CCNA_FASTPATH Flashcards

Question

How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two). A. TCP provides best effort delivery. B. TCP provides synchronized communication. C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams. D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets. E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.

Answer 1

How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two). A. TCP provides best effort delivery. **B. TCP provides synchronized communication.** C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams. **D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.** E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.

Answer 2

What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two). A. TFTP **B. SMTP** C. SNMP **D. FTP** E. DNS ## Footnote SMTP uses TCP port 25, while FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21.

Answer 3

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication? A. Transport B. Network C. Presentation D. Session **E. Application** ## Footnote The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner and determining whether sufficient resources for the intended communication exist.

Answer 4

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation? **A. Application** B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport E. Internet F. Data link ## Footnote FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.

Answer 5

What layer is responsible for combining bits into bytes, and bytes into frames? A. Application B. Presentation C. Transport **D. Data Link**

Answer 6

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two). **A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.** B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment. C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information. **D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.** E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Answer 7

Which two Ethernet fiber-optic modes support distances of greater than 550 meters? (Choose two). **A. 1000Base-LX** B. 1000Base-FX C. 1000Base-SC D. 100Base-CX **E. 1000Base-ZX** ## Footnote 1000BASE-LX is used with Single-mode or Multi-mode fiber with a range of 3-10Km. 1000Base-ZX is single mode fiber with a range of 43-75Km.

Answer 8

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port? A. This is a 10Mbs switch port. B. This is a 100Mbs switch port. **C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.** D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex. E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC. ## Footnote Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/ CD. CSMA/ CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub and runs at half-duplex).

Answer 9

CSMA/ CD is a protocol that helps devices do what? A. Increase bandwidth between all devices. B. Allows devices to transmit simultaneously. **C. Share bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time**. D. Administers the bandwidth for the device that is currently transmitting.

Answer 10

Half-Duplex uses ____ with a digital signal running in both directions? **A. One wire pair** B. Two wire pairs C. Three wire pairs D. Four wire pairs

Answer 11

Identify the incorrect statement regarding Full-duplex. **A. Uses CSMA/ CD to avoid collisions.** B. No collisions occur in full-duplex. C. A dedicated switchport is required for each full-duplex mode. D. The host NIC and Switchport must be full-duplex capable. ## Footnote In a half-duplex network, one wire pair is used in the ethernet cable. During transmission, a device will listen to the wire to begin transmission of data. To avoid data collisions, CSMA/ CD was created to mitigate any collisions during data transmission.

Answer 12

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called? A. NIC B. BIA **C. OUI** D. VAI ## Footnote Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI) is the first 24 bits of a MAC address for a network device, which indicates the specific vendor for that device as assigned by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Incorporated (IEEE).

Answer 13

A MAC address is _____ bits long, and expressed in _____? A. 48, decimal B. 24, decimal **C. 48, hexadecimal** D. 32, hexadecimal

Answer 14

What is the decimal equivalent of 10010110? A. 140 B. 170 C. 120 **D. 150** ## Footnote Each binary digit is equivalent to a decimal value in an IP address. The IP address consists of 4 octets, 8 binary bits each. To convert binary to decimal, multiply the binary value to the corresponding value of 2 - 1x2( 7) + 0x2( 6) + 0x2( 5) + 1x2( 4) + 0x2( 3) + 1x2( 2) + 1x2( 1) + 0x2( 0). Add the sums together - 1x128 + 0x64 + 0x32 + 1x16 + 0x8 + 1x4 + 1x2 + 0x1 = 128 + 0 + 0 + 16 + 0 + 4 + 2 + 0 which equals 150.

Answer 15

What is the hexadecimal value of C? A. 0101 **B. 1100** C. 1101 D. 1110 ## Footnote The hexadecimal value of C is 12. In binary, it is represented as 1100. Values in a nibble are 8-4-2-1. We have 1 in the 8 position, 1 in the 4 position, 0 in the 2, 0 in the position.

Answer 16

What cable would you use between a Router and a Switch or Hub? **A. Straight-Through** B. Crossover C. Rolled D. Coax

Answer 17

What is the equivalent of 11001010.11110101.10000011.11101011 in hexadecimal? A. 0xE61A3D67 B. 0xD8B2D356 **C. 0xCAF583EB** D. 0xE81E3D36 ## Footnote 0x denotes that this is a hexadecimal value. To convert this to hexadecimal, break up each octet into 2 nibble of 4 bits each. The correct answer is C - 0xCAF583EB.

Answer 18

The Cisco Hierarchical Model contains what three layers? **A. Core Layer, Distribution Layer, Access Layer** B. Backbone Layer, Production Layer, Access layer C. Border Gateway Layer, ISP Layer, Distribution Layer D. Regional Layer, Local Layer, User Layer

Answer 19

Which fields are contained within an IEEE Ethernet Frame? (Choose two). **A. Source and destination MAC address.** B. Source and destination network address. C. Source and destination port number. **D. FCS Field.** ## Footnote An Ethernet frame has source and destination MAC addresses, an Ether-Type field to identify the Network layer protocol, the data, and the FCS field that holds the answer to the CRC.

Answer 20

1000Base-T is which IEEE standard? A. 802.3F B. 802.3z **C. 802.3ab** D. 802.3ae

Answer 21

Data encapsulation follows what process? A. Application, Segment, Network, Frame, Bits **B. Segments, Packets, Frames, Bits** C. Coax, Twisted pair, Fiber, Wireless D. Packets, Frames, Segments, Bits E. Bits, Packets, Segments, Application data

Answer 22

What term is used for the unwanted signal interference from adjacent pairs in a cable? A. EMI B. RFI **C. Crosstalk** D. Attenuation

Answer 23

Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to switch port fa0/ 3. The host and switch have been fully configured for IP connectivity as shown. However, the indicator LED on switch port fa0/ 3 is not on, and the host cannot communicate with any other hosts including those connected to VLAN 2 on the same switch. Based on the given information, what is the problem? A. Switch port fa0/ 3 is not configured as a trunk port. **B. There is an incorrect cable type.** C. The switch has been assigned an incorrect subnet mask. D. Switch port fa0/ 3 has been blocked by STP. E. The switch and the host must be in the same subnet.

Answer 24

A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation? A. A router with two Ethernet interfaces. B. A switch with two Ethernet interfaces. **C. A router with one Ethernet and one serial interface.** D. A switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface. E. A router with one Ethernet and one modem interface.

Answer 25

An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the problem? A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex. B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached. **C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.** D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size. E. The serial interface has a full buffer.

Answer 26

Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/ CD access method? (Choose two). A. In a CSMA/ CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously. **B. In a CSMA/ CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.** C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/ CD access method. D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data. **E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.** F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.

Answer 27

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router? A. 1 B. 2 **C. 4** D. 8

Answer 28

What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown? A. 1 - Ethernet Crossover cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Fiber Optic cable 4 - Rollover cable. **B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet straight-through cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable.** C. 1 - Ethernet rollover cable 2 - Ethernet crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Null-modem cable. D. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Rollover cable. E. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable 2 - Ethernet Crossover cable 3 - Serial cable 4 - Ethernet Straight-through cable.

Answer 29

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two). **A. To uniquely identify devices at Layer 2**. B. To allow communication with devices on a different network. C. To differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet. D. To establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first. **E. To allow communication between different devices on the same network.** F. To allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown.

Answer 30

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two). A. When they receive a special token. B. When there is a carrier. **C. When they detect no other devices are sending**. **D. When the medium is idle.** E. When the server grants access.

Answer 31

The network administrator has asked you to check the status of the workstation's IP stack by pinging the loopback address. What address would you ping to perform this task? A. 10.1.1.1 B. 192.168.0.1 **C. 127.0.0.1** D. 239.1.1.1

Answer 32

Which IP address can be assigned to an internet interface? **A. 9.255.255.10** B. 10.180.48.224 C. 192.168.20.223 D. 172.16.200.18 ## Footnote The IP address which can be assigned to an Internet interface must a public IP address. Private IP address (10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255; 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255; 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255). Special IP addresses (the local loopback address 127.0.0.1, multicast addresses…) cannot be assigned to an Internet interface. In this question, only answer B doesn’t belong to the range of private IP addresses.

Answer 33

What TCP message does a host send to establish a connection with a destination host? A. ISN B. Establish C. HELLO **D. SYN** E. Request open f. ACK

Answer 34

The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two). A. SNMP B. HTTP **C. Telnet** D. RMON **E. SSH**

Answer 35

The corporate head office has a teleconferencing system that uses VOIP (voice over IP) technology. This system uses UDP as the transport for the data transmissions. If these UDP datagrams arrive at their destination out of sequence, what will happen? A. UDP will drop the datagrams. **B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order that they arrive**. C. UDP will send an ICMP Information Request to the source host. D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data in the correct order.

Answer 36

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two). **A. Ease of management and troubleshooting.** B. Efficient utilization of MAC addresses. C. Dedicated communications between devices. **D. Reduces routing table entries.** E. Auto-negotiation of media rates.

Answer 37

Which of the following describes private IP addresses? (Choose two). A. Addresses that can be routed through the public internet. **B. A scheme to conserve public addresses**. C. Addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an internet registry organization. D. Addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the internet. **E. Addresses that cannot be routed through the public internet.**

Answer 38

An administrator attempts a traceroute but receives a “Destination Unreachable” message. Which protocol is responsible for that message? A. TCP B. SNMP C. RUDP D. RARP **E. ICMP**

Answer 39

When two hosts are trying to communicate across a network, how does the host originating the communication determine the hardware address of the host that it wants to “talk” to? A. Show Network Address request **B. ARP request** C. RARP request D. Proxy ARP request E. Show Hardware Address request F. Ping request

Answer 40

Which of the following host addresses are members of networks that cannot be routed across the public internet? (Choose three). **A. 10.172.13.65** B. 198.234.12.95 **C. 172.16.223.125** D. 172.64.12.29 E. 212.193.48.254 **F. 192.168.23.252**

Answer 41

Which option can be configured for the default gateway of the Local Area Connection? A. 192.223.129.0 B. 10.0.0.0 C. 192.223.129.254 **D. 10.0.0.254**

Answer 42

Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host? **A. tracert address** B. traceroute address C. telnet address D. ssh address

Answer 43

Workstation A has been assigned an IP address of 192.0.2.24/ 28. Workstation B has been assigned an IP address of 192.0.2.100/ 28. The two workstations are connected with a straight-through cable. Attempts to ping between the hosts were unsuccessful. What two things can be done to allow communications between the hosts? (Choose two). A. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /26. B. Change the address of Workstation A to 192.0.2.15. **C. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /25.** D. Change the address of Workstation B to 192.0.2.111. **E. Replace the straight-through cable with a crossover cable.** ## Footnote A /28 is CIDR notation for the 255.255.255.240 subnet mask. This has a block size of 16 in the fourth octet. Workstation A is in the 192.0.2.16 subnet, Workstation B is in the 192.0.2.96 subnet. Both workstations are in the wrong subnet. Changing the subnet mask to /25 (255.255.255.128), provides two subnets: 0 and 128, which would put both hosts in the zero (0) subnet. With both workstations in the same subnet, you will need a crossover cable in order to be able to communicate between the two hosts.

Answer 44

The network default gateway being applied to a host by DHCP is 192.168.5.33/ 28. Which of the following option is a valid IP address for that subnet? A. 192.168.5.14 B. 192.168.5.47 **C. 192.168.5.40** D. 192.168.5.55 E. 192.168.5.32

Answer 45

A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two). A. CDP B. DHCP **C. ICMP** **D. ARP** E. DNS

Answer 46

An administrator issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from the command line prompt on a PC. If a reply is received, what does this confirm? **A. The PC has the TCP/ IP protocol stack correctly installed.** B. The PC has connectivity with a Layer 3 device. C. The PC has connectivity up to Layer 5 of the OSI model. D. The PC has connectivity with a local host. E. The PC has a default gateway correctly configured.

Answer 47

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP? A. Several automated methods will be necessary on the private network. B. The NAT process will be used to translate this address in a valid IP address. C. Only is ISP router will have the capability to access the public network. **D. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the internet backbone.** E. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Answer 48

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/ IP reference model? A. Transport B. Network **C. Internet** D. Application ## Footnote The Internet Layer of TCP/ IP is equivalent to the Network Layer which is responsible for routing decision.

