN ATTACKS BY 50%

SERUM EOSINIPILIA MORE THAN 300

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14
Q

5 causes of lung cancer other than smoking

A
FUMES 
RADON GAS 
ASBESTOS 
CHRONIC LUNG DISEASE 
IMMUNODEFICIENCY
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15
Q

what types of cancer are small cell cancers

A

neuroendocrine cells

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16
Q

what focal symptoms are seen in advanced lung cancer

A

HEADACHE, SIEZUREM WEAKNESS, BEHAVIORUAL CHANGE

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17
Q

what paraneoplastic syndromes are seen in lung cancer?

A

CLUBBING, HYPERCALAEMIA, HYPONATRAEMIA, CUSHINGS

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18
Q

what is the ultimate method for diagnosis and staging liung cancer? for each area of lung

A

central airway BRONCHOSCOPTY

mediastinum and lymph nodes
ENDOBRONCHIAL USS

periperal lung tumours
CT GUIDED LUNG BIOPSY

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19
Q

what is sabr

A

stereotactic ablative body radiotherapy

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20
Q

what 3 genes fors oncogene directed chemo target?

A

EGFR
ALK
ROS1

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21
Q

3 SIDE EFFECTS OF ONCOGENE DIRECTED DRUGS?

A

RASH, DIARRHOEA, PNEUMONITIS

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22
Q

how does immunotherapy work?

A

SWITCHES OFF DEATH LIGANDS ON TUMOUR CELLS SO T CELLS ARE NOT REMOVED SO THEY CAN KILL CANCER CELLS

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23
Q

what is offered in each lung cancer treatment stage?

A

early stage -SURGERY/SABR
locally advanced disease SURGERY AND CHEMO OR RADIOTHERAPY AND CHEMO
metastatic disease - a. targetable mutation] ONCOGENE DIRECTED (TYROSINE KINASE INHIBITOR)
b. no mutation byt pdl positive I
MMUNOTHERAPY
no mutation and pdl neg IMMONO AND CHEMO

24
Q

symptoms of lower resp tract infection

A

FEVER, PRODUCTIVE COUGH, WHEEZING BREATHLESSNESS

25
symtoms of pnsuemonia
CHEST PAIN CYANOSIS HIGH FEVER SEVERE
26
5 conditions which may increase risk of pneumonia?
COPD, ASTHMA HIV IMMUNOSUPPRESION DIABETES
27
4 most common bacterial agents for resp infection
HAEMOPHILIUS INFLUENZAE, STREP PNEUMONIAE, MYXOPLASMA P. TB
28
5 viruses commonly causing resp infection?
RHINOVIRUS, INFLUENZA, CORONAVIRUS, RESPIROTY SYNCITIAL VIRUS
29
bacterial cause of atypical pneumonia
chlamydia pneumoniae
30
how is pneumonia graded in primary care?
age over 65 rr >30 bp <90/60 confusion
31
how does the resp epithelium provide defence?
``` SECRETES ANTIMICROBIALS CILLIA MUCUS MAKES CYTOKINES AND UPREGULATE IFS TIGHT JUNCTIONS ```
32
5 symptoms of rsv broncholitis
TACHYNPOEA CYANOSIS CHEST WALL RETRACTIONS NASAL FLARING WHEEZINGM
33
3 antiinflammatory drugs given for rsv bronchilitis
dexamethazone | anti il6/il6 r
34
what is ards
SUDDEN SEVERE INFLAMMATION OF THE LUNGS
35
4 things used to classify ards
CXR ORIGIN OF OEDEMA TIMING - WITHIN 1 WEEK OF ACUTE INSULT OXYGENATION
36
3 pulmonary causes of acute lung failure
infection, aspiration
37
3 extrapulmonary causes of acute lung failire?
trauma pancreatitis sepsis
38
3 pulmonary causes of chronic lung failure
copd cf lung fibrosis
39
what is type 3 lung failure?
perioperative POOR POSITIONING AND ANAESTHETIC TECHNIQUE LEADS TO ABNORMAL MOVEMENT OF CHEST WALL AND AIRWAY COLLAPSE DUE TO LOW FUNCTIONAL RESIDUAL CEPACITY
40
what is type 4 lung failure
shock INTUBATION - POOLING BLOD, LESS PERFUSION
41
OUTLINE THE INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE IN ARDS
IL6, 8 TNF ALPHA RELEASED. INCREASES INFLAMMATION AND OEDEMA AROUND ALVIOLI, LARGER DIATANCE FOR GAS EXCHANGE. ALSO INCREASED NEUTROPHILS SECRETING INFLAMMATORY MEDIATORS
42
What damps are released in ards
HMGB1 RAGE ANG2
43
3 steps of ards management
TREAT UNDERLYING DISEASE RESP SUPPORT MULTIPLE ORGAN SUPPOERT
44
what is needed for ECMO referral?
murray score over 3
45
what does a murray score assess?
IMAGING, COMPLIANCE, 02 SATS ON 100% OXYGEN PEEP (MINIMIMUM BASELINE VENTILATORY PRESSIRE NEEDED FOR ALVEOLI RECRUITMENT - INCREASES IN ARDS),
46
3 causes of thrombocytopenia
BONE MARROW FAILURE INCREASED CONSUMPTION SPLENOMEGALY - POOLING
47
what is glanzmans thrombasthenia
lac of GP11B/111A RECEPTOR
48
what is bernard soulier syndrome
LOSS OF WVF RECEPTOR (gP1B)
49
what is storage pool disease
reduction of granular contents
50
what thigns can cause abnormalities in vessel wall?
INHEREDED: COLLAGEN ABNORMALITY (ED) ACQUIRED: LONG TERM STERIODS (COLLAGEN ATROPHY), AGING, VASCULITIS, SCURVY
51
3 tests for disorders of primary haemostsis?
platelet morphology PFA100 VWF assays
52
what does tranexamic acid do?
binds plasminogen so it cant bind to lysine
53
3 symptoms of hameophilia?
HAEMARTHROSIS, SPONTANEOUS JOINT BLEEDING, EASILY MUSCLE WASTING
54
what is associated with DIC?
raised d dimer
55
what is the pathophysiology of DIC
REPEATED COAGULATION SPONTNANOUSLY AND THEN ANTICOAGULATION DEPOSITION OF FIBRIN IN VESSELS CAUESE PRGAN FAILURE