Answer 49

On the network 131.1.123.0/ 27, what is the last IP address that can be assigned to a host? A. 131.1.123.32 B. 131.1.123.31 **C. 131.1.123.30** D. 131.1.123.33

Answer 50

A Layer 2 broadcast is also known as a hardware broadcast. Of the following, which two are binary and hexadecimal Layer 2 broadcasts? (Choose two). **A. 11111111** **B. FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF** C. 00000000 D. 45. AC. 24. E3.60. A5 E. 255.255.255.255

Answer 51

When is it necessary to use a public IP address on a routing interface? A. Connect a router on a local network. B. Allow distribution of routes between networks. **C. Connect a network to the internet**. D. Translate a private IP address. E. Connect a router to another router.

Answer 52

Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three). **A. Buffering** B. Cut-through **C. Windowing** **D. Congestion avoidance** E. Load balancing

Answer 53

exhibit. A TCP/ IP Transfer is diagrammed in the exhibit. A window size of three has been negotiated for this transfer. Which message will be returned from the receiver to the sender as part of this TCP/ IP transfer? A. send ACK 4-6 **B. send ACK 4** C. send ACK 3 D. send ACK 1-3 E. send ACK 7 F. send ACK 6 ## Footnote The receiving host will send back to the transmitting host what is expecting "next", not what it already received.

Answer 54

In addition to assigning an IP address, which of the following correctly describe regarding TCP/ IP stack configuration features that DHCP can provide? (Choose three). **A. DNS servers** **B. Subnet mask** C. Helper address D. FTP server E. TFTP server **F. Default gateway**

Answer 55

A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server? A. HTTP B. DNS C. DHCP D. RARP **E. ARP**

Answer 56

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two). A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments. B. They guarantee datagram delivery. C. **TRACERT uses ICMP packets.** D. **They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.** E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

Answer 57

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN? **A. ping address** B. tracert address C. traceroute address D. arp address

Answer 58

Which IP addresses are valid public Class A host addresses? Assume the default Class A subnet mask is in use. (Choose two). A. 10.154.16.87 **B. 11.22.33.44** **C. 68.95.255.100** D. 127.0.0.1 E. 128.16.89.72 F. 131.241.78.3

Answer 59

A small company has a Class C network address and needs to create five subnets, each accommodating 25 hosts. Which subnet mask needs to be configured? A. 255.255.240.0 B. 255.255.255.128 C. 255.255.255.192 **D. 255.255.255.224** E. 255.255.255.240 F. 255.255.255.248 ## Footnote To create additional subnets, we need to borrow bits from the host bits. In order to accommodate 5 subnets, we use the formula 2n. n is the number of bits to borrow from the host bits. Using 3 bits in the fourth octet will give us 6 subnets with 30 available addresses in each subnet.

Answer 60

What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B network address is being used? A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 **D. 14** E. 16 ## Footnote The default subnet mask for a Class B address is 255.255.0.0. This gives us 16 bits for network bits, 16 bits for host bits. All 0' s in a subnet is a network address (255.255.0.0), all 1' s in an address denotes a broadcast address (255.255.255.255).

Answer 61

An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two). A. 192.168.4.61 B. 192.168.4.63 **C. 192.168.4.67** **D. 192.168.4.125** E. 192.168.4.128 F. 192.168.4.132

Answer 62

Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the following addresses can be assigned to network hosts? (Choose three). A. 201.45.116.159 B. 15.234.118.63 C. 217.63.12.192 **D. 92.11.178.93** **E. 134.178.18.56** **F. 192.168.16.87**

Answer 63

What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/ 28? A. 192.168.23.0 B. 192.168.23.32 **C. 192.168.23.48** D. 192.168.23.56 E. 192.168.23.60 ## Footnote A /28 is CIDR notation for 255.255.255.240. This gives us a block size of 16 in the fourth octet (256-240 = 16). The host is 192.168.23.61. Counting subnets in blocks of 16, 192.168.23.61 is in the 192.168.23.48 subnet. Valid hosts are 192.168.23.49 - 192.168.23.62.

Answer 64

A new LAN segment is allocated the network number 172.16.0.0/ 25. What range of addresses are available for hosts on that network? A. 172.16.0.1 through 172.16.0.254 **B. 172.16.0.1 through 172.16.0.126** C. 172.16.0.129 through 172.16.0.254 D. 172.16.0.1 through 172.16.1.254 E. 172.16.1.1 through 172.16.1.126 F. 172.16.1.1 through 172.16.1.254

Answer 65

Which three network addresses are reserved for private network use? (Choose three). **A. 10.0.0.0** B. 172.15.0.0 **C. 172.31.0.0** D. 192.162.24.0 **E. 192.168.255.0** F. 224.192.0.0 ## Footnote RFC 1918 defines the private IP address range. The ranges of private IP Addresses are: 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255 , 172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255.

Answer 66

Which command will assign the last usable IP address from the 192.168.32.128/ 28 subnetwork to a router interface? **A. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.142 255.255.255.240** B. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.143 255.255.255.240 C. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.158 255.255.255.240 D. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.142 255.255.255.248 E. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.144 255.255.255.224 F. Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.32.158 255.255.255.224

Answer 67

What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/ 28? A. 172.19.20.0 B. 172.19.20.15 **C. 172.19.20.16** D. 172.19.20.20 E. 172.19.20.32 ## Footnote A /28 is CIDR notation for 255.255.255.240. This gives us a block size of 16 in the fourth octet (256-240 = 16). Counting the networks in blocks of 16 (172.19.20.0, 172.19.20.16, 172.19.20.32), 172.19.20.23 falls into the 172.19.20.16 subnet.

Answer 68

Which of the following correctly pairs the dotted decimal subnet mask with the correct number of binary bits that represent the subnet mask? A. 255.255.255.192 and /25 B. 255.255.255.248 and /28 C. 255.255.255.224 and /26 D. 255.255.255.248 and /27 **E. 255.255.255.240 and /28** F. 255.255.255.240 and /16

Answer 69

A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection, they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem? A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask. B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address. **C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask**. D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.

Answer 70

A network engineer needs to configure a branch office for 82 hosts. What is the most efficient use of a subnet mask? **A. 255.255.255.128** B. 255.255.255.192 C. 255.255.255.224 D. 255.255.255.248

Answer 71

What starting binary pattern indicates an address range evenly split between network and host size? A. 01xxxxxx B. 0xxxxxxx **C. 10xxxxxx** D. 110xxxxx ## Footnote IP addresses can be identified in a decimal or binary format. Class A address range is from 0-127 in decimal, 0xxxxxxx in binary. Class B address range is 128--191 in decimal, 10xxxxxx in binary. Class C address range is 192-223 in decimal, 110xxxxx in binary. C is the correct answer as this relates to a Class B address range with a default mask of 255.255.0.0.

Answer 72

Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224? A. 192.168.2.63 **B. 192.168.2.62** C. 192.168.2.61 D. 192.168.2.60 E. 192.168.2.32

Answer 73

Your ISP has given you the address 223.5.14.7/ 29 to assign to your router's interface. They have also given you the default gateway address of 223.5.14.4. After you have configured the address, the router is unable to ping any remote devices. What is preventing the router from pinging remote devices? A. The IP address is an invalid class D multicast address. B. The default gateway is the broadcast address for this subnet. **C. The IP address is the broadcast address for this subnet.** D. The default gateway is not an address on the subnet.

Answer 74

A network administrator has been assigned an IP address space of 192.168.1.0/ 24 for a network with three segments. The first segment needs to support 60 hosts. The second segment needs to support 45 hosts. The third segment needs to support 30 hosts. Which two statements describe this choice? (Choose two). A. The assigned address will not provide enough IP address space for the required number of hosts. **B. The assigned address represents private IP address space.** **C. User IP addresses must be translated to public IP addresses when accessing the Internet.** D. User IP addresses must be translated to private IP addresses when communicating to hosts on other network segments. E. This assignment will compromise network security.

Answer 75

How many hosts are available for 192.168.1.1/ 28? **A. 14** B. 15 C. 16 D. 17 E. 18

Answer 76

You need to configure 52 hosts for a computer lab. Which subnet mask is appropriate? A. 255.255.255.224 B. 255.255.255.248 C. 255.255.254.240 **D. 255.255.255.192**

Answer 77

Which subnet mask provides the most efficient use of a Class C address space for a company that requires 10 subnets and 12 hosts per subnet? A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.255.248 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.224 E. 255.255.255.252 **F. 255.255.255.240**

Answer 78

What is the last usable address of the network 10.10.64.0 255.255.252.0? A. 10.10.64.254 **B. 10.10.67.254** C. 10.10.66.254 D. 10.10.65.254

Answer 79

What is the most efficient subnet mask for a small branch office with seven hosts? A. 255.255.255.0 B. 255.255.255.248 **C. 255.255.255.240** D. 255.255.255.224

Answer 80

What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts? A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters. B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office. C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol. **D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.**

Answer 81

Which IP address is a private address? A. 12.0.0.1 B. 168.172.19.39 **C. 172.20.14.36** D. 172.33.194.30 E. 192.169.42.34

Answer 82

Which class of IP address will provide sufficient addresses for 66,000 or more hosts? **A. Class A** B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D E. Class E

Answer 83

From which IP address class can 15 bits be borrowed to create subnets? **A. A** B. B C. C D. D E. E

Answer 84

Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/ 23? (Choose two). A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0. **B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.** C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0. **D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.** E. The network is not subnetted.

Answer 85

Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address? A. 192.168.1.8/ 29 B. 192.168.1.32/ 27 **C. 192.168.1.40/ 29** D. 192.168.1.16/ 28 E. 192.168.1.48/ 29

Answer 86

Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/ 20 subnet? (Choose three). **A. 10.1.168.0** B. 10.1.176.1 **C. 10.1.174.255** **D. 10.1.160.255** E. 10.1.160.0 F. 10.1.175.255

Answer 87

If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/ 30, what is the address of the subnetwork to which this host belongs? A. 172.16.45.0 B. 172.16.45.4 C. 172.16.45.8 **D. 172.16.45.12** E. 172.16.45.16

Answer 88

Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets? A. 1 **B. 2** C. 4 D. 8 E. 252 F. 254

Answer 89

What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/ 22? A. 172.16.0.0 B. 172.16.128.0 **C. 172.16.156.0** D. 172.16.159.0 E. 172.16.159.128 F. 172.16.192.0

Answer 90

Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA? A. 192.168.1.1 **B. 192.168.1.65** C. 192.168.1.66 D. 192.168.1.129 E. 10.1.1.1 F. 10.1.1.2

Answer 91

The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network? **A. 255.255.255.192** B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248 E. 255.255.255.252

Answer 92

Which of the following describe Class A host addresses? (Choose three). **A. The decimal value of the first octet can range from 1 to 126**. B. The decimal value of the first octet can range from 1 to 192. **C. The first octet represents the entire network portion of the address.** D. The default subnet mask for a Class A network is 255.255.0.0. **E. The value of the first binary place in the first octet must be 0.** F. The first two binary bits of the address must be 00.

Answer 93

After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error? A. The serial interface must be configured first. B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2. C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0. **D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240.** E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66.

Answer 94

From where does a small network get its IP network address? A. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB) **C. Internet Service Provider (ISP)** D. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)

Answer 95

A network administrator has subnetted the 172.16.0.0 network using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. A duplicate IP address of 172.16.2.120 has accidentally been configured on a workstation in the network. The technician must assign this workstation a new IP address within that same subnetwork. Which address should be assigned to the workstation? A. 172.16.1.80 **B. 172.16.2.80** C. 172.16.1.64 D. 172.16.2.64 E. 172.16.2.127 F. 172.16.2.128

Answer 96

If an Ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/ 20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet? A. 1024 B. 2046 **C. 4094** D. 4096 E. 8190

Answer 97

A host computer has the IP address 192.168.43.139 and netmask 255.255.255.240. On which logical IP network does this host reside? A. 192.168.0.0/ 26 B. 192.168.0.0/ 28 C. 192.168.43.0/ 28 D. 192.168.43.64/ 28 E. 192.168.43.112/ 28 **F. 192.168.43.128/ 28**

Answer 98

A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done to fix this problem? A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/ 1. B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/ 1. **C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.** D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1. E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.

Answer 99

The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three). **A. One IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0** B. Two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0 C. Seven 48-port hubs **D. Seven 48-port switches** **E. One router interface** F. Seven router interfaces

Answer 100

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement? A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252 **B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248** C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252 D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240 E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

Answer 101

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address? **A. 172.16.16.0 ** B. 172.16.0.0 C. 172.16.24.0 D. 172.16.28.0

Answer 102

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/ 23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements? A. 10.188.31.0/ 26 B. 10.188.31.0/ 25 C. 10.188.31.0/ 28 **D. 10.188.31.0/ 27** E. 10.188.31.0/ 29

Answer 103

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/ 29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server? A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9 B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1 **C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25** D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17 E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

Answer 104

Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? (Choose two). A. 10.6.8.35 **B. 133.6.5.4** C. 192.168.5.9 D. 127.0.0.1 **E. 190.6.5.4**

Answer 105

What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two). **A. The interface displays a connected (up/ up) state even when the duplex settings are mismatched.** **B. The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.** C. Autonegotiation is disabled. D. Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/ CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions. E. 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.

Answer 106

What is the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to Router1? **A. 192.168.8.15** B. 192.168.8.31 C. 192.168.8.63 D. 192.168.8.127

Answer 107

Including the address on the Router1 Ethernet interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN to which Router1 is connected? **A. 6** B. 30 C. 62 D. 126

Answer 108

An Ethernet cable is attached to a PC NIC and then attached to a switch port. The PC power is turned on and the switch port link LED turns green. The link light indicates what two conditions? (Choose two). **A. Layer 2 communication has been established between the PC and switch.** B. The PC has received a DHCP address. C. Traffic is being sent from the switch to the PC. D. If flashing, the green LED indicates port speed of 100 Mb/ s. **E. The Layer 1 media is functioning between the PC and switch.** F. The switch port is functioning as a half-duplex connection.

Answer 109

Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions? A. source IP address B. destination IP address C. source and destination IP address D. source MAC address **E. destination MAC address**

Answer 110

The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two). A. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table. **B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.** C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/ 3 only. **D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/ 1, fa0/ 2, and fa0/ 3.** E. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.

Answer 111

Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two). **A. increases the number of collision domains** B. decreases the number of collision domains **C. implements VLAN** D. decreases the number of broadcast domains E. uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets

Answer 112

Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame? A. Drop the frame. **B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/ 2**. C. Return the frame to Host B. D. Send an ARP request for Host C. E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B. F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C.

Answer 113

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame? A. It will drop the frame. **B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/ 6 only**. C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/ 3 only. D. It will flood the frame out all ports. E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/ 3.

Answer 114

What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch? A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address **B. allows remote management of the switch** C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other

Answer 115

The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate? **A. The system is malfunctioning**. B. The system is not powered up. C. The system is powered up and operational. D. The system is forwarding traffic. E. The system is sensing excessive collisions.

Answer 116

What are two effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two). A. Increase in switch operating speed. **B. Increased latency**. **C. Filtering of all frame errors**. D. Filtering of collision fragments only. E. Propagation of corrupted or damaged frames. F. Decreased latency.

Answer 117

Which command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch? A. Switch( config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1 B. Switch( config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1 **C. Switch( config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1** D. Switch( config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0

Answer 118

Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0. d056. efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data? A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address. **B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.** C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated. D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

Answer 119

After the power-on self-test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch? A. The POST was successful. B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached. **C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.** D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate. E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.

Answer 120

What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two). A. decreasing the number of collision domains **B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses** **C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions** D. increasing the size of broadcast domains E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

Answer 121

A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame? A. drop the frame **B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it ** C. forward it out of all ports D. store it until it learns the correct port

Answer 122

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two). A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address. **B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.** C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table. **D. The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/ 0.** E. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/ 0 and fa0/ 1 only. F. The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.

Answer 123

What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address? A. drops the frame B. sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message C. sends a message to the router requesting the address **D. sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address**

Answer 124

As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three). A. Hub1 **B. Switch1** C. Router1 **D. Switch2** E. Router2 **F. Switch3**

Answer 125

The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A? **A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.** B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A. C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/ 3. D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

Answer 126

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task? A. SwitchB( config)# interface FastEthernet 0/ 1 SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown B. SwitchB( config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB( config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown **C. SwitchB( config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB( config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown** D. SwitchB( config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254 SwitchB( config)# interface vlan 1 SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown E. SwitchB( config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB( config)# interface FastEthernet 0/ 1 SwitchB( config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB( config-if)# no shutdown

Answer 127

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point? A. abcd. 1123.0045 B. 192.168.7.17 C. aabb. 5555.2222 D. 192.168.1.1 **E. abcd. 2246.0035**

Answer 128

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/ 0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem? A. Switch1( config)# line con 0 Switch1( config-line)# password cisco Switch1( config-line)# login B. Switch1( config)# interface fa0/ 1 Switch1( config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0 **C. Switch1( config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1** D. Switch1( config)# interface fa0/ 1 Switch1( config-if)# duplex full Switch1( config-if)# speed 100 E. Switch1( config)# interface fa0/ 1 Switch1( config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer 129

If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the frame when it reaches host B? A. 10.168.10.99 B. 10.168.11.88 C. A1: A1: A1: A1: A1: A1 D. B2: B2: B2: B2: B2: B2 **E. C3: C3: C3: C3: C3: C3** F. D4: D4: D4: D4: D4: D4

Answer 130

Which name describes an IPv6 host-enabled tunneling technique that uses IPv4 UDP, does not require dedicated gateway tunnels, and, can pass through existing IPv4 NAT gateways? A. Dual stack **B. Teredo** C. Manual 6to4 D. Dynamic

Answer 131

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address? A. FE08: B. 2001:: C. 2002:: **D. FE80::** E. FF02::

Answer 132

Which option is a valid IPv6 address? **A. 2004: 1: 25A4: 886F:: 1** B. 2002: 7654: A1AD: 61: 81AF:CCC1 C. 2001: 0000: 130F:: 099a:: 12a D. FEC0: ABCD:WXYZ: 0067:: 2A4

Answer 133

Which statement about IPv6 is true? A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random. B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface. C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available. **D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.**

Answer 134

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group? 224.0.0.2. **A. FF02:: 2** B. FF02:: 1 C. FF02:: 4 D. FF02:: 3 ## Footnote The IP address of all routers of IPV6 is FF02:: 2, the IP address of all routers of IPV4 is 224.0.0.2.

Answer 135

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three). **A. The same address for multiple devices in the group**. **B. Delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device.** C. any-to-many communication model. D. one-to-many communication model. E. A unique IPv6 address for each device in the group. **F. one-to-nearest communication model.**

Answer 136

Which address is the IPv6 all-RIP-routers multicast group address that is used by RIPng as the destination address for RIP updates? A. FF02:: 6 B. FF05:: 101 **C. FF02:: 9** D. FF02:: A

Answer 137

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1? **A. :: 1** B. 0::/ 10 C. 2000::/ 3 D. ::

Answer 138

What are three IPv6 transition mechanisms? (Choose three). A. VPN tunneling **B. Teredo tunneling** **C. ISATAP tunneling** D. GRE tunneling **E. 6to4 tunneling**

Answer 139

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two). A. Link-local addresses start with FF00:/ 10. B. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface. C. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/ 12. **D. There is only one loopback address and it is :: 1.** **E. Global addresses start with 2000:/ 3.**

Answer 140

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address? A. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it. **B. By inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address.** C. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE. D. By prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes. E. By appending 0xFF to the MAC address.

Answer 141

What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6? A. Multicast **B. Anycast** C. Unspecified address D. Global unicast

Answer 142

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two). **A. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.** B. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast. C. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID. D. Leading zero's in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory. **E. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type**.

Answer 143

The network administrator has been asked to give a reason for moving from an IPv4 network to an IPv6 network. What are two reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two). A. Change of destination address in the IPv6 header. B. NAT. C. Change of source address in the IPv6 header. **D. No broadcast**. E. Telnet does not require a password. **F. autoconfiguration.**

Answer 144

In which integration method is an IPv6 packet encapsulated within an IPv4 protocol? A. dual-stack **B. tunneling** C. dot1q D. proxy

Answer 145

Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two). **A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.** **B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.** C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits. D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address. E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

Answer 146

Which statement about IPv6 is true? A. An IPv6 address is 64 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters. B. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as decimal digits. C. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long and is represented as decimal digits. **D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters**.

Answer 147

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface? A. ipv6 autoconfig 2001: db8: 2222: 7272:: 72/ 64 B. ipv6 autoconfig C. ipv6 address PREFIX_1:: 1/ 64 **D. ipv6 address 2001: db8: 2222: 7272:: 72/ 64**

Answer 148

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three). A. Optional IPsec **B. Autoconfiguration** **C. No broadcasts** D. Complicated header **E. Plug-and-play** F. Checksums

Answer 149

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two). **A. anycast**. B. broadcast. **C. multicast**. D. podcast. E. allcast.

Answer 150

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514: 82C3: 0000: 0000: 0029: EC7A: 0000: EC72? A. B514: 82C3: 0029: EC7A:EC72 B. B514: 82C3:: 0029: EC7A:EC72 C. B514: 82C3: 0029:: EC7A: 0000: EC72 **D. B514: 82C3:: 0029: EC7A: 0: EC72**

Answer 151

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address? A. 24 B. 4 C. 8 **D. 16**

Answer 152

Which IPv6 address is valid? A. 2001: 0db8: 0000: 130F: 0000: 0000: 08GC: 140B B. 2001: 0db8: 0: 130H:: 87C: 140B C. 2031:: 130F:: 9C0: 876A: 130B **D. 2031: 0: 130F:: 9C0: 876A: 130B**

Answer 153

Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three). **A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.** **B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.** C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length. D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address. **E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.**

Answer 154

Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four). **A. ::** **B. :: 192: 168: 0: 1** C. 2000:: D. 2001: 3452: 4952: 2837:: **E. 2002: c0a8: 101:: 42** **F. 2003: dead:beef: 4dad: 23: 46: bb: 101**

Answer 155

Which of the following describes the process of encapsulating IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets? A. Routing **B. Tunneling** C. Hashing D. NAT E. PAT

Answer 156

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address? **A. FE80:: 380e: 611a:e14f: 3d69** B. FE81:: 280f: 512b:e14f: 3d69 C. FEFE: 0345: 5f1b:: e14d: 3d69 D. FE08:: 280e: 611: a:f14f: 3d69

Answer 157

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two). **A. No broadcast.** B. Change of source address in the IPv6 header. C. Change of destination address in the IPv6 header. D. Telnet access does not require a password. **E. autoconfig** F. NAT

Answer 158

Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL? **A. Hop Limit** B. Flow Label C. TTD D. Hop Count E. Scan Timer

Answer 159

Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command are true? (Choose two). **A. It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel.** **B. It specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.** C. It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol. D. It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol. E. It specifies that the tunnel is a Teredo tunnel.

Answer 160

In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three). **A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.** **B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.** **C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.** D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field. E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers. F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.

Answer 161

Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two). **A. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration** B. DHCP C. NHRP **D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration** E. ISATAP tunneling

Answer 162

PC1 is trying to login into SERVER1. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is incorrect? A. Test the local IP stack is working by pinging the loopback address. B. Test that the local IP stack is talking to the Data Link layer (LAN driver) by pinging the local IP address. C. Test that the host is working on the LAN by pinging the default gateway. **D. Ping the remote server to verify local LAN connectivity.**

Answer 163

Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed? A. As FastEthernet0/ 12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP. **B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.** C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch. D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.

Answer 164

A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is the problem? A. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down. B. TCP/ IP is not functioning on Host1 **C. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.** D. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect. E. Interface Fa0/ 0 on Router1 is shutdown. F. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

Answer 165

The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two). A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1. **B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.** C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2. **D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2**. E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224. F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

Answer 166

A user is unable to connect to the internet. Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting starting at the lowest layer, what is the correct troubleshooting order? 1. Verify NIC operation 2. Verify ethernet cable connection 3. Verify URL 4. Verify IP configuration A. 3412 **B. 2143** C. 4213 D. 1243

Answer 167

A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem. What is the most likely cause of the problem? A. IP routing is not enabled. B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet. **C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC**. D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC. E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.

Answer 168

Based on the network shown in the graphic. Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem? A. routing loops, hold down timers B. switching loops, split horizon C. routing loops, split horizon D. switching loops, VTP E. routing loops, STP **F. switching loops, STP**

Answer 169

Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch? **A. Switch( config)# vlan 20 Switch( config)# Interface gig x/ y Switch( config-if)# switchport access vlan 20** B. Switch( config)# Interface gig x/ y Switch( config-if)# vlan 20 Switch( config-vlan)# switchport access vlan 20 C. Switch( config)# vlan 20 Switch( config)# Interface vlan 20 Switch( config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 20 D. Switch( config)# vlan 20 Switch( config)# Interface vlan 20 Switch( config-if)# switchport access vlan 20 E. Switch( config)# vlan 20 Switch( config)# Interface vlan 20 Switch( config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

Answer 170

Refer to the exhibit. Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem? A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network **B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.** C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch. D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.

Answer 171

Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate with one another? **A. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch** B. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 2 switch C. intra-VLAN routing using router on a stick D. intra-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch

Answer 172

Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20? **A. Switch# show vlan id 20** B. Switch# show ip interface brief C. Switch# show interface vlan 20 D. Switch# show ip interface vlan 20

Answer 173

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two). **A. The FastEthernet 0/ 0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.** **B. The FastEthernet 0/ 0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.** C. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable. D. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit. E. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D. F. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

Answer 174

A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup configuration and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various connectivity problems. What is a possible cause of the problem? A. The "mode" button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded. B. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway. C. The running configuration should have been erased. D. The management VLAN is disabled. **E. The VLAN database was not erased.**

Answer 175

Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What can be said about this configuration? **A. No further routing configuration is required.** B. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router( config)# router rip C-router( config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router( config)# router ospf 1 C-router( config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 D. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router( config)# router eigrp 123 C-router( config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

Answer 176

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch? **A. An additional broadcast domain will be created.** B. More collision domains will be created. C. IP address utilization will be more efficient. D. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.

Answer 177

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three). **A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.** **B. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.** C. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain. D. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure. E. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size. **F. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure. ** G. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Answer 178

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode? **A. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.** B. The command is rejected. C. The port turns amber. D. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Answer 179

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance? **A. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.** B. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router. C. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic. D. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.

Answer 180

Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three). **A. One IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface.** **B. Subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags**. C. One physical interface for each subinterface. D. Subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags. E. A management domain for each subinterface. **F. one subinterface per VLAN**

Answer 181

Two switches are connected through a trunk link. Which two commands show that there is a native VLAN mismatch on that link? (Choose two). **A. show interface trunk** B. show vlan brief **C. show interface switchport** D. show interface interface E. show switchport trunk F. show interface vlan

Answer 182

Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/ 1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11? A. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other. B. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other. C. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other. **D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.**

Answer 183

Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two). **A. Switch1 (config)# interface fastethernet 0/ 1 Switch1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk** B. Switch1 (config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1 (config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1 **C. Router( config)# interface fastethernet 0/ 0 Router( config-if)# no shut down Router( config)# interface fastethernet 0/ 0.1 Router( config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router( config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router( config)# interface fastethernet 0/ 0.2 Router( config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router( config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0** D. Router( config)# interface fastethernet 0/ 0 Router( config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router( config-if)# no shut down E. Switch1( config)# vlan database Switch1( config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1( config-vlan)# vtp server F. Router( config)# router eigrp 100 Router( config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router( config-router)# network 192.168.20.0

Answer 184

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three). A. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity. **B. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/ s Ethernet interfaces.** C. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports. **D. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.** **E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.**

Answer 185

Refer to the exhibit. A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior? A. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination **C. native VLAN mismatches** D. trunk mode mismatches

Answer 186

Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch? **A. 2 through 1001** B. 2 through 1005 C. 1 through 1002 D. 1 through 1001

Answer 187

What is the purpose of frame tagging in virtual LAN (VLAN) configurations? A. Inter-VLAN routing B. Encryption of network packets **C. Frame identification over trunk links** D. Frame identification over access links

Answer 188

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe? A. The operation of VTP. **B. A method of VLAN trunking.** C. An approach to wireless LAN communication. D. The process for root bridge selection. E. VLAN pruning.

Answer 189

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch? A. It creates a VLAN 999 interface. **B. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.** C. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk. D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Answer 190

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three). A. They increase the size of collision domains. **B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.** **C. They can enhance network security.** D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains. **E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.** F. They simplify switch administration.

Answer 191

Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem? A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs. B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN. **C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.** D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches. E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Answer 192

Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two). A. VTP **B. 802.1q** C. IGP **D. ISL** E. 802.3u

Answer 193

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true? A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table. **B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.** C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN. D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Answer 194

Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two). **A. Added security** B. Dedicated bandwidth **C. Provides segmentation** D. Allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces E. Contains collisions

Answer 195

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three). **A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.** B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security. C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks. D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks. **E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.** **F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.**

Answer 196

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs? **A. A router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch.** B. A router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch. C. A switch with an access link that is configured between the switches. D. A switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches.

Answer 197

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three). **A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.** **B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.** C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding. **D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.** E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence. F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Answer 198

Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1? A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment. B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree. C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge. **D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.** ## Footnote When a switch receives a BPDU, it first compares Switch priority, the lowest priority number wins the root election. In the event of a tie. it compares the MAC address, the smaller one wins. The Switch has a 32769 priority, which is greater than 20481, so this Switch will not elect the root bridge. Another Switch has a lower priority, and won the election for VLAN 1.

Answer 199

Which command enables RSTP on a switch? **A. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst** B. spanning-tree uplinkfast C. spanning-tree backbonefast D. spanning-tree mode mst

Answer 200

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two). A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST +. **B. RSTP defines new port roles.** C. RSTP defines no new port states. D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP. **E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.**

Answer 201

What is one benefit of PVST +? A. PVST + supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops. B. PVST + reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network. **C. PVST + allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.** D. PVST + automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Answer 202

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST? A. learning B. listening **C. discarding** D. forwarding

Answer 203

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each non-root switch in a spanning-tree topology? A. Lowest port MAC address. B. Port priority number and MAC address. C. VTP revision number. D. Highest port priority number. **E. Path cost.**

Answer 204

Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three). **A. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.** B. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address. C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information. **D. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.** **E. Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.** F. Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and layer 3 address information.

Answer 205

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state? **A. converged** B. redundant C. provisioned D. spanned

Answer 206

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/ or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two). **A. 802.1d** B. VTP C. 802.1q D. SAP **E. STP** ## Footnote Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1D) is used to prevent Layer 2 loops. 802.1Q is a standard that supports VLAN tagging. SAP is a concept of the OSI model in the application layer.

Answer 207

Refer to the exhibit. Four Cisco 2950 switches are set to their default priority settings. During the spanning-tree process, which switch will be elected as the root bridge? A. Switch 3 B. Switch 4 C. Switch 2 **D. Switch 1** ## Footnote In spanning-tree. a bridge with the lowest priority and mac address wins the election to become the root bridge. If the bridge priority is the same across all Switches, the lowest mac address wins the election.

Answer 208

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of vlan 1? **A. The switch with the lowest MAC address.** B. The switch with the highest MAC address. C. The switch witch the highest IP address. D. The switch with the lowest IP address. ## Footnote Each switch in a network will have a Bridge ID Priority value. This BID is a combination of a priority value and the MAC address, with the priority value listed first. The lowest BID will win the election process. If the switch priority is left at the default, the MAC address is the deciding factor in the root bridge election.

Answer 209

Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname. as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three). **A. SwitchA, Fa0/ 2, designated** **B. SwitchA, Fa0/ 1, root** C. SwitchB, Gi0/ 2, root D. SwitchB, Gi0/ 1, designated E. SwitchC, Fa0/ 2, root **F. SwitchD, Gi0/ 2, root**

Answer 210

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2? A. interface FastEthernet 0/ 1 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/ 2 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk B. interface FastEthernet 0/ 1 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/ 2 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk **C. interface FastEthernet 0/ 1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/ 2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk** D. interface FastEthernet 0/ 1 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/ 2 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk ## Footnote If the etherchannel was configured with mode “auto”, it was using PagP, so, we need to configure the other switch with “desirable” mode. Etherchannel modes are PagP and LACP. PagP modes are auto and Desirable; LACP modes are active and passive.

Answer 211

What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel? A. Speed **B. DTP negotiation settings** C. Trunk encapsulation D. Duplex ## Footnote All interfaces in an EtherChannel must be configured identically to form an EtherChannel. Specific settings that must be identical are speed settings, Duplex settings, STP settings, VLAN membership, Native VLAN, Allowed VLANs for trunk ports, and Trunking Encapsulation (ISL or 802.1Q)

Answer 212

Refer to the exhibit. What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/ 3 to produce the given output? A. interface FastEthernet 0/ 3 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk **B. interface FastEthernet 0/ 3 channel-group 2 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk** C. interface FastEthernet 0/ 3 channel-group 2 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk D. interface FastEthernet 0/ 3 channel-group 2 mode on switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk

Answer 213

Refer to the exhibit. If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem? A. SW1' s Fa0/ 1 interface is administratively shut down. B. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1' s Fa0/ 1 and SW2' s Fa0/ 1 interfaces. C. There is an MTU mismatch between SW1' s Fa0/ 1 and SW2' s Fa0/ 1 interfaces. **D. There is a speed mismatch between SW1' s Fa0/ 1 and SW2' s Fa0/ 1 interfaces.**

Answer 214

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers? A. Switch1 B. Switch2 **C. Switch3** D. Switch4

Answer 215

Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role? A. Switch3, port fa0/ 1 B. Switch3, port fa0/ 12 **C. Switch4, port fa0/ 11** D. Switch4, port fa0/ 2 E. Switch3, port Gi0/ 1 F. Switch3, port Gi0/ 2 ## Footnote Switch 3 has a lower bridge ID than Switch 4, so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will belong to Switch4. Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches.

Answer 216

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/ 10 is not the root port for VLAN 2? A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2. B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree. **C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.** D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Answer 217

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three). A. A new switch has no VLANs configured. **B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device**. C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. **D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.** **E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.** F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Answer 218

Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three). **A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.** B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch. **C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.** D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media. **E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.** F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Answer 219

What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two). A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then the switch reverts to transparent mode. B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode. VLANs can be created, deleted, or renamed locally. **C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher configuration revision number is received.** D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in VTP transparent mode. E. VTP client is the default VTP mode. **F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement request to the VTP servers.**

Answer 220

Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches? A. STP **B. VTP** C. 802.1Q D. RSTP ## Footnote VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.

Answer 221

Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol? **A. MSTP** B. RSTP C. PVST + D. Mono Spanning Tree

Answer 222

Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two). **A. blocking** **B. listening** C. learning D. forwarding E. discarding

Answer 223

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two). **A. discarding** B. listening C. learning **D. forwarding** E. disabled

Answer 224

Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/ 24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached? A. VLANs have not been created yet. B. An IP address must be configured for the port. **C. The port is currently configured for access mode.** D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured. E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.

Answer 225

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process? **A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66** B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77 C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65 D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78 ## Footnote In spanning-tree. a bridge with the lowest priority and mac address wins the election to become the root bridge. If the bridge priority is the same across all Switches, the lowest mac address wins the election.

Answer 226

Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet? A. 802.3ad B. 802.1w C. 802.1D **D. 802.1Q** ## Footnote Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802.1Q) to be used.

Answer 227

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two). **A. show interface trunk** B. show interface interface # C. show ip interface brief D. show interface vlan **E. show interface switchport**

Answer 228

Refer to the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three). A. Switch A - Fa0/ 0 **B. Switch A - Fa0/ 1** **C. Switch B - Fa0/ 0** **D. Switch B - Fa0/ 1** E. Switch C - Fa0/ 0 F. Switch C - Fa0/ 1 ## Footnote This question is to check the spanning tree election problem. Find the root bridge. which can be accomplished by comparing the bridge ID, the smallest will be selected. Bridge-id = bridge priority + MAC address. The three switches in the figure all have the default priority, so we should compare the MAC address, it is easy to find that SwitchB is the root bridge. Find the root port on the non-root bridge. which can be completed through comparing root path cost. The smallest will be selected as the root port. Next, find the Designated Port by comparing the path cost. If the costs happen to be the same. then compare the BID. The smallest will be selected. Each link has a DP. Based on the exhibit above. we can find DP on each link. The DP on the link between SwitchA and SwitchC is SwitchA'Fa0/ 1, because it has the smallest MAC address.

Answer 229

Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/ 1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices? A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable. **B. SwitchX( config)# interface fastethernet 0/ 1 SwitchX( config-if)# switchport mode trunk** C. SwitchX( config)# interface fastethernet 0/ 1 SwitchX( config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX( config-if)# switchport access vlan 1 D. SwitchX( config)# interface fastethernet 0/ 1 SwitchX( config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX( config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX( config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX( config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20

Answer 230

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true? A. The Fa0/ 11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20. B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol. C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d. 1580. **D. SwitchA is not the root bridge. because not all of the interface roles are designated.**

Answer 231

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two). A. It is a layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains vlan configurations across network. B. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame. C. It is used exclusively for tagging vlan frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes. **D. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.** **E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.**

Answer 232

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two). A. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/ 1. **B. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/ 5.** C. FastEthernet0/ 1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards. D. FastEthernet0/ 5 has statically assigned MAC addresses. **E. FastEthernet0/ 1 is configured as a trunk link. F. Interface FastEthernet0/ 2 has been disabled.**

Answer 233

Refer to the exhibit. The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three). **A. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1.** B. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2. **C. The London router is a Cisco 2610.** D. The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610. **E. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/ 0 of the Manchester router.** F. The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/ 0 of the London router.

Answer 234

Which command can you enter to re-enable Cisco Discovery Protocol on a local router after it has been disabled? A. Router( config-if)# cdp run B. Router( config-if)# cdp enable **C. Router( config)# cdp run** D. Router( config)# cdp enable

Answer 235

Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives? When CDP is enabled globally using the cdp run command, it is enabled by default on all supported interfaces to send and receive CDP information. You can disable CDP on an interface that supports CDP with the no cdp enable command. A. RTA( config)# no cdp run B. RTA( config)# no cdp enable C. RTA( config)# interface s0/ 0 RTA( config-if)# no cdp run **D. RTA( config)# interface s0/ 0 RTA( config-if)# no cdp enable**

Answer 236

Refer to the exhibit. If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2? A Cisco device enabled with CDP sends out periodic interface updates to a multicast address in order to make itself known to neighbors. Since it is a layer two protocol, these packets are not routed. The devices detected would be immediately connected neighbors. A. R2 and R3 B. R1 and R3 **C. R3 and S2** D. R1, S1, S2, and R3 E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3

Answer 237

Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three). A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol. **B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.** **C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.** D. CDP is a network layer protocol. **E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.** F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.

Answer 238

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/ 13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario? A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link. B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames. **C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.** D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Answer 239

Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be? A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/ 1 port. B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/ 1 port. **C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/ 2 port.** D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/ 2 port.

Answer 240

Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/ 9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected? A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected. B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled. C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower. **D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.**

Answer 241

1. Which pairing reflects a correct protocol-and-metric relationship? A. EIGRP and link cost. **B. RIPv2 and number of hops.** C. OSPF and number of hops and reliability. D. IS-IS and delay and reliability.

Answer 242

Which two statements describe the advantages to the use of RIP over the use of OSPF? (Choose two). A. RIP has a more accurate metric. **B. RIP is less complex to configure.** C. RIP requires less time to converge. D. RIP uses less bandwidth. E. RIP demands fewer router resources. **E. RIP demands fewer router resources.**

Answer 243

A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/ 24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network? A. An OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/ 16. B. A RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/ 24. C. A default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1. D. A static route to network 192.168.10.0/ 24. **E. A directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/ 24.** F. A static route to network 192.168.10.0/ 24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop.

Answer 244

What functions do routers perform in a network? (Choose two). A. Access layer security. B. Microsegmentation of broadcast domains. **C. Packet switching.** **D. Path selection.** E. VLAN membership assignment. F. Bridging between LAN segments.

Answer 245

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface? **A. router( config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/ 1** B. router( config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/ 1 C. router( config-router)# default-information originate D. router( config-router)# default-information originate always

Answer 246

Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three). **A. It uses consistent route determination.** **B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.** **C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.** D. It requires more resources than other routing methods. E. It is best used for large-scale deployments. F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail

Answer 247

Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two). A. They establish routes that will never go down. **B. They keep routing tables small.** C. They require a great deal of CPU power. **D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table.** E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.

Answer 248

What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two). **A. It switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces**. B. It computes the destination host address. **C. It determines the next hop on the path.** D. It updates the destination IP address. E. It forwards ARP requests.

Answer 249

If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two). A. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 B. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0 **C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0** **D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1** E. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1

Answer 250

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two). A. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates. **B. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links. ** **C. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.** D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes. E. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases. F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors. G. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.

Answer 251

Which two statements are characteristics of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two). A. Convergence is usually faster than with link state protocols. **B. RIP is an example of distance vector routing protocols.** C. The protocol can be useful in hub-and-spoke and hierarchical networks. **D. Updates are periodic and include the entire routing table.** E. Each router has its own view of the topology. F. Routing updates are sent only after topology changes.

Answer 252

Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used? A. link delay **B. administrative distance** C. hop count D. link bandwidth E. link cost

Answer 253

Which statement is true about classful or classless routing? A. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default. **B. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.** C. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols. D. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.

Answer 254

Which three statements are correct about RIPv2? (Choose three). A. It has a lower default administrative distance than RIP version 1. **B. It is a classless routing protocol.** **C. It has the same maximum hop count as version 1**. D. It does not send the subnet mask in updates. **E. It supports authentication.** F. It uses broadcasts for its routing updates.

Answer 255

Refer to the exhibit. What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network? A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2 B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2 C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1 **D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1**

Answer 256

Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a no default administrative distance? A. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1 C. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 **D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5**

Answer 257

What does administrative distance refer to? A. The cost of a link between two neighboring routers. B. The advertised cost to reach a network. C. The cost to reach a network that is administratively set. **D. A measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source.**

Answer 258

The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command? A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router. B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router. **C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.** D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.

Answer 259

Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two). A. Examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets. **B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops.** **C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for the packets.** D. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations. E. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next hops. F. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate destinations. ## Footnote The basic function of a router is to receive incoming packets and then forward them to their required destination. This is done by reading layer 3 headers of inbound packets and update the info to layer 2 for further hopping.

Answer 260

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two). **A. This is a default route.** B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command. **C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.** D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address. E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.

Answer 261

Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19? A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19 B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0 C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0 **D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0** E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0 F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240 ## Footnote A /19 is CIDR notation for the 255.255.224.0 subnet mask. To configure this address on a router interface, you must be in interface mode (config-if).

Answer 262

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address? A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing. B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch. **C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.** D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table. E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Answer 263

What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two). **A. Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.** B. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain. C. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path. **D. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.** E. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

Answer 264

Refer to the exhibit. The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the router. A. A Core router. B. The HQ Internet gateway router. C. The WAN router at the central site. **D. Remote stub router at a remote site.** ## Footnote Since the routing table shows only a single default route using the single interface serial 0/0, we know that this is most likely a remote stub site with a single connection to the rest of the network. All the other answer options would mean that this router would have more connections and would contain more routes.

Answer 265

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three). A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router. **B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.** C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2. **D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.** E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets. **F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.** ## Footnote The router will forward the frames out the interface toward the destination, B is correct. Since the Router will have the end station already in its MAC table as seen by the “show arp” command, it will replace the destination MAC address to that of PC2 – D is correct. The router will then replace the source IP address to 172.16.40.1 – E is correct.

Answer 266

Refer to the exhibit. The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router? A. 10.1.0.1 B. 10.1.0.5 C. 10.1.0.6 D. 10.1.0.14 **E. 10.1.1.16** F. 10.1.2.8

Answer 267

Refer to the exhibit. Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2? A. Option A **B. Option B** C. Option C D. Option D E. Option E

Answer 268

Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A through router RT-A? A. VLAN 1 on RT-A B. IP routing on SW-A **C. default gateway on SW-A** D. crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A

Answer 269

Refer to the exhibit. What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two). **A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.** B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured. C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer. **D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.** E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.

Answer 270

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent? A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped. **B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.** C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address. D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets. E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.

Answer 271

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request? A. 192.168.0.1 B. 172.16.0.50 **C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0** D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2 E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff F. 255.255.255.255

Answer 272

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two). **A. Corp-4** B. Branch-1 C. Corp-2 D. Corp-1 **E. Branch-2** F. Corp-3

Answer 273

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two). A. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB. **B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.** **C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.** D. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN. E. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

Answer 274

What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three). A. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route. B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol. **C. It uses cost to determine the best route.** **D. It converges quickly.** **E. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.** F. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.

Answer 275

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two). **A. hello packets** B. SAP messages sent by other routers **C. LSAs from other routers** D. beacons received on point-to-point links E. routing tables received from other link-state routers F. TTL packets from designated routers

Answer 276

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router? **A. 4** B. 16 C. unlimited D. 2 ## Footnote 4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will install in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routing table and perform load balancing. In order to configure this feature, use the OSPF subcommand "maximum-paths".

Answer 277

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? A. show ip ospf link-state B. show ip ospf neighbors **C. show ip ospf database** D. show ip ospf lsa database

Answer 278

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers? A. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load **B. Bandwidth** C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU D. Bandwidth and Delay ## Footnote The cost (also called metric) of an interface in OSPF is an indication of the overhead required to send packets across a certain interface. The cost of an interface is inversely proportional to the bandwidth of that interface. A higher bandwidth indicates a lower cost. There is more overhead (higher cost) and time delays involved in crossing a 56k serial line than crossing a 10M Ethernet line.

Answer 279

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2? **A. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.** B. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately. C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1. D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the 172.16.100.0, 172.16.100.128, and 172.16.100.64 subnetworks. E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.

Answer 280

Which of the following terms describe characteristics of OSPF? (Choose two). A. Uses hop count as its metric. **B. Uses cost as its metric.** C. Uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm. D. Has a default administrative distance of 90. **E. Elects a DR on each multiaccess network**. F. Is vendor specific.

Answer 281

OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? (Choose three). A. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured. B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535. **C. Area 0 is called the backbone area.** **D. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas.** **E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.** F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1. ## Footnote Definition of OSPF areas: An OSPF network may be structured, or subdivided, into routing areas to simplify administration and optimize traffic and resource utilization. Areas are identified by 32-bit numbers, expressed either simply in decimal, or often in octet-based dot-decimal notation, familiar from IPv4 address notation.

Answer 282

Which items are correct about the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three). **A. It supports VLSM.** B. It is used to route between autonomous systems. **C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.** D. It increases routing overhead on the network. **E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.** F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2. ## Footnote OSPF can carry multiple subnet information for the same major network whereas other protocols such as RIP and IGRP cannot. An OSPF network can be divided into areas that are logical groupings of hosts and networks. Each area maintains a separate link-state database whose information may be summarized towards the rest of the network by the connecting router. Thus, the topology of an area is unknown outside the area. This reduces the routing traffic between parts of an autonomous system. OSPF uses IP multicast to send link-state updates. This ensures less processing on routers that are not listening to OSPF packets. Also, updates are only sent in case routing changes occur instead of periodically. This ensures a better use of bandwidth.

Answer 283

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two). **A. It is locally significant.** B. It is globally significant. **C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.** D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router. E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.

Answer 284

Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three). A. FastEthernet0/0 **B. FastEthernet0 /1** **C. Serial0/0** **D. Serial0/1.102** E. Serial0/1.103 F. Serial0/1.104 ## Footnote The network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has a block size of 64 in the fourth octet. The network address is 192.168.12.64, the broadcast address is 192.168.12.127. Interfaces in the range of this network will join OSPF. Answers B, C, and D are correct.

Answer 285

Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, what would cause two routers directly connected to not form an adjacency? A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets. **B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.** C. Router summarization is enabled on both routers. D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

Answer 286

Given the output of the show ip route command, what does the "128" refer to? ROUTER#show ip route 192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0 **A. OSPF cost** B. OSPF priority C. OSPF hop count D. OSPF ID number E. OSPF administrative distance

Answer 287

What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol? A. 90 B. 100 **C. 110** D. 20 E. 130 F. 170

Answer 288

Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks? A. 223.0.0.1 B. 172.16.0.1 C. 192.168.0.5 **D. 224.0.0.5** E. 254.255.255.255 ## Footnote OSPF hello packets have a destination address of 224.0.0.5 (The "all ospf routers" multicast address).

Answer 289

A(n) ____________is an OSPF data packet containing link-state and routing information that are shared among OSPF routers. **A. LSA** B. TSA C. Hello D. SPF E. None of the above ## Footnote Link-state advertisements (LSA) are basic communications for the OSPF routing protocol. It communicates the router's local routing topology to all other local routers in the same OSPF area. OSPF is designed for scalability, so some LSAs are not flooded out on all interfaces, but only on those that belong to the appropriate area.

Answer 290

If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface? A. The lowest IP address of any physical interface. **B. The highest IP address of any physical interface.** C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface. D. The highest IP address of any logical interface.

Answer 291

Updates addressed to 224.0.0.6 are destined for which type of OSPF router? **A. DR** B. ASBR C. ABR D. All OSPF routers ## Footnote OSPF traffic is multicast either to address 224.0.0.5 (All OSPF routers) or 224.0.0.6 (All Designated Routers).

Answer 292

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design (Choose three). **A. To speed up convergence.** B. To decrease latency by increasing bandwidth. **C. To reduce routing overhead.** D. To lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches. E. To reduce complexity of router configuration. **F. To confine network instability to single areas of the network**

Answer 293

Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two). A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1. B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3. C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. **D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.** E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance. **F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.**

Answer 294

What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two). A. The sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets. **B. The requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality.** C. The high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network. **D. The high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm.** E. The large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network.

Answer 295

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router? A. 10.1.1.2 B. 10.154.154.1 **C. 172.16.5.1** D. 192.168.5.3

Answer 296

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two). Router(config)# router ospf 1 A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID. B. Only one process number can be used on the same router. **C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes.** **D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.** E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier. ## Footnote The process identifier used in OSPF is required and locally significant, which means it does not need to be the same on other OSPF routers and is not passed between routers. It is a unique instance that ranges from 1 to 65,535.

Answer 297

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two). A. Router(config)# router ospf 0 **B. Router(config)# router ospf 1** C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0 D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0 **E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 ** F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Answer 298

Refer to the exhibit. You are connected to the router as user Mike. Which command allows you to see output from the OSPF debug command? **A. terminal monitor** B. show debugging C. show sessions D. show ip ospf interface ## Footnote By default terminal sessions do not display syslog or debug messages. The function of logging monitor is to be able to control the severity level of messages displayed to a terminal session. The terminal monitor command will display syslog and debug messages.

Answer 299

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? A. The OSPF area is not configured properly. B. The priority on R1 should be set higher. C. The cost on R1 should be set higher. **D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.**

Answer 300

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF? A. 2 B. 3 **C. 4** D. 5 E. 6 F. 7

Answer 301

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three). **A. Provides common view of entire topology.** B. Exchanges routing tables with neighbors. **C. Calculates shortest path.** **D. Utilizes event-triggered updates.** E. Utilizes frequent periodic updates.

Answer 302

Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router A, what information will Router E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96? **A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0** B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0 C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0 D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0

Answer 303

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two). **A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA**. B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance. C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID. **D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.** E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface. ## Footnote LSA Type 1 advertisements are generated by each router for each area it belongs to. They describe the states of the router's link to the area. These are only flooded within a particular area. OSPF routers will choose the highest loopback interface as its OSPF router ID (if available).

Answer 304

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two). A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area. **B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.** **C. It removes the need for virtual links.** D. It increases LSA response times. E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

Answer 305

When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state? A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state **B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state** C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

Answer 306

Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID? A. 192.168.1.1 B. 172.16.1.1 C. 1.1.1.1 **D. 2.2.2.2** ## Footnote The Router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router and is chosen using the highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router’s physical interfaces will be chosen, and can be manually assigned. The Router ID uniquely identifies a router in an autonomous system, no two routers in an OSPF autonomous system can have the same router-id.

Answer 307

What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0? **A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0** B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0 C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0 D. network all-interfaces area 0

Answer 308

Refer to the exhibit. To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two). A. R2(config-if)#clock rate **B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth** **C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost** D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf

Answer 309

Refer to the exhibit. After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4? A. No messages are exchanged **B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.** C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds. D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.

Answer 310

Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 is consoled into Switch A. Telnet connections and pings run from the command prompt on Switch A fail. Which of the following could cause this problem? By looking at the output, there is no IP address associated with interface VLAN1. To remote access to a Switch, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch. Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN. A. Switch A is not directly connected to router JAX **B. Switch A does not have an IP address** C. Switch A does not have a cdp entry for Switch B or router JAX D. Port 1 on Switch A should be an access port rather than a trunk port E. Switch A does not have a default gateway assigned

Answer 311

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP? **A. HSRP** B. VRRP C. GLBP D. CARP

Answer 312

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two). **A. Exactly one active router.** **B. One or more standby routers.** C. One or more backup virtual routers. D. Exactly one standby active router. E. Exactly one backup virtual router.

Answer 313

Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol? **A. VRRP** B. GLBP C. TFTP D. DHCP ## Footnote Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is one of the First Hop Redundancy Protocols that is supported by Cisco. Unlike HSRP and GLBP (which are Cisco proprietary protocols), VRRP is an industry standard protocol.

Answer 314

Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process? A. Interface B. Virtual IP address **C. Priority** D. Router ID

Answer 315

Which keyword enables an HSRP router to take the active role immediately when it comes online? **A. preempt** B. priority C. version D. IP address

Answer 316

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three). **A. The virtual IP address and virtual address are active on the HSRP Master router.** **B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval**. C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication. D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN. E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN. **F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.**

Answer 317

Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail? **A. No additional config is required.** B. standby 1 track ethernet C. standby 1 preempt D. standby 1 priority 250 ## Footnote When all other routers in the group fail, the local router will not receive any HSRP Hello messages so it will become “active”. The “preempt” command is only useful when the local router receives a HSRP Hello message from the active HSRP router with a lower priority, then the local router will decide to take over the active role.

Answer 318

Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2? **A. VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255**. B. Virtual MAC addresses. C. Tracking. D. Preemption. ## Footnote Both HSRP version 1 & version 2 support the preempt command. In HSRP version 1, group numbers are restricted to the range from 0 to 255. HSRP version 2 expands the group number range from 0 to 4095.

Answer 319

Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration? A. Router loopback address **B. Router IP address** C. Router priority D. Router tracking number ## Footnote Basic HSRP configuration consists of configuring an IP address on interface (cannot be the same as HSRP virtual IP), enabling the interface, and configure the HSRP group and virtual IP address using the standby command.

Answer 320

Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address? **A. 0000.0C07.AC15** B. 0000.5E00.01A3 C. 0007.B400.AE01 D. 0007.5E00.B301 ## Footnote With HSRP, two or more devices support a virtual router with a fictitious MAC address and unique IP address. There are two version of HSRP. With HSRP version 1, the virtual routers MAC address is 0000.0c07.ACxx , in which xx is the HSRP group. With HSRP version 2, the virtual MAC address if 0000.0C9F.Fxxx, in which xxx is the HSRP group.

Answer 321

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device? **A. FHRP** B. DHCP C. RSMLT D. ESRP ## Footnote First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is a protocol that enables two or more devices to work together in a group, sharing a single IP address, the virtual IP address. One router is elected to handle all requests sent to the virtual IP address. With HSRP, this is the active router. An HSRP group has one active router and at least one standby router.

Answer 322

Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two). A. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN. B. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP. **C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN.** **D. It reduces management overhead.** E. It supports redundant configuration files. F. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of their physical distance from one another.

Answer 323

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP? **A. HSRP** B. VRRP C. GLBP D. CARP ## Footnote First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is a Cisco routing redundancy designed to allow for transparent fail-over at the first-hop IP router. In HSRP , one router is elected to handle all requests sent to the virtual IP address. With HSRP, this is the active router. An HSRP group has one active router, at least one standby router, and perhaps many listening routers.

Answer 324

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID? **A. 192.168.0.1** B. 172.16.1.1 C. 172.16.2.1 D. 172.16.2.225

Answer 325

Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol? **A. VRRP** B. GLBP C. TFTP D. DHCP ## Footnote Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is one of the First Hop Redundancy Protocols that is supported by Cisco. Unlike HSRP and GLBP (which are Cisco proprietary protocols), VRRP is an industry standard protocol.

Answer 326

Refer to the exhibit. To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two). A. R2(config-if)#clock rate **B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth** **C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost** D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf

Answer 327

Which keyword enables an HSRP router to take the active role immediately when it comes online? **A. preempt** B. priority C. version D. IP address ## Footnote If a router in a HSRP group fails, the standby router will become active. If the failing router comes back online, it will become the standby router in the group. In order to have this router return to the active role, the preempt command is used.

Answer 328

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three). **A. The virtual IP address and virtual address are active on the HSRP Master router.** **B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.** C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication. D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN. E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN. **F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.**

Answer 329

Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail? **A. No additional config is required.** B. standby 1 track ethernet C. standby 1 preempt D. standby 1 priority 250

Answer 330

Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2? **A. VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255.** B. Virtual MAC addresses. C. Tracking. D. Preemption.

Answer 331

Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration? A. Router loopback address **B. Router IP address** C. Router priority D. Router tracking number

Answer 332

Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address? **A. 0000.0C07.AC15** B. 0000.5E00.01A3 C. 0007.B400.AE01 D. 0007.5E00.B301

Answer 333

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device? **A. FHRP** B. DHCP C. RSMLT D. ESRP ## Footnote First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is a protocol that enables two or more devices to work together in a group, sharing a single IP address, the virtual IP address. One router is elected to handle all requests sent to the virtual IP address. With HSRP, this is the active router. An HSRP group has one active router and at least one standby router.

Answer 334

Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two). A. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN. B. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP. **C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN.** **D. It reduces management overhead.** E. It supports redundant configuration files. F. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of their physical distance from one another.

Answer 335

Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as what? A. 4to6 routing **B. dual-stack routing** C. 6to4 routing D. binary routing E. NextGen routing ## Footnote Dual stack involves running IPv4 and IPv6 at the same time. End nodes and routers/switches run both protocols, and if IPv6 communication is possible, it is the preferred protocol.

Answer 336

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? A. ipv6 local **B. ipv6 unicast-routing** C. ipv6 host D. ipv6 neighbor

Answer 337

Which statement about RIPng is true? A. There can be only one RIPng process per router. B. RIPng allows for routes with up to 30 hops. **C. RIPng is enabled on each interface separately.** D. RIPng uses broadcasts to exchange routes. ## Footnote The Routing Information Protocol next generation (RIPng) is an interior gateway protocol (IGP) that uses a distance-vector algorithm to determine the best route to a destination, using the hop count as the metric. RIPng is a routing protocol that exchanges routing information used to compute routes and is intended for Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6)-based networks. RIPng is enabled on each interface separately.

Answer 338

Which IPV6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::8 to send updates? A. RIPng **B. IS-IS** C. OSPFv3 D. static

Answer 339

Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? (Choose three). **A. Enable dual-stack routing**. B. Configure IPV6 directly. **C. Use proxying and translation to translate IPV6 packets into IPV4 packets.** D. Use DHCPv6 to map IPV4 addresses to IPV6 addresses. E. Statically map IPV4 address to IPV6 addresses. **F. Configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands.**

Answer 340

Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two). **A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies**. **B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.** C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6. D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies. E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

Answer 341

A static route of 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0 was configured on a router. During your connectivity testing, routes are not being learned by the router. What command will remove this configuration? A. erase ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0 B. rem ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0 C. del ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0 **D. no ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0**

Answer 342

Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server. Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure? A. The network has not fully converged. B. IP routing is not enabled. **C. A static route is configured incorrectly.** D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled. E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated. F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated ## Footnote The default route or the static route was configured with incorrect next-hop ip address 172.19.22.2 The correct ip address will be 172.18.22.2 to reach server located on 172.31.5.0 network. Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.18.22.2

Answer 343

Why did the device return this message? Router1#show lo % Ambiguous command: "show lo" Router1# A. The command requires additional options or parameters B. There is no show command that starts with lo. C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode. **D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters lo.**

Answer 344

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down. Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem? A. The serial cable is bad. B. The MTU is incorrectly configured. **C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.** D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet. ## Footnote Rtr3 is configured to use PPP encapsulation, but, Rtr1 has not been configured for any kind of encapsulation. The default on Cisco router serial interfaces is HDLC, not PPP, so there is an encapsulation mismatch.

Answer 345

Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem? A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced. B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly. **C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.** D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks. E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Answer 346

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has found the following problem. The remote networks 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router's serial 0/0 interface. No users are able to access 172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem? A. No gateway of last resort on Central. B. Central router's not receiving 172.16.20.0 update. **C. Incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0.** D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central's routing table.

Answer 347

Refer to the exhibit. A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take? A. Forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface. B. Forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface. **C. Forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface.** D. Forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface. ## Footnote Looking at the output above, there is no IP route for 10.1.1.4 address on AcmeB routing table. If the router cannot find a specific path in its routing table to a particular route, the router will inform the source host with an ICMP message that the destination is unreachable and this will be through the same interface it has received the packet.

Answer 348

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF? A. 2 B. 3 **C. 4** D. 5 E. 6 F. 7 ## Footnote OSPF is configured using default classful addressing, but OSPF is a link-state routing protocol so it will always send the subnet mask of each network in their advertised routes. Therefore, R1 will learn the complete subnets. The four networks will be in the routing table of R1 - 172.16.2.64/30, 172.16.2.228/30, 172.16.2.232/30, and 172.16.3.0/24. Other networks will be learned as “Directly connected” networks (marked with letter “C”).

Answer 349

Which network protocols does DNS use? (Choose two). ** A. TCP** B. TFTP C. FTP D. SCP **E. UDP** ## Footnote DNS can use either the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) or Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) with a destination port of 53.

Answer 350

DNS servers provide what service? A. They map individual hosts to their specific IP addresses. B. Given an IP address, they determine the name of the host that is sought. C. They run a spell check on host names to ensure accurate routing. **D. The convert domain names into IP addresses.**

Answer 351

Which protocol should be used to establish a secure terminal connection to a remote network device? **A. SSH** B. ARP C. Telnet D. SNMPv2 E. SNMPv1 F. WEP

Answer 352

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP? A. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients. B. If an address conflict is detected, the address removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable by the administrator. C. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts. D. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP server. E. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until server is rebooted. **F. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.**

Answer 353

Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP server? A. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time, at the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made. **B. Addresses are leased to hosts, which periodically contact the DHCP server to renew the lease.** C. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the hosts use the same address at all time. D. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreements.

Answer 354

When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two). **A. Broadcast address on the network.** B. Manually assigned address to the clients. C. IP address used by the interfaces. D. Designated IP address to the DHCP server. E. IP address leased to the LAN. **F. Network or subnetwork IP address.**

Answer 355

Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two). **A. Configure IP address parameters from a DHCP server to a host. ** B. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network. C. Perform host discovery by using DHCPDISCOVER messages. D. Assign and renew IP addresses from the default pool. E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server. **F. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.**

Answer 356

What is the first step in the NAT configuration process? **A. Define inside and outside interfaces.** B. Define public and private IP addresses. C. Define IP address pools. D. Define global and local interfaces.

Answer 357

Which of the following are true statements regarding the NAT definition? (Choose two). **A. Inside local = Name of the inside source address before translation** B. Outside local = Name of the outside interface address after translation C. Inside global = Name of the inside DMZ address host after translation **D. Outside global = Name of the outside destination host before translation** ## Footnote Cisco defines these terms as: Inside local address—The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. This is the address configured as a parameter of the computer OS or received via dynamic address allocation protocols such as DHCP. The address is likely not a legitimate IP address assigned by the Network Information Center (NIC) or service provider. Inside global address—A legitimate IP address assigned by the NIC or service provider that represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world. Outside local address—The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not necessarily a legitimate address, it is allocated from an address space routable on the inside. Outside global address—The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host owner. The address is allocated from a globally routable address or network space.

Answer 358

Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two). **A. They are always present in the NAT table** **B. The allow connections to be initiated from the outside** C. They require no inside or outside interface marking because addresses are statically defined D. They can be configured with access-lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside

Answer 359

In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify? A. If the number of available IP addresses is exceeded, excess traffic will use the specified address pool. B. When the bandwidth is insufficient, some hosts will not be allowed to access network translation. **C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources.** D. The pool of IP addresses have been exhausted. ## Footnote By adding the keyword “overload” at the end of a NAT statement, NAT becomes PAT (Port Address Translation). This is also a kind of dynamic NAT that maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP address (many-to-one) by using different ports.

Answer 360

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP? **A. Addresses in a private range will be not routed on the internet backbone. ** B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network. C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address into a valid IP address. D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range. ## Footnote By default, routers do not forward any traffic from the private IP range as defined by RFC 1918. Addresses in the 10/8, 172.16/12, and 192.16/16 will not be routed to an interface with a public IP address.

Answer 361

When is it necessary to use a public IP address on a routing interface? A. Connect a router on a local network. B. Connect a router to another router. C. Allow distribution of routes between networks. D. Translate a private IP address. **E. Connect a network to the internet.**

Answer 362

What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two). A. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled. **B. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.** **C. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.** D. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing. E. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets. F. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside network.

Answer 363

Identify the advantages of using NAT. (Choose four). **A. Conserves legally registered addresses.** B. Translation introduces switching path delays. **C. Remedies address overlap occurrence.** D. Causes loss of end-to-end IP traceability. **E. Increases flexibility when connecting to the internet.** F. Certain applications will not function with NAT enabled. **G. Eliminates address renumbering as network changes.**

Answer 364

Identify the disadvantages of using NAT. (Choose three). A. Conserves legally registered addresses. **B. Translation introduces switching path delays.** C. Remedies address overlap occurrence. **D. Causes loss of end-to-end IP traceability.** E. Increases flexibility when connecting to the internet. **F. Certain applications will not function with NAT enabled.** G. Eliminates address renumbering as network changes.

Answer 365

Identify the different types of NAT. (Choose three). **A. Dynamic** B. Auto-configure C. Global **D. Static** **E. Overload** ## Footnote Dynamic NAT - private IP addresses are mapped to the pool of public IP addresses. Static NAT - translates one private IP address to a public one. The public IP address is always the same. NAT Overload – one public IP address is used for all internal devices, but a different port is assigned to each private IP address.

Answer 366

Which of the following are true statements regarding the NAT definition? (Choose two). **A. Inside global = Name of the inside host after translation.** B. Inside local = Name of the inside DMZ address before translation. **C. Outside local = Name of the destination host after translation.** D. Outside global = Name of the outside DMZ address before translation.

Answer 367

When using NAT Overload (PAT), all inside hosts get translated into what? **A. One single IP address** B. Outside global IP address C. Inside local IP address D. One private IP address

Answer 368

Identify the correct static NAT configuration. A. ip nat inside static source 10.1.1.1 170.46.2.2 **B. ip nat inside source static 10.1.1.1 170.46.2.2** C. ip nat static 10.1.1.1 170.46.2.2 D. ip nat inside source 10.1.1.1 170.46.2.2 static

Answer 369

What command will display NAT translations on your router? A. show ip nat B. show ip nat /all **C. show ip nat translations** D. show ip nat transactions

Answer 370

What command will display a summary of the NAT configuration and number of active translation types on your router? A. show ip nat B. debug ip nat translations C. debug ip nat **D. show ip nat statistics**

Answer 371

Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for NAT traffic? **A. show ip nat statistics** B. debug ip nat C. show ip debug nat D. clear ip nat statistics

Answer 372

Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address? **A. PAT** B. SFTP C. RARP D. ARP E. TFTP

Answer 373

What command will clear your NAT entries from the translation table? A. clear ip nat B. clear ip nat /all C. clear ip nat translations **D. clear ip nat translations ***

Answer 374

What statement can you use instead of the netmask command? A. mask **B. prefix-length** C. subnet D. subnetmask ## Footnote If a subnet mask is in dotted decimal version of the binary subnet mask, the prefix length is a shorthand way of expressing the subnet mask. The prefix length is the number of bits set in the subnet mask. If the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0, there are 24 bits in the binary version of the subnet mask, so the prefix length is 24 bits.

Answer 375

Which of the following would be a good starting point for troubleshooting if your router is not translating? A. Reload B. Run debug **C. Check the interfaces for the correct configuration.** D. Change the pool name.

Answer 376

What does the asterisk (*) represent in the following output? NAT*: s=172.16.2.2, d=192.168.2.1->10.1.1.1 [1] A. The packet was destined for a local interface on the router **B. The packet was translated and fast switched to the destination** C. The packet attempted to be translated but failed D. The packet was translated but there was no response from the remote host ## Footnote Fast witching allows higher throughput by switching a packet using a cache created by the initial packet sent to a particular destination. Destination addresses are stored in the high-speed cache to expedite forwarding.

Answer 377

What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a Cisco router running PAT? **A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.** B. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection. C. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the lookup table. D. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the duration of the connection.

Answer 378

When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what? A. local B. inside C. global **D. outside**

Answer 379

Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true of the configuration for this network? A. The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the number of inside addresses that are supported. B. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown. **C. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.** D. External Router must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24.

Answer 380

How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands? Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224 Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME A. 7 **B. 8** C. 9 D. 10 E. 24 F. 32

Answer 381

Refer to the exhibit. A company wants to use NAT in the network shown. Which commands will apply the NAT configuration to the proper interfaces? (Choose two). A. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside **B. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside** **C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside ** D. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside E. R1(config)# interface serial0/1 R1(config-if)# ip nat outside source pool 200.2.2.18 255.255.255.252 F. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip nat inside source 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0

Answer 382

What does the "Inside Global" address represent in the configuration of NAT? A. The summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses. B. The MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet. C. A globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. **D. A registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network.**

Answer 383

Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by a smaller number of public IP addresses? **A. NAT** B. NTP C. RFC 1631 D. RFC 1918

Answer 384

What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration? **A. It enables port address translation.** B. It enables the use of a secondary pool of IP addresses when the first pool is depleted. C. It enables the inside interface to receive traffic. D. It enables the outside interface to forward traffic.

Answer 385

Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (Choose two). **A. inside local** **B. inside global** C. inside private D. outside private E. external global F. external local

Answer 386

What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list? **A. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router.** B. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface. C. It can disable the overload command. D. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.

Answer 387

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? A. outside global B. outside local **C. inside global** D. inside local E. outside public F. inside public

Answer 388

Of the following, identify the term that is a collection of information that’s organized hierarchically and can be accessed by protocols like SNMP. A. Management database (MDB) B. Information management database (IMD) **C. Management Information Base (MIB)** D. Management database information (MDI)

Answer 389

You want to send a console message to a syslog server, but you only want to send status messages of 6 and lower. Which of the following commands will you use? A. logging trap alerts B. logging trap errors C. logging trap debugging D. logging trap notifications **E. logging trap informational**

Answer 390

What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three). **A. MIB** **B. agent** C. set D. AES E. supervisor **F. manager**

Answer 391

What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network? A. response B. get **C. trap** D. capture

Answer 392

What authentication type is used by SNMPv2? A. HMAC-MD5 B. HMAC-SHA C. CBC-DES **D. community strings**

Answer 393

Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three). **A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.** B. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP. **C. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.** D. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP. **E. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.** F. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

Answer 394

Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three). A. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance. B. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems. **C. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space.** **D. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.** E. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping. **F. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.**

Answer 395

What is the default Syslog facility level? A. local4 B. local5 C. local6 **D. local7**

Answer 396

What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds? A. service timestamps log datetime localtime **B. service timestamps debug datetime msec** C. service timestamps debug datetime localtime D. service timestamps log datetime msec

Answer 397

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the Syslog output messages? A. The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link. B. The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process, causing the adjacency to go down. **C. A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.** D. Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.

Answer 398

What are the popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved? (Choose three). A. Flash **B. The logging buffer .RAM** **C. The console terminal** D. Other terminals **E. Syslog server**

Answer 399

Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device? A. Netflow B. WCCP C. IP SLA **D. SNMP**

Answer 400

What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called? (Choose two). **A. TRAP** **B. INFORM** C. GET D. SET

Answer 401

Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2? (Choose three). **A. Message Integrity** B. Compression **C. Authentication** **D. Encryption** E. Error Detection

Answer 402

Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which types of logs would be generated? (Choose four). **A. Emergencies** B. Warnings **C. Alerts** **D. Errors** **E. Critical** ## Footnote The syslog levels and descriptions are as follows: 0 Emergency system is unusable 1-Alert action must be taken immediately 2-Critical Critical conditions 3-Error Error conditions 4-Warning Warning conditions 5-Notice normal but significant condition 6-Informational Informational message 7-Debug Debug-level message

Answer 403

Refer to the exhibit. What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three). **A. Send an SNMP trap**. **B. Send a syslog message.** **C. Increment the Security Violation counter.** D. Forward the traffic. E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config. F. Shut down the port.

Answer 404

An inbound access list has been configured on a serial interface to deny packet entry for TCP and UDP ports 21, 23, and 25. What types of packets will be permitted by this ACL? (Choose three). A. FTP **B. HTTP** C. Telnet **D. POP3** E. SMTP **F. DNS**

Answer 405

An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. What must be done to accomplish this? **A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.** B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration. C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration. D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.

Answer 406

What is the purpose of the switchport command? Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1 Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 **A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to connect to the port that is being configured.** B. It informs the switch that traffic destined for MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 should only be sent to the port that is being configured. C. It will act like an access list and the port will filter packets that have a source or destination MAC of 0018.DE8B.4BF8. D. The switch will shut down the port of any traffic with source MAC address of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.

Answer 407

Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch? A. To prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port. **B. To prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN.** C. To limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port. D. Block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces.

Answer 408

How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server. **B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.** C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors. D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.

Answer 409

A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three). **A. Enable port security**. B. Create the port as a trunk port. **C. Create the port as an access port.** D. Create the port as a protected port. E. Set the port security aging time to 0. **F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.** G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.

Answer 410

Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/ 12 on a switch? (Choose two). A. SW1# show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/ 12 B. SW1# show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/ 12 **C. SW1# show running-config** **D. SW1# show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/ 12** E. SW1# show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/ 12

Answer 411

What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file. **B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file. ** C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database. D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received. E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

Answer 412

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two). A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports. B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels. **C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.** **D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.** E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.

Answer 413

Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/ 1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands. Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two). A. Port security needs to be globally enabled. **B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.** C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation. **D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.** E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command. F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.

Answer 414

Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer? A. switch( config-if)# switchport mode trunk switch( config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 B. switch( config-if)# switchport mode trunk switch( config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address 1 **C. switch( config-if)# switchport mode access switch( config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1** D. switch( config-if)# switchport mode access switch( config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address 1

Answer 415

Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/ 1 of 2950Switch. 2950Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security 2950Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/ 1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two). A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/ 1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. **B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/ 1.** C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch. **D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/ 1.** E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/ 1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/ 1. F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/ 1.

Answer 416

What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two). A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports. **B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.** C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted. **D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.** E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.

Answer 417

What is the effect of this configuration? line vty 0 4 password todd login transport input ssh A. It configures SSH globally for all logins. B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSH connection first and if that fails to use Telnet. **C. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the VTY lines.** D. It configures the device to only use only Telnet on the VTY lines.

Answer 418

On which options are standard access lists based? A. destination address and wildcard mask B. destination address and subnet mask C. source address and subnet mask **D. source address and wildcard mask**

Answer 419

Refer to the exhibit. Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.21.1.128/ 28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended? A. ACDB B. BADC C. DBAC **D. CDBA**

Answer 420

Refer to the exhibit. An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102? A. no ip access-class 102 in B. no ip access-class 102 out C. no ip access-group 102 in **D. no ip access-group 102 out** E. no ip access-list 102 in

Answer 421

Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true? A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface. B. You can apply only one access list on any interface. **C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.** D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.

Answer 422

Which item represents the standard IP ACL? A. access-list 110 permit ip any any **B. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255** C. access list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 D. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22

Answer 423

A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two). **A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255** B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255 **C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255** D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255 E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255 F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0

Answer 424

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two). A. Administratively shut down the interface. B. Physically secure the interface. C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command. **D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.** **E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.**

Answer 425

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two). **A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.** B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface. C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets. **D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.** E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.

Answer 426

Which statement about ACLs is true? **A. An ACL have must at least one permit action, else it just blocks all traffic.** B. ACLs go bottom-up through the entries looking for a match C. An ACL has an implicit permit at the end of ACL. D. ACLs will check the packet against all entries looking for a match.

Answer 427

A Host is able to ping a web server, but it is not able to do HTTP request. What could be the problem? A. ACL blocking port 23 B. ACL blocking All ports **C. ACL blocking port 80** D. ACL blocking port 443 E. None of the above

Answer 428

Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL? (Choose two). **A. 50** **B. 1550** C. 150 D. 1250 E. 2050 ## Footnote The range of standard ACL is 1-99, 1300-1999 so 50 and 1550 are two valid numbers.

Answer 429

Which command can you enter to block HTTPS traffic from the whole class A private network range to a host? A. R1( config)# access-list 105 deny tcp 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 443 B. R1( config)# access-list 105 deny tcp 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 53 C. R1( config)# access-list 105 deny tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 53 **D. R1( config)# access-list 105 deny tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 443**

Answer 430

Which range represents the standard access list? **A. 99** B. 150 C. 299 D. 2000

Answer 431

Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols? A. transport type all B. transport output all C. transport preferred all **D. transport input all**

Answer 432

Which action can change the order of entries in a named access-list? A. Removing an entry B. Opening the access-list in notepad C. Adding an entry **D. Resequencing**

Answer 433

If you wanted to deny all Telnet connections to only network 192.168.10.0, which command could you use? A. access-list 100 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 eq telnet B. access-list 100 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.255.255.255 eq telnet **C. access-list 100 deny tcp any 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23** D. access-list 100 deny 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23

Answer 434

You want to create an extended access list that denies the subnet of the following host: 172.16.50.172/ 20. Which of the following would you start your list with? A. access-list 110 deny ip 172.16.192.0 0.0.31.255 any B. access-list 110 deny ip 172.16.50.0 0.0.16.255 any C. access-list 10 deny ip 172.16.172.0 0.0.31.255 any **D. access-list 110 deny ip 172.16.48.0 0.0.15.255 any**

Answer 435

The following access list has been applied to an interface on a router: access-list 101 deny tcp 199.111.16.32 0.0.0.31 host 199.168.5.60 Which of the following IP addresses will be blocked because of this single rule in the list? (Choose two). A. 199.111.16.67 **B. 199.111.16.38** C. 199.111.16.65 **D. 199.11.16.54**

Answer 436

What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two). A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports. **B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.** C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted. **D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.** E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.

Answer 437

What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan? A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security. **B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.** C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten. D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported. E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.

Answer 438

Which type of attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP connection to a server? **A. denial of service** B. brute force C. reconnaissance D. Trojan horse

Answer 439

The maximum size of a TCP/ IP packet is 65,535 bytes. What type of attack is characterized by oversized packets, causing a device to reboot incessantly, freeze up, or totally crash? A. denial of service B. brute force **C. ping of death** D. trojan horse

Answer 440

Refer to the exhibit. Identify the security threats on RouterA (Choose three). **A. unencrypted password set** B. unsecured message on banner **C. remote access can only be made through telnet or SSH** **D. user gets level 15 automatically by default**

Answer 441

Refer to the exhibit. Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA (Choose two). **A. At least 5 simultaneous remote connect are possible.** B. Only telnet protocol connections to Router A are supported. **C. Remotely connection to RouterA using telnet will succeed.** D. Console line connection will never time out due to inactivity. E. Since DHCP is not used on Fa0/ 1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol.

Answer 442

Of the following, identify the numerous kinds of security threats. (Choose three). **A. Hardware threats** **B. Access attacks** C. IDS/ IPS **D. Password attacks**

Answer 443

To prevent users from plugging a host into a Switch port, which command is used to enable port security on a Switch? A. Switch# switchport port-security B. Switch( config)# switchport port-security C. Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security enable **D. Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security**

Answer 444

In order to allow only one host to use a specific port on a Switch, what command will accomplish this? **A. Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1** B. Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security 1 C. Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address 1 D. Switch( config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

Answer 445

By default, ports on a Cisco Switch are? A. shutdown **B. enabled** C. secured D. trunks

Answer 446

What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command? A. Only the enable password will be encrypted. B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted. C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted. D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration. **E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.**

Answer 447

What is the effect of this configuration? line vty 0 4 password todd login transport input ssh A. It configures SSH globally for all logins. B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSH connection first and if that fails to use Telnet. **C. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the VTY lines.** D. It configures the device to only use only Telnet on the VTY lines.

Answer 448

What are two characteristics of Telnet? **A. It sends data in clear text.** B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices. C. Is it more secure than SSH. **D. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet connections.**

Answer 449

A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the internet. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the Ethernet cable from the PC and re-connect it to their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three). **A. Enable port security.** B. Create the port as a trunk port. **C. Create the port as an access port.** D. Create the port as a protected port. E. Set the port security aging time to 0. **F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.** G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.

Answer 450

From which of the following attacks can Message Authentication Code (MAC) shield your network? A. DoS B. DDoS **C. spoofing** D. SYN floods

Answer 451

Which output displays a JSON data representation? A. { ―response‖,{ ―taskId‖,{}; ―url‖,‖ string‖ }; ―version‖, ―string‖ } B. { ―response‖:{ ―taskId‖,{}; ―url‖,‖ string‖ }; ―version‖; ―string‖ } C. { ―response‖- { ―taskId‖- {}; ―url‖-― string‖ }, ―version‖-― string‖ } D. { ―response‖:{ ―taskId‖:{}, ―url‖:‖ string‖ }, ―version‖: ―string‖ } A. A B. B C. C **D. D**

Answer 452

Which option best describes an API? A. Communication often uses either Java scripting, Python, XML, or simple HTTP. B. An architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications. **C. A stateless client-server model**. D. Request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data.

Answer 453

Which option about JSON is true? A. Uses predefined tags or angle brackets (< >) to delimit markup text **B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays** C. used for storing information D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

Answer 454

Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash? **A. {― key‖: ―value‖}** B. [― key‖, ―value‖] C. {― key‖, ―value‖} D. (― key‖: ―value‖) ## Footnote JSON data is written as key/ value pairs separated with colons. A key/ value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes), followed by a colon, followed by a value.

Answer 455

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two) A. YAML **B. JSON** C. EBCDIC D. SGML **E. XML**

Answer 456

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two). **A. Reduced operational costs.** B. Reduced hardware footprint. **C. Faster changes with more reliable results.** D. Fewer network failures. E. Increased network security.

Answer 457

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two). A. Adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software. **B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment.** C. Customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises. **D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center.** E. Modular design that is upgradable as needed.

Answer 458

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks? A. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a green field deployment. B. Its modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization **C. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.** D. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode.

Answer 459

Which is a function of the Proactive Insights feature of Cisco DNA Center Assurance? A. Pointing out where the most serious issues are happening in the network. B. Generating synthetic traffic to perform tests that raise awareness of potential network issues. C. Enabling you to quickly view all of the contextual information related to a single use. **D. Enabling you to see the complete path of packets from the client to the end application.**

Answer 460

How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network? A. Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller B. Devices establish an IPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller. C. The Cisco CLI Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller. **D. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller.**

CCNA_FASTPATH Flashcards

(496 cards)